DEXA, MAMMO and REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM Flashcards
1
Q
male and female gonads
A
testes
overies
2
Q
Gravid women
A
pregnant uterus
3
Q
nongravid patient
A
uterus that has never been pregnent
4
Q
nilliparous
A
female who has never given birth to a parent
5
Q
parous
A
female who has given birth
6
Q
small glandular organs with an internal secretion that controls the menstural cycle and external secretion containing ova
A
overies
7
Q
ova
A
female reproductive cells
8
Q
the cortex contains
A
ovarian follicles
9
Q
each folicle contains
A
one ovum
10
Q
a fully developed ovarian follicle is referred to as a
A
Graafian follicle
11
Q
two uterine tubes
A
fallopian tubes
12
Q
how long is each uterine tube
A
3- 5 inches
13
Q
the uterine tube is divided into 3 parts, what are they
A
isthmus, ampulla and infundibulum
14
Q
short segment of the uterine tube near the uterus
A
isthmus
15
Q
largest part of the uterine tube and is wider than the isthmus
A
ampulla
16
Q
the terminal and lateral portions of the uterine tube
A
infundibulum
17
Q
what does the infundibulum end in
A
prolonged processes called fimbriae
18
Q
lining of the uterine tube contains hair like projections called
A
cilia
19
Q
where does fertilization of the cell happen
A
the outer part of the tube
20
Q
pear shapped muscular organ
A
uterus
21
Q
4 parts of the uterus
A
fundus, body, isthmus, and cervix
22
Q
superior most portion of the uterus
A
fundus
23
Q
part of the uterus that is the point of attachment for the ligaments that secure the uterus within the pelvis
A
body
24
Q
superior part of the cervix, constricted area between the body and cervix
A
isthmus
25
cylindric vaginal end of the uterus
cervix
26
DISTAL ORFICE OF THE UTERUS IS CALLEN
uterine ostium
27
mucosal lining of the uterine cavity is called the
endometrium
28
fertilized ovum
zygote
29
when does the embyro appear
2 weeks after fertilization
30
when does the embryo become a fetus
9 weeks after fertilization
31
where should implantation happen
near the fundus
32
what happens when the implantation happens too low in the uterus
placenta previa
33
bicornuate uterus
deformed uterus, can't get pregnant
34
germ cells produce
sperm
35
how many partial compartments is each testis divided into
200 to 300
36
each compartment houses one or more
germ-cell producing tubules
37
these tubules converge and unite to form
15-20 ductules
38
the oblong structure that is attached to the superior and lateroposterior aspects of the testis
epididymis
39
how long is the ductus diferems
16-18 in long
40
the union of ductus deferens and the duct of seminal vesicle forms
ejaculatory ducts
41
ejaculatory ducts eject sperm
into the urethra before ejaculation
42
accessory genital organ that is cone-shapped
prostate
43
the prostate extends from
the bladder neck to the pelvic floor
44
the most common modality for imaging that prostate is
sonography
45
cryptorchidism
condition of undescended testes
46
HSG
hysterosalpingography
47
IUD
intrauterine device
48
BPH
benign prostatic hyperplasia
49
LMP
last menstural period
50
fistula
abnormal connection between two internal organs or between an organ and the body surface
51
the ducts of the prostate open into the
prostatic portion of the urethra
52
the prostate encircles the ____ _____ of the male urethra
proximal portion
53
procedures for nonpregnant patients
hysterosalpingography, pelvic pneumography and Vaginography
54
what position is the patient in for an HSG
lithotomy
55
why is an HSG done
when women can't get pregnant
56
when should gynecological exams be scheduled and why
10 after the onset of menstruation, because this is when the endometrium is the least congested
57
what happens during an HSG
a uterine cannula is inserted through the cervical canal then an opaque or gaseous medium may be injected into the cannula. this will show how the contrast spills into the peritoneal cavity
58
how would it be determined that the uterine tubes are patent
by the transuterine gas insufflation (Rubin test). length, position, and course of the ducts can be shown only by pacifying the lumina
59
what does patency mean
tube is not blocked
60
uterine tubes are also called
fallopian tubes
61
T/F some IDU are permanent
true
62
modality of choice for pregnant patients
sonography
63
radiographic procedures that can be performed on pregnant patients
fetography, pelvimetry, and placentography
64
radiographic procedures that involve ionizing radiation should not be done before the ___ week of gestation. why?
18th , the dangers of radiation-induced fetal malformations
65
pelvimetry
radiographic examination to demonstrate the architecture of the eternal pelvis and the size of the fetal head to decide to do a Csection
66
when should you try to avoid radiographic procedures on pregnant patients
during the first trimester
67
what is the modality of choice for the male reproductive system
ultrasound
68
prostatography
investigation of the prostate bt radiographic, cystographic or vesiculographic procedures
69
number 1 and 2 cancers for cause of death in women
lung, breast
70
mortality
death
71
most women who develop breast cancer have ____ ____ ____ of the disease
no family history
72
is breast cancer one of the most or least treatable cancers
most when detected early
73
MQSA
mammography quality standards act of 1992
74
FFDM
full-field digital mammography
75
DBT
digital breast tomosynthesis
76
when was 3D breast imaging approved (DBT)
2011
77
Which age groups is FFDM beneficial for
women younger than 50, women with dense breast
78
FFDM units allow radiologist to
manipulate digital images electronically
79
three-dimensional breast imaging
digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)
80
DBT can produce slices as thin as
1 mm
81
the thicker the breast
the more slices
82
by eliminating the FFDM and utilizing synthesized mammography the mean glandular dose
decreases by 40 - 50% compared to FFDM-DBT
83
DBT has increased the detection rate for
invasive breast cancer with FFDM-DBT vs FFDM
84
how does DBT increase detection rates
it separates breast tissue with each slice so there is no overlap
85
CAD
Computer Aided Detection
86
double reading of screening mammos by a second radiologist can improve detection rates by
10%
87
the use of CAD along with double reading can increase detection rates by an additional
8%
88
mean glandular dose
absorbed dose to the breast
89
at what age is breast tissue more sensitive to radiation
20s
90
difference between screening mammo and diagnostic mammo
screening is performed on an asymptomatic patient that has no known symptoms
diagnostic is for patients with clinical evidence of significant or potentially significant breast disease
91
risk factors for breast cancer
weight gain after age of 18
overweight or obese
use of menopausal hormone therapy
physical inactivity
alcohol consumption
high bone mineral density
biopsy-confirmed hyperplasia
high radiation to the chest
long menstrual history
use of oral contraceptives
never having children
having first child after age of 30
family history
92
most mutations that cause breast cancer are located in
BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes
93
most inherited mutations account for what % of all female breast cancers
5-10%
94
another term for breast
mammary gland
95
breast are supported by
coopers ligament
96
the adult female breast has how many lobes and how are they situated
15-20, more superior and lateral than inferior and medial
97
An additional portion of breast tissue, the axillary prolongation or ________ _________ extends from the upper lateral base of the breast into the axillary fossa
axillary tail
98
Decrease in breast size and density due to age
involution
99
each lobe is divided into lobules, the lobules contain glandular elements or
acini
100
approximately what % of lymph drainage is towards the axilla
75%
101
approximately what % is towards the internal mammary chain
25%
102
the number of axillary nodes varies from
12- 30
103
after lactation, the breast tissue turns to
fatty tissue
104
the more glandular tissue the
denser the breast
105
more glandular tissue, meaning more dense breast is easier or harder to image
harder to penetrate
106
breast tissue density
the ratio of fatty to glandular tissue within the breast
107
round mass found on the breast is most likely
a cyst or lymphnode
108
an irregularly shaped mass can more likely indicate
a malignancy or indicate trauma to the breast
109
ways breast mass is categorized
shape, margins, density
110
breast cancers never contain
fatty tissue
111
most breast cancers are detected in the
upper outer quadrant of the breast (UOQ)
112
interval change may
increase the suspicion of malignancy
113
almost all (98%) of the axillary lymph nodes are located
in the UOQ
114
what % of microcalcifications found in asymptomatic women are associated with cancer
15-25%
115
which calcifications (Benign or malignant) are usually larger, coarser, rounder and smoother
benign
116
most valuable tool for for defining microcalcifications is
magnification technique
117
using magnification technique for microcalcifications does what to patient dose
increases
118
amorphous or indistinct calcifications appear
small and hazy
119
which type of calcifications has a higher probability of being malignancy
fine pleomorphic and fine linear or branching calcifications
120
DCIS stands for
ductal carcinoma in situ
121
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
abnormal cancerous cells within the milk ducts
122
invasive/infiltrating ductal carcinoma
cancer cells that started in the milk ducts and have spread to surrounding breast tissues
123
most common type of breast cancer
invasive/infiltrating ductal carcinoma
124
about 80% of all breast cancers are this type
invasive ductal carcinoma
125
what are the two primary methods of examinations for mammography
craniocaudal (CC) Mediolateral oblique (MLO)
126
mammography has an ___ to ____ % true positive rate for detecting cancer in breast
80-90%
127
bone densitometry
the art and science of measuring bone mineral content (BMC) and Bone mineral density (BMD) of specific skeletal sites or whole body
128
what is bone densitometry used for
assess bone strength, diagnose diseases associated with low bone density, monitor the effects of therapy for such diseases and predict future risk
129
most versatile and widely used method
dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
130
what is another name for dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
DXA
131
ROI
region of interest
132
bone building cells
osteoblasts
133
bone destroying cells
osteoclasts
134
when is peak bone mass achieved
by age 20 or 30
135
two basic types of bone
cortical (Compact) or trabecular (cancellous)
136
which type of bones form dense compact outer shell of all bones
cortical
137
cortical bone accounts for approx. ____ % of the skeletal mass
80%
138
delicate, latticework structure within bones that adds strength without excessive weight
trabecular
139
new skeleton is formed
every 7 years
140
osteoporosis
disease, low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue
141
risk factors of osteoprosis
female gender
increased age
estrogen deficiency
caucasian race
low body weight
smoking tobacco
142
the exact cause of osteoporosis is
unknown, but is clearly a multifactoral disorder
143
type 1 osteoporosis is caused by
bone resorption exceeding bone formation owing to estrogen deprivation
144
type 2 osteoporosis occurs in
aging men and women, results from a decreased ability to build bone
145
secondary osteoporosis is caused by
a heterogeneous groups of skeletal disorders resulting in an imbalance of bone turnover
146
common causes of osteoporosis include
hyperparathyroidism
gonadal insufficiency
osteomalacia (rickets in children)
rheumatoid arthritis
anorexia nervosa
gastrectomy
celiac disease
multiple myeloma
use of corticosteroids, heparin, anticonvulsants, or excessive thyroid hormone treatment
147
hip fractures account for ___ % of osteoporotic fractures and are
20%, most devastating for the patient
148
which scan is possibly the most important
the hip scan
149
why is the hip scan the most important
it is the best predictor of future hip fracture which is the most devastating of hip fractures
150
what type of system do original DXA systems use
pencil beam system
151
how does the pencil-beam move
in a serpentine or (rectilinear or raster) fashion across or along the length of the body
152
another name for array beam
fan beam
153
what does the array beam system introduce to the image
geometric magnification and slight geometric distortion at the outer edge
154
Zscore
the number of SD's the patients BMD is from the average BMD for the patients age and sex group
155
what is Z score used to determine
if the measured BMD is reasonable and if an evaluation for a secondary osteoporosis is warranted
156
T-score indicates
the number of patients BMD from the average BMD of a young normal, sex-matched individual with peak bone mass
157
the z- and T score may be adjusted for
ethnicity, weight, or both
158
gold standard of DXA
scans of the hip and spine
