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Diagnostic Imaging scs RUSVM > DI Final / Quiz 4 > Flashcards

DI Final / Quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of contrast material do you use for myelograms?

A

Non-ionic

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2
Q

What type of contrast material is safer? Which is used more commonly?

A

Non-ionic

Ionic; barium (cheaper)

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3
Q

Which phase of the EU is used to assess the functional renal parenchyma?

A

Nephrogram (1st)

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4
Q

Which phase of the EU is used to asses the pelvic recesses, renal pelves and ureters?

A

Pyelogram (2nd)

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5
Q

T/F Renal lymphoma is normally bilateral.

A

True

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6
Q

Which kidney is usually visible?

A

Left (more caudal and ventral than the right)

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7
Q

What vertebrae is used to provide a relative measurement of the length of the kidney?

A

L2
(Dog 2.5-3.5x
Cat 2.4-3.0x)

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8
Q

What does a constant or increasing nephrogram opacity without collection system visualization indicate when doing a renal contrast study?

A

Contrast medium induced renal failure (Give IVF)

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9
Q

T/F The location of renal/urinary calculi can be determined on the lateral view.

A

False. Need 2 views (at least).

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10
Q

While looking at an abdominal x-ray, a colleague exclaims “There are clearly three kidneys seen here. How odd!”
Other than the strong sudden urge to smack them in the head, what artifact name pops into your head?

A

Summation

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11
Q

Phosphate and oxalate calculi are radioopaque. Which cystic calculi are non-radiopaque?

A

Cystine and Urate

Can’t C U

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12
Q

T/F Glucose fermentation in the bladder results in a radioopaque fluid accumulation. This indicates diabetes.

A

False. Abnormal gas formation occurs.

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13
Q

T/F Survey radiographs should be done within 48 hours of a contrast study.

A

False. Should be done just before the contrast is administered.

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14
Q

T/F Non-ionic contrast material is less hyper-osmolar than ionic.

A

True.

They have an osmolality 5-8 times lower than ionic. This makes them safer.

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15
Q

What does a filling defect that is seen centrally in the bladder in all views indicate?

A

A free object (stone, clot)

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16
Q

What does a filling defect that is seen in the periphery of the bladder in at least 1 view indicate?

A

A wall lesion, something adherent to the wall (could be a stone), or air bubbles if using double contrast

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17
Q

In a dog, when is the earliest that fetal mineralization can be detected on an x-ray? In US?

A

42 days

33-39 days

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18
Q

In a cat, when is the earliest that fetal mineralization can be detected on an x-ray?

A

35 days

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19
Q

When can a fetal heart beat be detected using US?

A

23-25 days

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20
Q

How fast should the fetal heart rate be compared to the mother’s?

A

1.5 - 2 times

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21
Q

What part of the male urethra is the most narrow?

A

Prostatic

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22
Q

Where are the earliest and often most severe signs of cystitis seen?

A

Cranioventral aspect, apex (thickened, irregular wall)

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23
Q

What type of shadowing do you expect to see with multiple, separate uroliths?

A

Dirty

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24
Q

What type of shadowing do you expect to see with a single, large urolith?

A

Clean +/- edge

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25
Q

Where is the pylorus of the dog positioned? What about in the cat?

A

Dog-Right.

Cat-Central.

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26
Q

What radiographic technique (mAs/kVp) do you use for examining the stomach?

A

High mAs, low kVp

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27
Q

Why is some medication radioopaque in the stomach?

A

Calcium

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28
Q

Where in the stomach is gas seen on a right lateral?

A

Fundus

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29
Q

Where in the stomach is gas seen on a left lateral?

A

Pylorus

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30
Q

Where in the stomach is gas seen on a DV?

A

Fundus

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31
Q

Where in the stomach is gas seen on a VD?

A

Pylorus (but if there is a lot of gas, it will be in the body of the stomach as well)

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32
Q

What is the best modality to assess gastric motility?

A

US

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33
Q

With GDV, where is the pylorus located?

A

Craniodorsally and to the left.

Fundus shifts to the right (with the spleen in tow)

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34
Q

What disease are gastric ulcers associated with?

A

Gastric carcinomas (neoplasia)

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35
Q

What gastric tumor type is more common in the dog? In the cat?

A

Dog- Gastric carcinoma

Cat- Lymphoma

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36
Q

Which modality is more sensitive for detecting gastric neoplasia?

A

US

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37
Q

What are the top differentials for a palpable mid abdominal mass?

A

Lymph node mass, Splenic mass, Intestinal mass

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38
Q

What structure is regurgitation usually associated with?

A

The esophagus

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39
Q

What 2 bones are used to estimate the diameter of the small intestines in dogs?

A

(Height of ) L2
(2 x width of a ) Rib
Cat: 2 x height of central part of L4, approx 12mm)

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40
Q

What modality is best for assessing the character of the wall of the small intestines? What is the only other modality that could be used?

A

Best: US
Alt: Contrast study

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41
Q

T/F Asymmetric distribution of the intestines usually indicates pathology.

A

False, usually not significant.

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42
Q

Where is a linear foreign body often lodged in a cat?

A

Base of the tongue

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43
Q

What contrast medium is counter-indicated for an intestinal foreign body assessment? What is the alternative?

A

Barium
(Risk of rupture, potential emergency surgery)
Alternative: Iodine

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44
Q

What are indications for a barium study?

A

Persistent vomiting with unknown cause
Inconclusive radiographs
Not having US available

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45
Q

T/F Barium sediments in the GIT.

A

False

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46
Q

In a barium study, when will barium be in the duodenum? When should the jejunum be filled? When should the stomach be empty? When should the jejunum be empty?

A

15min-> Duodenm
30min-> Jejunum filled
1-2hrs-> Stomach empty
6 hrs-> Jejunum empty

47
Q

What does a ‘sting of pearls’ on a feline barium study indicate?

A

Normal

48
Q

What is it called when the outline of the intestines during a barium study is poorly defined or rough-looking?

A

Fimbriation (or possibly pseudoulcers if they are smooth defects)
Normal- not a sign of disease

49
Q

What does the term “ileus” mean?

A

Intestinal obstruction

50
Q

What type of ileus is caused by electrolyte imbalances, ischemia, peritonitis, and shock?

A

Paralytic

51
Q

What type of ileus is caused by foreign bodies, tumors, scarring, adhesions, hernias and volulus?

A

Mechanical

52
Q

Which type of ileus presents with 2 populations of bowel, normal and enlarged?

A

Mechanical

53
Q

Which type of ileus tends to cause a larger degree of enlargement?

A

Mechanical

54
Q

What disease is the “sentinel loop sign” associated with and what organ does it occur in?

A 
Pancreatitis
Duodenum (pushed toward the body wall)
55
Q

What type of ileus is often only associated with gas (rather than gas and fluid in the lumen)?

A

Paralytic

56
Q

What causes a gravel sign?

A

Collection of foreign material in the small intestines due to a CHRONIC PARTIAL OBSTRUCTION

57
Q

What type of intestinal pathology causes bunching, plication, and/or comma/crescent-shaped gas bubbles?

A

Linear foreign body

58
Q

Where is a linear foreign body often lodged in a dog?

A

The pylorus

59
Q

What type of intestinal pathology is associated with “thumb-printing”?

A

Infiltrative bowel disease-eccentric mural lesion, neoplasia

60
Q

What type of intestinal pathology is associated with an “apple core sign”?

A

Infiltrative bowel disease- a circumferential mural lesion, neoplasia

61
Q

What is your primary differential for a thickened intestinal wall with a loss of layers?

A

Neoplasia

62
Q

What is your anatomic landmark separating large from small intestines in a dog?

A

Cecum (often gas filled)

63
Q

T/F There is usually more feces in the colon than in the rectum.

A

True

64
Q

How would you distinguish whether a small radioopaque structure is in the ureter or in the large intestines (other than taking a different view)?

A

Compression (if in ureter, it will not move with the displaced colon)

65
Q

T/F Feces in a chronic impaction is often less radioopaque than normal.

A

False, more radioopaque

66
Q

What is usually the underlying cause for perineal hernias in a male dog?

A

Prostatomegaly

67
Q

What modality for evaluating abdominal structures is preferred in patients that are super skinny?

A

Ultrasound (also in young patients or those with large amounts of peritoneal fluid)

68
Q

What modality for evaluating abdominal structures is preferred in patients that are gassy?

A

Radiographs

69
Q

If you suspect abdominal disease, but no changes can be found in the US or rads, what do you do?

A

US guided biopsy

70
Q

How many liver lobes and liver processes do dogs and cats have?

A

6 lobes, 2 processes (papillary, caudate)

71
Q

Which lobe cannot be seen using rads in a dog?

A

Left lateral

72
Q

Which lobe cannot be seen using rads in a cat?

A

Right lateral

73
Q

T/F The presence of peritoneal fluid enhances liver visualization.

A

True

74
Q

What causes the ventral margin of the liver to be more prominently seen, i.e. delineated?

A

Falciform fat

75
Q

What three artifacts make it difficult to see the caudal aspect of the liver?

A

Summation, silhouetting, superimposition

76
Q

The gastric axis should be ___ with the ribs and ____ to the spine

A

Parallel to ribs

Perpendicular to spine

77
Q

T/F: The liver should be covered by the rib cage.

A

True

78
Q

What are some causes of cranial liver displacement?

A

Diaphragmatic hernia, microhepatia, pancreatic or splenic masses, pregnancy

79
Q

What are some causes of caudal liver displacement?

A

Hepatomegaly, inguinal/abdominal hernia

80
Q

What are you differentials for a triangular small liver?

A

Chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis

81
Q

What type of PSS do cats and small breed dogs get more often?

A

Extrahepatic

82
Q

What are 2 ways to diagnose PSS?

A

Transcolonic scintigraphy or portography of jejunal vein

83
Q

What modality is most appropriate for assessing the gallbladder?

A

US

84
Q

In what species can the normal spleen be seen on a lateral rad?

A

Dog

85
Q

What does a C-shaped, “lacy” looking spleen indicate?

A

Splenic torsion

86
Q

What will a doppler examination or a splenic torsion reveal?

A

Lack of blood flow

87
Q

What could a dark spot or spots in a spleen indicate?

A

Anaerobic bacterial infection

88
Q

What pathology in a different body system is often associated with prostatic neoplasia?

A

Spondylitis at L5-L7

89
Q

What is the darker triangular structure ventral to the bladder and prostate?

A

Fat

90
Q

What type of artifact, caused by the colon, can obscure the prostate?

A

Dirty shadowing

91
Q

What does gas opacity in fetal skulls indicate?
Acute abortion
Chronic abortion
Viable fetuses

A

Chronic abortion

92
Q

T/F Brown fat provides the best contrast.

A

False, poor contrast

93
Q

What view can the feline pancreas sometimes be seen on?

A

VD

94
Q

What modality is most appropriate for diagnosing pancreatitis?

A

US

95
Q

What modality is most sensitive for detecting free abdominal gas?

A

US

96
Q

On a VD, where can free abdominal gas be seen?

A

Between the cranial margin of the liver and the caudal margin of the diaphragm

97
Q

What does mineralization of adrenal glands indicate in a dog? In a cat?

A

Dog-Neoplasia

Cat- Incidental

98
Q

Adrenal should be less than ___mm

A

7

99
Q

What does a hypoechoic adrenal gland indicate?

A

Pheochromocytoma

100
Q

What are your differentials for a hyperechoic kidney?

A

Nephritis, Dehydration, End stage kidney disease

101
Q

T/F PKD is inherited and irreversible.

A

True

102
Q

Which 2 views do you do to assess the lower urinary tract in a male?

A

2 lateral views, stretched/normal and flexed hips

103
Q

What patients is the use on non-ionic water soluble organic iodinated media indicated?

A

High risk

104
Q

What can be done to improve visibility of small lesions when doing a positive contrast study on the bladder?

A

Dilute contrast medium

105
Q

What can be done to decrease the risk of air emboli in negative contrast bladder studies?

A

Use carbon dioxide

106
Q

What radiographic study can be done to assess the urethra?

A

Urethrogram

107
Q

When can you stop taking hourly rads when doing a barium study?

A

When the barium reaches the colon

108
Q

Which type of ileus can be treated medically?

A

Paralytic / functional

109
Q

Which side of the abdomen is the ascending colon on?

A

Right

110
Q

What modalities can contrast material be used for?

A

Rads, US, CT and MRI

111
Q

What is negative contrast material used in rads and CT?

A

Gas (air or CO2)

112
Q

What category and agent of contrast material is used in MRI

A

Positive

Paramagnetic - Gadolinium (DTPA)

113
Q

How do you place your patient for negative contrast studies?

A

In left lateral recumbency

Diagnostic Imaging scs RUSVM (3 decks)

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