DEXA, MAMMO and REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM Flashcards
male and female gonads
testes
overies
Gravid women
pregnant uterus
nongravid patient
uterus that has never been pregnent
nilliparous
female who has never given birth to a parent
parous
female who has given birth
small glandular organs with an internal secretion that controls the menstural cycle and external secretion containing ova
overies
ova
female reproductive cells
the cortex contains
ovarian follicles
each folicle contains
one ovum
a fully developed ovarian follicle is referred to as a
Graafian follicle
two uterine tubes
fallopian tubes
how long is each uterine tube
3- 5 inches
the uterine tube is divided into 3 parts, what are they
isthmus, ampulla and infundibulum
short segment of the uterine tube near the uterus
isthmus
largest part of the uterine tube and is wider than the isthmus
ampulla
the terminal and lateral portions of the uterine tube
infundibulum
what does the infundibulum end in
prolonged processes called fimbriae
lining of the uterine tube contains hair like projections called
cilia
where does fertilization of the cell happen
the outer part of the tube
pear shapped muscular organ
uterus
4 parts of the uterus
fundus, body, isthmus, and cervix
superior most portion of the uterus
fundus
part of the uterus that is the point of attachment for the ligaments that secure the uterus within the pelvis
body
superior part of the cervix, constricted area between the body and cervix
isthmus
cylindric vaginal end of the uterus
cervix
DISTAL ORFICE OF THE UTERUS IS CALLEN
uterine ostium
mucosal lining of the uterine cavity is called the
endometrium
fertilized ovum
zygote
when does the embyro appear
2 weeks after fertilization
when does the embryo become a fetus
9 weeks after fertilization
where should implantation happen
near the fundus
what happens when the implantation happens too low in the uterus
placenta previa
bicornuate uterus
deformed uterus, can’t get pregnant
germ cells produce
sperm
how many partial compartments is each testis divided into
200 to 300
each compartment houses one or more
germ-cell producing tubules
these tubules converge and unite to form
15-20 ductules
the oblong structure that is attached to the superior and lateroposterior aspects of the testis
epididymis
how long is the ductus diferems
16-18 in long
the union of ductus deferens and the duct of seminal vesicle forms
ejaculatory ducts
ejaculatory ducts eject sperm
into the urethra before ejaculation
accessory genital organ that is cone-shapped
prostate
the prostate extends from
the bladder neck to the pelvic floor
the most common modality for imaging that prostate is
sonography
cryptorchidism
condition of undescended testes
HSG
hysterosalpingography
IUD
intrauterine device
BPH
benign prostatic hyperplasia
LMP
last menstural period
fistula
abnormal connection between two internal organs or between an organ and the body surface
the ducts of the prostate open into the
prostatic portion of the urethra
the prostate encircles the ____ _____ of the male urethra
proximal portion
procedures for nonpregnant patients
hysterosalpingography, pelvic pneumography and Vaginography
what position is the patient in for an HSG
lithotomy
why is an HSG done
when women can’t get pregnant
when should gynecological exams be scheduled and why
10 after the onset of menstruation, because this is when the endometrium is the least congested
what happens during an HSG
a uterine cannula is inserted through the cervical canal then an opaque or gaseous medium may be injected into the cannula. this will show how the contrast spills into the peritoneal cavity
how would it be determined that the uterine tubes are patent
by the transuterine gas insufflation (Rubin test). length, position, and course of the ducts can be shown only by pacifying the lumina
what does patency mean
tube is not blocked
uterine tubes are also called
fallopian tubes
T/F some IDU are permanent
true
modality of choice for pregnant patients
sonography
radiographic procedures that can be performed on pregnant patients
fetography, pelvimetry, and placentography
radiographic procedures that involve ionizing radiation should not be done before the ___ week of gestation. why?
18th , the dangers of radiation-induced fetal malformations
pelvimetry
radiographic examination to demonstrate the architecture of the eternal pelvis and the size of the fetal head to decide to do a Csection
when should you try to avoid radiographic procedures on pregnant patients
during the first trimester
what is the modality of choice for the male reproductive system
ultrasound
prostatography
investigation of the prostate bt radiographic, cystographic or vesiculographic procedures
number 1 and 2 cancers for cause of death in women
lung, breast
mortality
death
most women who develop breast cancer have ____ ____ ____ of the disease
no family history
is breast cancer one of the most or least treatable cancers
most when detected early
MQSA
mammography quality standards act of 1992
FFDM
full-field digital mammography
DBT
digital breast tomosynthesis
when was 3D breast imaging approved (DBT)
2011
Which age groups is FFDM beneficial for
women younger than 50, women with dense breast
FFDM units allow radiologist to
manipulate digital images electronically
three-dimensional breast imaging
digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)
DBT can produce slices as thin as
1 mm
the thicker the breast
the more slices
by eliminating the FFDM and utilizing synthesized mammography the mean glandular dose
decreases by 40 - 50% compared to FFDM-DBT
DBT has increased the detection rate for
invasive breast cancer with FFDM-DBT vs FFDM
how does DBT increase detection rates
it separates breast tissue with each slice so there is no overlap
CAD
Computer Aided Detection
double reading of screening mammos by a second radiologist can improve detection rates by
10%
the use of CAD along with double reading can increase detection rates by an additional
8%
mean glandular dose
absorbed dose to the breast
at what age is breast tissue more sensitive to radiation
20s
difference between screening mammo and diagnostic mammo
screening is performed on an asymptomatic patient that has no known symptoms
diagnostic is for patients with clinical evidence of significant or potentially significant breast disease
risk factors for breast cancer
weight gain after age of 18
overweight or obese
use of menopausal hormone therapy
physical inactivity
alcohol consumption
high bone mineral density
biopsy-confirmed hyperplasia
high radiation to the chest
long menstrual history
use of oral contraceptives
never having children
having first child after age of 30
family history
most mutations that cause breast cancer are located in
BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes
most inherited mutations account for what % of all female breast cancers
5-10%
another term for breast
mammary gland
breast are supported by
coopers ligament
the adult female breast has how many lobes and how are they situated
15-20, more superior and lateral than inferior and medial
An additional portion of breast tissue, the axillary prolongation or ________ _________ extends from the upper lateral base of the breast into the axillary fossa
axillary tail
Decrease in breast size and density due to age
involution
each lobe is divided into lobules, the lobules contain glandular elements or
acini
approximately what % of lymph drainage is towards the axilla
75%
approximately what % is towards the internal mammary chain
25%
the number of axillary nodes varies from
12- 30
after lactation, the breast tissue turns to
fatty tissue
the more glandular tissue the
denser the breast
more glandular tissue, meaning more dense breast is easier or harder to image
harder to penetrate
breast tissue density
the ratio of fatty to glandular tissue within the breast
round mass found on the breast is most likely
a cyst or lymphnode
an irregularly shaped mass can more likely indicate
a malignancy or indicate trauma to the breast
ways breast mass is categorized
shape, margins, density
breast cancers never contain
fatty tissue
most breast cancers are detected in the
upper outer quadrant of the breast (UOQ)
interval change may
increase the suspicion of malignancy
almost all (98%) of the axillary lymph nodes are located
in the UOQ
what % of microcalcifications found in asymptomatic women are associated with cancer
15-25%
which calcifications (Benign or malignant) are usually larger, coarser, rounder and smoother
benign
most valuable tool for for defining microcalcifications is
magnification technique
using magnification technique for microcalcifications does what to patient dose
increases
amorphous or indistinct calcifications appear
small and hazy
which type of calcifications has a higher probability of being malignancy
fine pleomorphic and fine linear or branching calcifications
DCIS stands for
ductal carcinoma in situ
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
abnormal cancerous cells within the milk ducts
invasive/infiltrating ductal carcinoma
cancer cells that started in the milk ducts and have spread to surrounding breast tissues
most common type of breast cancer
invasive/infiltrating ductal carcinoma
about 80% of all breast cancers are this type
invasive ductal carcinoma
what are the two primary methods of examinations for mammography
craniocaudal (CC) Mediolateral oblique (MLO)
mammography has an ___ to ____ % true positive rate for detecting cancer in breast
80-90%
bone densitometry
the art and science of measuring bone mineral content (BMC) and Bone mineral density (BMD) of specific skeletal sites or whole body
what is bone densitometry used for
assess bone strength, diagnose diseases associated with low bone density, monitor the effects of therapy for such diseases and predict future risk
most versatile and widely used method
dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
what is another name for dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
DXA
ROI
region of interest
bone building cells
osteoblasts
bone destroying cells
osteoclasts
when is peak bone mass achieved
by age 20 or 30
two basic types of bone
cortical (Compact) or trabecular (cancellous)
which type of bones form dense compact outer shell of all bones
cortical
cortical bone accounts for approx. ____ % of the skeletal mass
80%
delicate, latticework structure within bones that adds strength without excessive weight
trabecular
new skeleton is formed
every 7 years
osteoporosis
disease, low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue
risk factors of osteoprosis
female gender
increased age
estrogen deficiency
caucasian race
low body weight
smoking tobacco
the exact cause of osteoporosis is
unknown, but is clearly a multifactoral disorder
type 1 osteoporosis is caused by
bone resorption exceeding bone formation owing to estrogen deprivation
type 2 osteoporosis occurs in
aging men and women, results from a decreased ability to build bone
secondary osteoporosis is caused by
a heterogeneous groups of skeletal disorders resulting in an imbalance of bone turnover
common causes of osteoporosis include
hyperparathyroidism
gonadal insufficiency
osteomalacia (rickets in children)
rheumatoid arthritis
anorexia nervosa
gastrectomy
celiac disease
multiple myeloma
use of corticosteroids, heparin, anticonvulsants, or excessive thyroid hormone treatment
hip fractures account for ___ % of osteoporotic fractures and are
20%, most devastating for the patient
which scan is possibly the most important
the hip scan
why is the hip scan the most important
it is the best predictor of future hip fracture which is the most devastating of hip fractures
what type of system do original DXA systems use
pencil beam system
how does the pencil-beam move
in a serpentine or (rectilinear or raster) fashion across or along the length of the body
another name for array beam
fan beam
what does the array beam system introduce to the image
geometric magnification and slight geometric distortion at the outer edge
Zscore
the number of SD’s the patients BMD is from the average BMD for the patients age and sex group
what is Z score used to determine
if the measured BMD is reasonable and if an evaluation for a secondary osteoporosis is warranted
T-score indicates
the number of patients BMD from the average BMD of a young normal, sex-matched individual with peak bone mass
the z- and T score may be adjusted for
ethnicity, weight, or both
gold standard of DXA
scans of the hip and spine
