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Diagnostic Imaging scs RUSVM > DI Final- Bone > Flashcards

DI Final- Bone Flashcards

1
Q

Approximately how many days does it take for osteoid formation to mineralize?

A

12-15

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2
Q

What are the ends of a bone called?

A

Proximal and distal epiphyses

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3
Q

Which part of the bone contains marrow?

A

Medullary cavity

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4
Q

What law says that bone will respond to the stresses or strains placed (or not placed) on it?

A

Wolff’s Law

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5
Q

What do you call it when there is an radioulnar length mismatch?

A

(Joint) Incongruity

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6
Q

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy seems to be associated with this virus and infection with this bacterium.

A

Distemper virus

E.coli

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7
Q

Adolescent dogs of which breeds are susceptible to Legg-Calve-Perthes? What does it cause?

A

Toy and small breed dogs

Aseptic necrosis of the femoral head due to compromised blood supply

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8
Q

What are the most common causes of aggressive bone lesions?

A

Neoplasia

Infections

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9
Q

T/F: Osteoarthritis can cause cortex loss.

A

False

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10
Q

___ ____ is the growth center for the epiphysis, ____ is the growth center for the diaphysis.

A

Articular cartilage

Physis (or epiphyseal plate)

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11
Q

What is the secondary center for bone formation called that provides a point for muscle attachment?

A

Apophysis

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12
Q

What is the most common primary bone tumor?

A

Osteosarcoma

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13
Q

OSA is usually monostotic and metaphyseal. It is often located toward the ____ and away from the ____, except the distal _____.

A

Stifle
Elbow
Tibia

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14
Q

What 2 types of tumors can cause nail bed lesions?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas

Malignant melanoma

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15
Q

Which Salter Harris fracture is most common?

A

Type II

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16
Q

What are the 3 areas that are assessed to determine whether a bone lesion is aggressive or not?

A

Cortex (for destruction)

Periosteum (for a reaction, active or inactive)

Transition zone (whether it is distinct or indistinct)

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17
Q

Which cells responsible for remodeling and growth of the bone cortex, are also responsible for osteogenesis during fracture repair?

A

Osteoprogenitor cells

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18
Q

Which type of ossification occurs in flat bones?

A

Intramembrenous

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19
Q

T/F: Developmental lesions are frequently bilateral.

A

True.

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20
Q

What do you call a piece of necrotic cartilage that breaks free? They can attach to the synovium and become vascularized.

A

Joint mice (fragments)

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21
Q

How many views are needed to assess the cortex?

A

2

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22
Q

______ lysis is characterized by coalescing regions of ill-defined bone destruction.

A

Permeative.

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23
Q

What disorder results from the failure of endochondral ossification?

A

Osteochondrosis

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24
Q

T/F: Incongruity is very difficult to diagnose radiographically, CT and arthroscopy are much more accurate.

A

True

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25
Q

T/F: A bone lesion showing cortex destruction but no other signs of aggression is probably not aggressive.

A

False, only 1 sign of aggression is needed to deem a lesion aggressive.

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26
Q

What are 4 rule-outs for a metaphyseal monostotic aggressive lesion?

A

Primary bone tumor (OSA)

Mycotic osteomyelitis (rarely monostotic)

Bacterial osteomyelitis (rarely metaphyseal)

Metastatic cancer (rarely metaphyseal and monostotic)

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27
Q

What do you call a fracture that occurs secondary to an event that would not normally lead to a fracture?

A

Pathologic fracture

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28
Q

In a dog, what is a major predilection site for OCD?

A

Caudal humeral head

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29
Q

T/F: Most dogs with UAP have other lesions.

A

True (e.g. DJD, incongruency…)

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30
Q

Fragmenting of this process is very common, especially in medium and large breed dogs. CT is needed to diagnose this and signs can be seen as early as 4-6 months. What is it?

A

Medial coronoid process (FCP)

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31
Q

T/F: Lysis and sclerosis in a lesion can aid in determining aggression of a bone lesion.

A

False

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32
Q

A _____ is the dislocation of an anatomic part. A _____ is a partial dislocation.

A

Luxation

Subluxation

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33
Q

What type of view may you need to take to demonstrate the full extent of the instability of a dislocation?

A

Stress views

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34
Q

What disorder is characterized by an ununited anconeal process and fragmented medial coronoid process on the ulna, as well as osteochondrosis of the humeral condyle?

A

Elbow dysplasia

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35
Q

Flattening or concavity of subchondral bone with adjacent sclerosis are radiographic signs of what condition? What does the addition of a mineralized flap indicate?

A

Osteochondrosis

OCD

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36
Q

What is the main radiographic sign with a fractured medial coronoid process?

A

New bone formation on the proximal aspect of the anconeal process.

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37
Q

What is the self-limiting disease of large breed dogs characterized by shifting leg lameness? The lesion often begins at the nutrient foramen and causes increased medullary opacity.

A

Panosteitis

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38
Q

What developmental systemic disease of rapidly growing dogs that begins in the metaphysis of tubular bones, causes a “double physis”-sign and can lead to growth anomalies? There is a breed disposition, but only Weimaraner litters will have the whole litter affected.

A

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy

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39
Q

What part of the leg in a young dog is commonly misinterpreted as avulsed?

A

Tibial crest

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40
Q

In what view is a flexor enthesopathy in the canine elbow not visible?

A

Caudocranial

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41
Q

T/F: Radiographic aggressiveness predicts biologic aggressiveness.

A

False

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42
Q

T/F: No radiographic aggressiveness usually means no biologic aggressiveness

A

True

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43
Q

Which types of tumors tend to metastasize to bones?

A

Prostate
Mammary
Bladder

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44
Q

Primary bone tumors can be lytic, blastic or mixed. What do the terms lytic and blastic mean?

A

Lytic = destructive, radiolucent

Blastic = productive, radioopaque

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45
Q

What can you do to get a good rad of the toes that minimizes superimposition?

A

Put gauze between the toes

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46
Q

What technique can you consider using in a trauma patient to get more views but reduce pain?

A

Horizontal beam

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47
Q

What are 3 things often confused with fractures?

A

Nutrient foramen
Normal physes
Sesamoid bones

48
Q

T/F: The Salter Harris system of classifying fractures applies only to skeletally mature patients.

A

False, immature

49
Q

Describe a type I Salter Harris fracture.

A

“S”
Straight across
Slipped
(A fracture along the growth plate/physis)

50
Q

Describe a type II Salter Harris fracture.

A

“A”
Above
(A fracture along the physis and up through the metaphysis)

51
Q

Describe a type III Salter Harris fracture.

A

“L”
Lower
beLow
(A fracture along the physis and down through the epiphysis)

52
Q

Describe a type IV Salter Harris fracture.

A 
"T"
Through
Transverse
Two
(A fracture through the growth plate, metaphysis and epiphysis)
53
Q

Describe a type V Salter Harris fracture.

A

“ER”
Erasure of physis
Crush
(A fracture that doesn’t displace the growth plate but damages it directly through compression)

54
Q

A fulcrum-assisted hyperextension, traction, weight-bearing, axial-rotation and wedge are some methods by which _____ radiographs may be obtained.

A

stress

55
Q

T/F: Deep sedation or anesthesia is required for proper spinal radiographs.

A

True

56
Q

Which type of Salter Harris fracture has a high chance of secondary growth anomaly?

A

Type V

57
Q

What do you do to compensate for beam-divergence when radiographing the whole spine?

A

Take multiple exposures

58
Q

What is the most common cause of spinal pain/neuropathy you will see in your practice?

A

Disc disease

59
Q

With secondary bone healing, early callus formation occurs in ____ days, the fracture line disappears and callus bridging occurs at ____days. After ____ months cortex and medullary cavity are re-established and the fracture line is gone.

A

10-20

30

3

60
Q

T/F: Degenerate discs are subject to herniation.

A

True

61
Q

Which breeds are susceptible to Hansen’s type 1 disc herniation? Is this acute or chronic?

A

Chondrodystrophic breeds

Acute

62
Q

Material in the vertebral canal can only be seen radiographically if it is ______.

A

Mineralized

63
Q

Which type of healing requires rigid fixation, direct bone contact and is uncommon in animals?

A

Primary

64
Q

The most common transitional anomaly occurring at the thoracolumbar junction involves asymmetric development of the ___th rib. There are multiple variations to this anomaly, but the most clinically significant one is having a ____ rib on T13.

A

13

unilateral

65
Q

T/F: Mineralization usually occurred prior to disc herniation in Hansen’s type I disc disease?

A

True

66
Q

In secondary fracture healing, what stabilizes the fracture so ossification can occur?

A

Callus (fibrocartilage) formation

67
Q

Which factors influence fracture healing?

A 
Vascular integrity 
Location
Extent
Apposition
Motion
68
Q

Perfusion (increases/decreases?) as soft tissue injury (increases/decreases?)

A

Perfusion decreases as soft tissue injury increases

69
Q

T/F: A tear in the cranial cruciate ligament can be diagnosed using radiographs.

A

False

70
Q

Why does Hansen’s type I rarely occur between T2-T9? Where is it most common?

A

Intercapital ligament

At the T-L junction

71
Q

Stenosis, abscesses and hemorrhage are associated with a(n) _____ lesion location, while edema and myelitis is associated with a(n)_____ lesion location. Tumors can be found in both aforementioned locations as well as _________, especially nerve root tumors.

A

Extradural

Intramedullary

Intradural-extramedullary

72
Q

The golf-tee sign is associated with a __________ lesion

A

Intradural-extramedullary,caused by a lesion in the subarachnoid space.

73
Q

What modality is most sensitive for detecting disc herniation?

A

MRI

74
Q

What is a missile disc?

A

An Acute Non-compressive Nucleus Pulpsus Extrusion (ANNPE)

Acute herniation of a hydrated nucleus, acute neuropathy, spinal cord swelling & “bruising”

75
Q

_____ ______ (location & bone) fractures in toy breeds heal slowly and have a high complication rate.

A

Distal antebrachium

76
Q

Poor soft tissue environment, including poor blood supply, at the fracture site prevented the formation of a _____.

A

Callus

77
Q

What is it called when bone heals in an abnormal position?

A

Malunion

78
Q

German Shepherds are predisposed to ___-___ disc herniation.

A

T2-T5

79
Q

What has a high signal in T2 MRI?

A

Water and fat

80
Q

What is it called when annular protrusion caused by shifting of the central nuclear material results in spinal compression?

A

Type II Disc disease

81
Q

Where is spondylosis clinically important?

A

L7-S1

82
Q

Chronic instability, spondylosis, disc protrusion and stenosis of the vertebral canal at L7-S1 is known as:

A

Cauda Equina Syndrome

83
Q

What is it called when all fracture healing has stopped and fragments have not united?

A

Non-union

84
Q

Irregular _______ ______ is a key finding when diagnosing osteomyelitis complicating the healing of a fracture.

A

Periosteal reaction

85
Q

What 3 things (alone or in combo) can occur when the ulna stops growing, trapping the radius between the below and carpus?

A
  1. Radius pushes on humerus as it continues to elongate, causing a HUMEROULNAR SUBLUXATION.
  2. BOWING of the radius occurs, without luxation.
  3. The radius pushes downward, causing the paw to be pushed laterally, resulting in VALGUS.
86
Q

If the deformity caused by insufficient ulnar growth is severe, this device can be used to straighten the bone over time.

A

Ilizarov ring fixator

87
Q

Type II disc disease is commonly associated with ____ degeneration.

A

Fibroid

88
Q

T/F: Radiography is a good way of diagnosing type I or type II disc disease

A

False, can be done for screening but findings are non-specific

89
Q

T/F: Radial closure is more common that ulnar closure and causes varus of the manus.

A

False, ulnar is more common. However it can cause varus of the manus.

90
Q

T/F: Radial closure is more common that ulnar closure and causes varus of the manus.

A

False, ulnar is more common. However it can cause varus of the manus.

91
Q

What very common cause of lameness is due to cartilage thinning leading to joint instability?

A

DJD/OA

92
Q

T/F: In the PennHIP system, distraction and force have a linear relationship.

A

False, distraction is independent of force over a wide range of forces.

93
Q

What is the most common clinical sign associated with Cauda Equine Syndrome?

A

Pain

94
Q

What does one call an infection of the disc with adjacent vertebral osteomyelitis leading to a destruction of bone at the end plates adjacent to that disc?

A

Discospondylitis

95
Q

In a normal hip, roughly ____% of the femoral head is covered by the dorsal rim in the acetabulum.

A

50

96
Q

Articular cartilage transitions to bone to increase stability. What is this osseus metaplasia of articular cartilage called?

A

Osteophyte formation

97
Q

T/F: Joint narrowing is not seen with DJD.

A

True

98
Q

What changes can be seen on an x-ray signaling joint effusion?

A

Displacement of infrapatellar fat pad and the caudal facial stripe

99
Q

Periosteal new bone formation at a tendon, ligament or joint capsule attachment due to pulling is called a ________

A

Traction osteophyte or Enthesophyte

100
Q

T/F: OD at the shoulder and tarsus are common causes of OA.

A

True

101
Q

T/F: Wear and tear does not cause OA.

A

False, this is a common cause of OA in the tarsus and carpus.

102
Q

Which immune-mediated condition that occurs in the distal joints of small breed dogs involved the formation of subchondral cysts?

A

Erosive arthropathy

103
Q

What species get meniscal ossicles? What are they?

A

Cats

Small mineralized opacities in the stifle joint

104
Q

What species get meniscal ossicles? What are they?

A

Cats

Small mineralized opacities in the stifle joint

105
Q

Which polygenic inherited condition that does not present phenotypically at birth eventually causes OA?

A

Hip dysplasia

106
Q

What characteristic shape is a hip joint space when it is dysplastic?

A

Crescent

107
Q

What is the earliest radiographic sign of canine hip dysplasia?

A

Joint laxity

108
Q

What is the hallmark radiographic sign of discospondylitis?

A

End plate lysis

109
Q

T/F: Discospondylitis is usually caused by bacteria.

A

True (Staph or Brucella)

110
Q

What are osteophytes that form along the insertion of the joint capsule in hip dysplasia called?

A

Morgan lines

111
Q

How many categories does the OFA system have? What is the earliest a dog can be certified hip dysplasia free?

A

7

24 months

112
Q

In the PennHIP method, a _____ between the thighs allows lateral force application to the hip.

A

Fulcrum

113
Q

When can a dog be certified hip dysplasia free with the PennHIP method? What is the number that depends on the position of the femoral head in distraction and compression views called?

A

4 months

Distraction Index

114
Q

What can a dog be certified hip dysplasia free with the PennHIP method? What is the number that depends on the position of the femoral head in distraction and compression views called?

A

4 months

Distraction Index

115
Q

A DI > ___ is associated with significant incidence of DJD.

A

0.3

Tip- Zero point three and DJD rhyme

116
Q

What will make both the OFA and the PennHIPP systems obsolete?

A

Genetic testing

Diagnostic Imaging scs RUSVM (3 decks)

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