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Special Procedures > DEXA, MAMMO and REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM > Flashcards

DEXA, MAMMO and REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM Flashcards

1
Q

male and female gonads

A

testes
overies

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2
Q

Gravid women

A

pregnant uterus

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3
Q

nongravid patient

A

uterus that has never been pregnent

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4
Q

nilliparous

A

female who has never given birth to a parent

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5
Q

parous

A

female who has given birth

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6
Q

small glandular organs with an internal secretion that controls the menstural cycle and external secretion containing ova

A

overies

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7
Q

ova

A

female reproductive cells

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8
Q

the cortex contains

A

ovarian follicles

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9
Q

each folicle contains

A

one ovum

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10
Q

a fully developed ovarian follicle is referred to as a

A

Graafian follicle

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11
Q

two uterine tubes

A

fallopian tubes

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12
Q

how long is each uterine tube

A

3- 5 inches

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13
Q

the uterine tube is divided into 3 parts, what are they

A

isthmus, ampulla and infundibulum

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14
Q

short segment of the uterine tube near the uterus

A

isthmus

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15
Q

largest part of the uterine tube and is wider than the isthmus

A

ampulla

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16
Q

the terminal and lateral portions of the uterine tube

A

infundibulum

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17
Q

what does the infundibulum end in

A

prolonged processes called fimbriae

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18
Q

lining of the uterine tube contains hair like projections called

A

cilia

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19
Q

where does fertilization of the cell happen

A

the outer part of the tube

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20
Q

pear shapped muscular organ

A

uterus

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21
Q

4 parts of the uterus

A

fundus, body, isthmus, and cervix

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22
Q

superior most portion of the uterus

A

fundus

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23
Q

part of the uterus that is the point of attachment for the ligaments that secure the uterus within the pelvis

A

body

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24
Q

superior part of the cervix, constricted area between the body and cervix

A

isthmus

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25
Q

cylindric vaginal end of the uterus

A

cervix

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26
Q

DISTAL ORFICE OF THE UTERUS IS CALLEN

A

uterine ostium

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27
Q

mucosal lining of the uterine cavity is called the

A

endometrium

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28
Q

fertilized ovum

A

zygote

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29
Q

when does the embyro appear

A

2 weeks after fertilization

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30
Q

when does the embryo become a fetus

A

9 weeks after fertilization

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31
Q

where should implantation happen

A

near the fundus

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32
Q

what happens when the implantation happens too low in the uterus

A

placenta previa

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33
Q

bicornuate uterus

A

deformed uterus, can’t get pregnant

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34
Q

germ cells produce

A

sperm

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35
Q

how many partial compartments is each testis divided into

A

200 to 300

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36
Q

each compartment houses one or more

A

germ-cell producing tubules

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37
Q

these tubules converge and unite to form

A

15-20 ductules

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38
Q

the oblong structure that is attached to the superior and lateroposterior aspects of the testis

A

epididymis

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39
Q

how long is the ductus diferems

A

16-18 in long

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40
Q

the union of ductus deferens and the duct of seminal vesicle forms

A

ejaculatory ducts

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41
Q

ejaculatory ducts eject sperm

A

into the urethra before ejaculation

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42
Q

accessory genital organ that is cone-shapped

A

prostate

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43
Q

the prostate extends from

A

the bladder neck to the pelvic floor

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44
Q

the most common modality for imaging that prostate is

A

sonography

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45
Q

cryptorchidism

A

condition of undescended testes

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46
Q

HSG

A

hysterosalpingography

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47
Q

IUD

A

intrauterine device

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48
Q

BPH

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

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49
Q

LMP

A

last menstural period

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50
Q

fistula

A

abnormal connection between two internal organs or between an organ and the body surface

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51
Q

the ducts of the prostate open into the

A

prostatic portion of the urethra

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52
Q

the prostate encircles the ____ _____ of the male urethra

A

proximal portion

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53
Q

procedures for nonpregnant patients

A

hysterosalpingography, pelvic pneumography and Vaginography

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54
Q

what position is the patient in for an HSG

A

lithotomy

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55
Q

why is an HSG done

A

when women can’t get pregnant

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56
Q

when should gynecological exams be scheduled and why

A

10 after the onset of menstruation, because this is when the endometrium is the least congested

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57
Q

what happens during an HSG

A

a uterine cannula is inserted through the cervical canal then an opaque or gaseous medium may be injected into the cannula. this will show how the contrast spills into the peritoneal cavity

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58
Q

how would it be determined that the uterine tubes are patent

A

by the transuterine gas insufflation (Rubin test). length, position, and course of the ducts can be shown only by pacifying the lumina

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59
Q

what does patency mean

A

tube is not blocked

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60
Q

uterine tubes are also called

A

fallopian tubes

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61
Q

T/F some IDU are permanent

A

true

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62
Q

modality of choice for pregnant patients

A

sonography

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63
Q

radiographic procedures that can be performed on pregnant patients

A

fetography, pelvimetry, and placentography

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64
Q

radiographic procedures that involve ionizing radiation should not be done before the ___ week of gestation. why?

A

18th , the dangers of radiation-induced fetal malformations

65
Q

pelvimetry

A

radiographic examination to demonstrate the architecture of the eternal pelvis and the size of the fetal head to decide to do a Csection

66
Q

when should you try to avoid radiographic procedures on pregnant patients

A

during the first trimester

67
Q

what is the modality of choice for the male reproductive system

A

ultrasound

68
Q

prostatography

A

investigation of the prostate bt radiographic, cystographic or vesiculographic procedures

69
Q

number 1 and 2 cancers for cause of death in women

A

lung, breast

70
Q

mortality

A

death

71
Q

most women who develop breast cancer have ____ ____ ____ of the disease

A

no family history

72
Q

is breast cancer one of the most or least treatable cancers

A

most when detected early

73
Q

MQSA

A

mammography quality standards act of 1992

74
Q

FFDM

A

full-field digital mammography

75
Q

DBT

A

digital breast tomosynthesis

76
Q

when was 3D breast imaging approved (DBT)

A

2011

77
Q

Which age groups is FFDM beneficial for

A

women younger than 50, women with dense breast

78
Q

FFDM units allow radiologist to

A

manipulate digital images electronically

79
Q

three-dimensional breast imaging

A

digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)

80
Q

DBT can produce slices as thin as

A

1 mm

81
Q

the thicker the breast

A

the more slices

82
Q

by eliminating the FFDM and utilizing synthesized mammography the mean glandular dose

A

decreases by 40 - 50% compared to FFDM-DBT

83
Q

DBT has increased the detection rate for

A

invasive breast cancer with FFDM-DBT vs FFDM

84
Q

how does DBT increase detection rates

A

it separates breast tissue with each slice so there is no overlap

85
Q

CAD

A

Computer Aided Detection

86
Q

double reading of screening mammos by a second radiologist can improve detection rates by

A

10%

87
Q

the use of CAD along with double reading can increase detection rates by an additional

A

8%

88
Q

mean glandular dose

A

absorbed dose to the breast

89
Q

at what age is breast tissue more sensitive to radiation

A

20s

90
Q

difference between screening mammo and diagnostic mammo

A

screening is performed on an asymptomatic patient that has no known symptoms
diagnostic is for patients with clinical evidence of significant or potentially significant breast disease

91
Q

risk factors for breast cancer

A

weight gain after age of 18
overweight or obese
use of menopausal hormone therapy
physical inactivity
alcohol consumption
high bone mineral density
biopsy-confirmed hyperplasia
high radiation to the chest
long menstrual history
use of oral contraceptives
never having children
having first child after age of 30
family history

92
Q

most mutations that cause breast cancer are located in

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes

93
Q

most inherited mutations account for what % of all female breast cancers

A

5-10%

94
Q

another term for breast

A

mammary gland

95
Q

breast are supported by

A

coopers ligament

96
Q

the adult female breast has how many lobes and how are they situated

A

15-20, more superior and lateral than inferior and medial

97
Q

An additional portion of breast tissue, the axillary prolongation or ________ _________ extends from the upper lateral base of the breast into the axillary fossa

A

axillary tail

98
Q

Decrease in breast size and density due to age

A

involution

99
Q

each lobe is divided into lobules, the lobules contain glandular elements or

A

acini

100
Q

approximately what % of lymph drainage is towards the axilla

A

75%

101
Q

approximately what % is towards the internal mammary chain

A

25%

102
Q

the number of axillary nodes varies from

A

12- 30

103
Q

after lactation, the breast tissue turns to

A

fatty tissue

104
Q

the more glandular tissue the

A

denser the breast

105
Q

more glandular tissue, meaning more dense breast is easier or harder to image

A

harder to penetrate

106
Q

breast tissue density

A

the ratio of fatty to glandular tissue within the breast

107
Q

round mass found on the breast is most likely

A

a cyst or lymphnode

108
Q

an irregularly shaped mass can more likely indicate

A

a malignancy or indicate trauma to the breast

109
Q

ways breast mass is categorized

A

shape, margins, density

110
Q

breast cancers never contain

A

fatty tissue

111
Q

most breast cancers are detected in the

A

upper outer quadrant of the breast (UOQ)

112
Q

interval change may

A

increase the suspicion of malignancy

113
Q

almost all (98%) of the axillary lymph nodes are located

A

in the UOQ

114
Q

what % of microcalcifications found in asymptomatic women are associated with cancer

A

15-25%

115
Q

which calcifications (Benign or malignant) are usually larger, coarser, rounder and smoother

A

benign

116
Q

most valuable tool for for defining microcalcifications is

A

magnification technique

117
Q

using magnification technique for microcalcifications does what to patient dose

A

increases

118
Q

amorphous or indistinct calcifications appear

A

small and hazy

119
Q

which type of calcifications has a higher probability of being malignancy

A

fine pleomorphic and fine linear or branching calcifications

120
Q

DCIS stands for

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

121
Q

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

A

abnormal cancerous cells within the milk ducts

122
Q

invasive/infiltrating ductal carcinoma

A

cancer cells that started in the milk ducts and have spread to surrounding breast tissues

123
Q

most common type of breast cancer

A

invasive/infiltrating ductal carcinoma

124
Q

about 80% of all breast cancers are this type

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

125
Q

what are the two primary methods of examinations for mammography

A

craniocaudal (CC) Mediolateral oblique (MLO)

126
Q

mammography has an ___ to ____ % true positive rate for detecting cancer in breast

A

80-90%

127
Q

bone densitometry

A

the art and science of measuring bone mineral content (BMC) and Bone mineral density (BMD) of specific skeletal sites or whole body

128
Q

what is bone densitometry used for

A

assess bone strength, diagnose diseases associated with low bone density, monitor the effects of therapy for such diseases and predict future risk

129
Q

most versatile and widely used method

A

dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

130
Q

what is another name for dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

A

DXA

131
Q

ROI

A

region of interest

132
Q

bone building cells

A

osteoblasts

133
Q

bone destroying cells

A

osteoclasts

134
Q

when is peak bone mass achieved

A

by age 20 or 30

135
Q

two basic types of bone

A

cortical (Compact) or trabecular (cancellous)

136
Q

which type of bones form dense compact outer shell of all bones

A

cortical

137
Q

cortical bone accounts for approx. ____ % of the skeletal mass

A

80%

138
Q

delicate, latticework structure within bones that adds strength without excessive weight

A

trabecular

139
Q

new skeleton is formed

A

every 7 years

140
Q

osteoporosis

A

disease, low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue

141
Q

risk factors of osteoprosis

A

female gender
increased age
estrogen deficiency
caucasian race
low body weight
smoking tobacco

142
Q

the exact cause of osteoporosis is

A

unknown, but is clearly a multifactoral disorder

143
Q

type 1 osteoporosis is caused by

A

bone resorption exceeding bone formation owing to estrogen deprivation

144
Q

type 2 osteoporosis occurs in

A

aging men and women, results from a decreased ability to build bone

145
Q

secondary osteoporosis is caused by

A

a heterogeneous groups of skeletal disorders resulting in an imbalance of bone turnover

146
Q

common causes of osteoporosis include

A

hyperparathyroidism
gonadal insufficiency
osteomalacia (rickets in children)
rheumatoid arthritis
anorexia nervosa
gastrectomy
celiac disease
multiple myeloma
use of corticosteroids, heparin, anticonvulsants, or excessive thyroid hormone treatment

147
Q

hip fractures account for ___ % of osteoporotic fractures and are

A

20%, most devastating for the patient

148
Q

which scan is possibly the most important

A

the hip scan

149
Q

why is the hip scan the most important

A

it is the best predictor of future hip fracture which is the most devastating of hip fractures

150
Q

what type of system do original DXA systems use

A

pencil beam system

151
Q

how does the pencil-beam move

A

in a serpentine or (rectilinear or raster) fashion across or along the length of the body

152
Q

another name for array beam

A

fan beam

153
Q

what does the array beam system introduce to the image

A

geometric magnification and slight geometric distortion at the outer edge

154
Q

Zscore

A

the number of SD’s the patients BMD is from the average BMD for the patients age and sex group

155
Q

what is Z score used to determine

A

if the measured BMD is reasonable and if an evaluation for a secondary osteoporosis is warranted

156
Q

T-score indicates

A

the number of patients BMD from the average BMD of a young normal, sex-matched individual with peak bone mass

157
Q

the z- and T score may be adjusted for

A

ethnicity, weight, or both

158
Q

gold standard of DXA

A

scans of the hip and spine

Special Procedures (10 decks)

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