Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PC2-exam 1 > Dermatology Module 1A > Flashcards

Dermatology Module 1A Flashcards

1
Q

Alopecia is considered what type of disease?

A

Autoimmune disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is alopecia areata?

A

Patchy alopecia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is alopecia totalis?

A

Face alopecia (hair loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is alopecia universalis?

A

Hair loss over the entire body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common cause of permanent hair loss?

A

Androgenic alopecia (AGA) or male-pattern baldness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Androgenic alopecia has a polygenic inheritance pattern which means what?

A

Can be inherited from both parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are 2 important factors a clinician should consider in evaluation of alopecia?

A

Whether it’s scarring or non-scarring alopecia

And

Whether hair loss is in a small, well-circumscribed area (alopecia areata or trichotillomania) or generalized AGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Scarring alopecia (cicatricial alopecia) causes what type of hair loss ?

A

Permanent hair loss and is not reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Non-scarring alopecia (noncicatricial alopecia) can be what?

A

Either temporary or permanent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drugs that can cause hair loss include what classes? List some

A

Hormones
Anticonvulsants
Anticoagulants
Oral contraceptives
beta blockers
Antimetabolites
Antithyroid drugs
Excessive amount of vitamin A or topical Retin-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What two things are helpful in the diagnosis of tinea capitis (ringworm)?

A

Potassium hydroxide and wood’s
light examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is trichotillomania?

A

Compulsive hair pulling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Telogen effluvium is caused by what?

A

Excessive shedding of scalp hair that results from an increase number of hair follicles entering the resting stage – can be caused by fever and certain drugs.
Can be caused by stress, pregnancy, and or childbirth, extreme weight loss, and general anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Alopecia areata is associated with what autoimmune endocrinopathies?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroid is, Addison disease, and pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of scarring (cicatricial) alopecia can include what?

A

Trauma, which is physical or chemical, severe bacterial or fungal infections of the scalp, scleroderma, discoid lupus erythematosus, lichen planopilaris, and excessive radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A biopsy says useful in diagnosing, scarring alopecia, the specimens must be obtained from where?

A

Specimens must be obtained from the active border, rather than from the scarred central zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hair shedding is seen rapidly in a matter of days after stopping what medication?

A

Minoxidil (Rogaine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hair shedding is some more gradual over several months with what medication?

A

Finasteride ( Propecia )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the treatment options for extensive hair loss? ( greater than 50%)

A

Oral corticosteroids, topical, immuno, therapy, and immunomodulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Finasteride is used in what type of population?

A

It is only approved for men only by the FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why shouldn’t finasteride be used in women of reproductive age?

A

It can cause abnormalities of the external genitalia of male fetuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the mechanism of action of finasteride?

A

Blocks effects of five alpha reductase and reduces the total amount of testosterone in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Finasteride is metabolized by what?

A

The liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Minoxidil is for what population?

A

For men and women, and is available over the counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the adverse effects of minoxidil?

A

Irritation, itching, trainers, scaling, and redness to the scalp. Can cause contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The larger the size of the Melanosomes has what effect of the skin color

A

The darker, the skin color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is vitiligo described?

A

It is the total loss of skin, color and patchy areas of the body, recognize clinically as white vacuoles or patches that are usually located on the sun exposed areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the theory for vitiligo being an autoimmune disorder?

A

The body produces antibodies against its own melanocytes.

Vitiligo occurs more often to individuals with autoimmune diseases, such as hyperthyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, alopecia, areata, and pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some lab tests you would do for vitiligo?

A

CBC, peripheral smear, thyroid function, studies, anti-nuclear antibodies, test, and an eye examination to rule out uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some current treatments for vitiligo?

A

Topical corticosteroids, light therapy, UVA therapy, UVB, light, depigmentation with top of creams and surgical approach is including skin grafts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is chloasma?

A

It is referred as a mask of pregnancy, it is a hyper pigmentation condition that is caused by increase levels of estrogen, progesterone, and melanocyte, stimulating hormone during pregnancy.

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are common areas affected in pts with chloasma?

A

Areas include the face, jaw line, nipples, genitals, and the linea Negra extending from the umbilicus to the pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Diagnosis of cold asthma, and the extent of epidermal/dermal involvement is determined by what?

A

Performing a wood’s lamp examination to visualize excess melanin in the epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment of chloasma includes what?

A

Includes retinoic acid, hydroquinone, cream, tretinoin, and corticosteroids with Hydroquinone, azelaic acid or Kojic acid creams, glycolic acid peels, micro, dermabrasion, galvanic, or ultrasound facials, and various laser and intense pulsed light photo rejuvenation treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is important to know about hydroquinone and treating chloasma/melasma?

A

It is not recommended for women who are pregnant or planning to become pregnant. Patient should be referred to obstetrician for management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What should be done to rule out allergy to any bleaching agent?

A

A 24 hour skin touch test should be done to rule out any allergy to any bleaching agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How often should a bleaching agent to be applied to treat melasma?

A

The cream can be applied twice a day for two months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the first line treatment for melasma?

A

Prescription, bleaching cream, such as hydroquinison and strict sun avoidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some drugs that can cause diffuse hyper pigmentation?

A

Zidovudine, cyclophosphamide.
Skin discoloration has been reported in patients who have been taking amiodarone, chlorpromazine, and certain antimalarial drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are laboratory findings of Addison’s disease?

A

Elevated is there an potassium and calcium, lo, serum, sodium, anemia, and elevated ACTH level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A variegated color or very dark color on one solitary nail should arouse suspicion for what?

A

Acral Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the mnemonic ABC DE stand for in regards to detecting skin cancer?

A

A is asymmetry
B is border irregularity
C is color variegation
D is diameter (greater than 6mm)
E is elevation or evolving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If Nighttime Pruritus is a symptom, the clinician should have high suspicion of what?

A

Scabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If a pruritic rash does not respond to symptomatic treatment, a work up for systemic disease is in order, what labs?

A

CBC with differential, ESR, fasting, blood sugar, liver and renal function, test, thyroid, panel, and viral hepatitis panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is xerosis?

A

Dry skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What’s important to know about the classic rash of mammary Paget’s disease?

A

Has a rash that looks like eczematous dermatitis of the nipple and areola.
Early in it’s disease, the pt can be asymptomatic except for a rash.

Usually on the nipple or areola, oval shaped with red scaling plaque and sharp margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Patients with a mammary Paget’s disease should be referred to whom?

A

A breast specialist

If a rash on the nipple or areola region last longer than 2 weeks and does not resolve with topical steroids, refer to breast specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is an acute Illness caused by what?

A

Toxin producing S.aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?

A

Sudden onset of fever, vomiting, tingling sensation of hands and feet, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What immunoglobulin is urticaria associated with?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Topical corticosteroids should not be applied to rashes that are suspected to be or what etiology?

A

Viral

Because it can make it worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What meds should be avoided in pts who have urticaria?

A

Aspirin, ace inhibitors, and NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The classic prescription antihistamine used for pruritus and urticaria is what?

A

Hydroxyzine 50 mg to reduce risk to day time drowsiness/sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Human scabies is caused by the itch mite ?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the earliest physical sign of scabies?

A

1 to 2 mm red papilla located in areas of the body that are most attractive to mites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Where are the highest yield of mites located?

A

On the finger webs, penis or wrists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What diagnostic test should be done to test for scabies?

A

The burrow ink test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Explain the burrow ink test

A

The burrow ink test is performed by rubbing a blue/green marker/felt tip over the suspected burrow and wiping off with alcohol then use a drop of mineral oil and use 15 scalpel blade. The scrapings should be placed in a slide with a drop of oil then sealed to examine under microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Management of scabies includes what?

A

The patient, his/her close contacts and surrounding environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the first line treatment for scabies?

A

Permethrin to treat scabies

Antihistamines and topical steroids for pruritus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Lindane has what effect on pts for scabies and not commonly used because?

A

It’s the most toxic, can cause seizures, irritability. Not good for pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When is follow up for uncomplicated scabies?

A

1 week after initial treatment

May need to repeat scabicide treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Pthirus pubis is called what kind of louse?

A

Pubis louse
Infects pubis primarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pediculus human capitis is called what louse?

A

The head louse
Affects scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pediculus human corporis is what louse?

A

The body or clothing louse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Children ages 3 to 12 are affected most commonly by what louse?

A

The head louse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which lice are associated with disease transmission?

A

Body lice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the earliest sign of lice infestation?

A

Small 2-3mm, red erytbematous macules or papilla that may be pruritic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

children with Pediculosis pubis in their eyelashes or hair should alert the clinician of what ?

A

Possible sexual abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Eyelash infestation can be treated by what?

A

Applying petroleum jelly to the eyelid margins twice daily for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the first line treatment for pediculosis?

A

use permethrin 1% lotion or 5% cream (Nix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Moniliasis is also known as what?

A

Candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A higher incidence of thrashes seen among which two types of patients?

A

AIDS patients and infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

In women with aids one of the earliest and most frequent opportunistic infections is what?

A

Vaginal candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Patients with oral candidiasis or thrush will complain of what?

A

Hey severe sore throat, painter, difficulty is noted during swallowing, especially with acidic foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Patients with vaginal candidiasis or complaining of what typically?

A

Burning, itching, and irritation, either and/or the vagina. Burning may be noted during intercourse or urination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Patients with vaginal candidiasis, has what kind of discharge?

A

Vaginal discharge is reported as white in color, with a cottage cheese, or thick texture appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is balanitis?

A

It is the yeast infection of the glans penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the typical complaint in men who have balanitis?

A

Sexually active adult male who complains of reddish rash and itching of the glans penis.

Sometimes has burning after intercourse but none with urination.

Some will report having sex with a female partner who is being treated for a yeast infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is intertriginous candidiasis?

A

It is a red itchy rash that occasionally “weeps” and is moist, sometimes accompanied by burning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are some locations for intertriginous candidiasis?

A

The groin, the perianal area, and traditional spaces are both hands and feet, the inframammary area

Usually in obese adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is candidal paronychia?

A

Fungal infection of fingertip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the classic description of candidal paronychia?

A

Extremely painful fingertip that is red, hot, and swollen. History of frequent water immersion of the hand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is subungal candida?

A

One of several discolored Yellow fingernails for several weeks to months

No pain or itching is associated

Excessive contact with dish water, bartending.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the cardinal symptom of candidiasis?

A

Pruritus and sometimes burning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is a cardinal sign of cutaneous candidiasis infection ?

A

Bright red rash with macules or satellite lesions see on borders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the objective signs of balanitis?

A

Glans penis has small red and eroded patches that are tender to touch

Can also be small white round lesions with a red base on the glans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does intertriginous candidiasis look like?

A

Found in areas of skin maceration (skin rubbing against skin) or increased heat and moisture can become easily colonized

Think axilla, groin, perianal, interdigital areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

For vaginal candidiasis infections the whiff test would be what? Pos or neg?

A

Negative

90
Q

What tests are helpful in the diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis?

A

A saline wet mount, pH paper, potassium hydroxide test

91
Q

What’s important to know about KOH test?

A

A positive exam establishes the diagnosis, a negative test is not rule out the disease

92
Q

Topical antifungal creams are applied how often?
Think nystatin, miconazole, and clotrimazole

A

Twice per day for at least two weeks, can be up to four weeks

93
Q

What is the first line treatment for mild oral candidiasis?

A

Clotrimazole 10 mg five times a day or miconazole 50 mg buccal tablet once a day for 7-14 days

94
Q

What is the treatment for candidial paronychia?

A

Warm compress on the effective fingertip, will enhance drainage of purulent discharge and help relieve the pain

95
Q

Subungual candidida is best treated how?

A

Best treated with systemic antifungal

96
Q

Dermatophytoses is also referred to as what?

A

Tinea

97
Q

What is dermatophytoses or tinea?

A

Superficial skin functions, cause predominately by three fungal species :
Epidermophyton, trichophyton, and microsporum

98
Q

What are the modes of transmission for dermatophytoses?

A

Direct contact, contact with asymptomatic carriers

99
Q

Tinea capitis is ringworm of what?

A

The scalp

100
Q

Tinea corporis Is ringworm of what?

A

Ringworm of the body

101
Q

Tinea circinata is also called what?

A

Tinea corporis/ ringworm of body

102
Q

Tinea cruris is ringworm of what?

A

Of the groin know as “jock itch”

103
Q

Tinea pedia is known as what?

A

Athlete’s foot

104
Q

Tinea manuum us know as what?

A

Tinea of the hands

105
Q

Tinea Versicolor is know as what?

A

Pityriasis versicolor

106
Q

Tinea unguium is also called what?

A

Onychomycosis

107
Q

what is the most outer layer of the skin called?

A

Epidermis

108
Q

What is the middle layer of skin called?

A

Dermis

109
Q

what is the inner most layer of skin called?

A

hypodermis

110
Q

what layer of skin constantly sheds and new skins are produced every 30 days?

A

epidermis

111
Q

what layer of skin has collagen, sebaceous gland, hair follicles, and blood vessel?

A

dermis

112
Q

what skin condition is this?

Is this fungal, bacterial or viral?

A

Impetigo

Caused by bacteria

113
Q

Describe impetigo

A

honey crusted appearance, has thin vesicles

114
Q

How is impetigo spread?

A

It is spread through contact from hands, towels, and clothing

115
Q

what is the treatment for impetigo?

Name ointment treatment and oral antibiotic treatment

A

Bactroban (Mupirocin) ointment TID for 7 days

oral antibiotics use for 7-10 days: dicloxacillin, Bactrim, cephalexin, clindamycin

116
Q

If there is a recurrence of infection of impetigo, what should be evaluated?

A

Do a MRSA C&S swab of their nares to see if they are a carrier

117
Q

what is the causative agent of impetigo?

A

staphylococcus aureus

118
Q

what skin condition is this?
is this caused by fungal, bacteria, or viral?

A

Folliculitis

Caused by bacteria

119
Q

what is the treatment for SUPERFICIAL folliculitis?

A

antibacterial soap scrub, topical mupirocin, and warm compresses three times daily

120
Q

what are the 2 causative agents for folliculitis?

A

Staph aureus and pseudomonas (associated with hot tubs)

121
Q

what is the treatment for pseudomonas caused folliculitis?

A

oral abx
Fluoroquinolone (cipro, Levaquin) or aminoglycoside (gentamicin, tobramycin)

122
Q

what skin condition is this?
what is this caused by?

A

Furuncle (boil)
typically caused by staph

123
Q

Describe a furuncle (Boil)

A

Similar to folliculitis but it extends to the dermis and subcutaneous outer layer

124
Q

what is the treatment for simple lesion and severe infections?

A

simple: warm compresses

severe: drainage and abx

125
Q

what skin condition is this ?

what does this initially start out as?

A

Carbuncle

Usually starts out as a furuncle (Boil)

126
Q

what skin condition is this?

A

Cellulitis

127
Q

what skin condition is this?

A

Erysipelas

128
Q

what is the difference between cellulitis and erysipelas?

A

Cellulitis occurs deeper in the dermis and hypodermis.

Erysipelas occurs in the epidermis and superficial lymphatic area

129
Q

what is the common pathogen species for a cat and dog bite?

A

Pasteurella species

130
Q

what is the common pathogen for associated with a cat scratch?

A

bartonella pathogen most common

131
Q

what is the 1st line treatment for a cat/dog bite?

A

Augmentin (amoxicillin-clavunlate)

other abx: levofloxacin and doxycycline

132
Q

what is the treatment for a cat scratch?

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin

133
Q

what skin condition is this?

A

Tinea pedis, athlete’s foot

134
Q

Describe athlete’s foot

A

pruritic lesions, scaly with raised borders, can become fissured

135
Q

What is the confirmation method for athlete’s foot?

A

KOH examination of foot scrapings

136
Q

What is important to know about topical steroid creams and fungus?

A

Topical steroid creams are inappropriate for fungal infections as it can make the infection worse and contribute to treatment failure

137
Q

what skin condition is this?
Name the dermatologic name

A

Tinea cruris
jock itch

138
Q

what skin condition is this?

A

Tinea versicolor

139
Q

Describe tinea versicolor

A

A fungal infection that has multiple patchy lesions with fine scales. Typically occurs on the back, neck, chest, and shoulders.

140
Q

what is the treatment of tinea versicolor?

A

Ketoconazole 400 mg x 1 dose
Fluconazole and itraconazole

141
Q

what skin condition is this?
Name the proper dermatologic term

A

Tinea corporis
Ringworm

142
Q

what is the treatment for tinea corporis?

A

topical antifungal creams/ointment
Miconazole, ketoconazole

143
Q

what is the dermatologic name for this?

A

Onychomycosis

144
Q

what is the treatment for onychomycosis if less than half the toe is involved?

A

Penlac nail lacquer

145
Q

what is the treatment for onychomycosis if whole nail is involved?

A

oral antifungal
Itraconazole, dose is longer for feet at 12 weeks, finger nail is at 6 weeks

146
Q

If there is recurrent fungal infections whom should you refer to for onychomycosis?

A

Dermatologist or podiatrist

147
Q

what is the dermatologic name for this?

A

Herpes simplex type 1

148
Q

what is the dermatologic name for this?

A

Herpes simplex type 2

149
Q

what is the dermatologic name for this ?

A

Herpes zoster (shingles)

150
Q

what is considered chronic herpes viral infection? what is the recommendation?

A

More than 4 episodes a year

The recommendation is to take antiviral therapy daily

151
Q

what is the Hutchinson’s sign?

A

Lesion on the tip of the nose, a sign of shingles. Refer to ophthalmology

152
Q

Herpes zoster Opthalmicus what should you do?

A

refer to ophthalmology

153
Q

what meds are used for post-herpetic neuralgia?

A

Lyrica, Neurontin, and Lidoderm patches

154
Q

what pain meds can be given for herpes zoster?

A

antiviral: acyclovir, famiciclovir, valacyclovir

nerve pain: NSAIDS, gabapentin

155
Q

The Zostavax vaccine is to be given at what age? how many doses?

A

age 55 to 60
one time dose

156
Q

The Shingrix vaccine should be given at what age? how many doses?

A

age 50 and older
2 doses, 2nd dose to be given between 2 and 6 months after 1st dose

157
Q

What is the window of time to give antiviral medication for shingles?

A

72 hours of onset

158
Q

What is the dermatologic name for this skin condition?

A

Verruca
(warts)

159
Q

What is the treatment for verruca?

A

cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen or salicylic acid

160
Q

For the treatment of acne, how long should doxycycline/minocycline be prescribed for?

A

up to 6 months

161
Q

what dermatologic skin condition is this?

A

Rosacea

162
Q

what are the 4 treatments for rosacea? based on severity

A

Brimonidine 0.33% gel pea size daily
Metronidazole cream
Minocycline or doxycycline 50 to 100mg BID
Laser treatment, accutane

163
Q

what is the treatment for seborrheic dermatitis?

A

OTC selenium sulfide shampoo or 2% ketoconazole shampoo (leave on for 5-20 minutes before rinsing)

164
Q

Describe allergic contact dermatitis

A

popular pruritic rash resulting from allergen

165
Q

what dermatologic condition is this ?

A

Urticaria (hives)

166
Q

Describe urticaria

A

raised wheals, erythema, transient, migratory pruritic

167
Q

what dermatologic condition is this

A

eczema

168
Q

what is the treatment for eczema?

A

creams to hydrate, topical steroids for pruritis

169
Q

what dermatologic skin condition is this

A

psoriasis

170
Q

Describe psoriasis

A

thick silvery scales
common on elbows, knees, feet

171
Q

what are the treatment modalities for psoriasis? list 3

A

UV light, high potency topical corticosteroid, methotrexate

172
Q

Guttate psoriasis happens in what population?

A

children and adolescent

173
Q

what dermatologic skin condition is this ?

A

Actinic keratosis

174
Q

Describe actinic keratosis

A

pinkish white papules with thick yellow scaling

175
Q

what is the treatment for a few lesion of actinic keratosis?

A

cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen

176
Q

what is the treatment for multiple lesion of actinic keratosis?

A

efudex cream (fluorouracil) BID
Aldara twice weekly, wash off after 8 hours

177
Q

what dermatologic skin condition is this ?

A

basal cell carcinoma

178
Q

Describe basal cell carcinoma

A

waxy with central depression and pearly rolled borders; bleeds with mild trauma

179
Q

what is the diagnosis for basal cell carcinoma?

A

shave or punch biopsy

180
Q

what is the treatment for basal cell carcinoma if surgery is not indicated?

A

Efudex and Aldara cream

181
Q

what dermatologic skin condition is this ?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

182
Q

Describe squamous cell carcinoma

A

lesions are raised, firm, pink to flesh colored keratotic papules, may bleed easily

183
Q

what dermatologic skin condition is this?

A

malignant melanoma

184
Q

what dermatologic skin condition is this?

A

seborrheic keratosis

185
Q

what is the measurement for UVA?

A

Protection factor (PFA)

186
Q

what is the measurement for UVB?

A

Sun protective factor (SPF)

187
Q

which causes more damage UVA or UVB?

A

UVA causes up to 80% of skin damage

188
Q

what is the treatment for burns? and how often?

A

Silvadene, apply twice daily

189
Q

Name five primary lesions are less than 1 cm

A

Macule, popular, vesicle, pustule, nodule

190
Q

Describe a Macule

A

Flat and less than 1cm

191
Q

Describe a papule

A

Raised and less than 1 cm

192
Q

Describe a vesicle

A

Fluid filled, and less than 1 cm

193
Q

Describe a pustule

A

Purulent fluid and less than 1 cm

194
Q

Describe Nodule

A

Raised solid , and less than 1 cm

195
Q

Describe a patch

A

Flat and greater than 1 cm

196
Q

Describe a plaque

A

Raised and greater than 1 cm

197
Q

Describe a tumor

A

Solid and greater than 1 cm

198
Q

Describe a bulla

A

Fluid filled, and greater than 1 cm

199
Q

Describe an abscess

A

Purulent discharge, and greater than 1 cm

200
Q

Describe a fissure

A

Linear breaks in the skin often down to the dermis

201
Q

Atrophy in the epidermal area, results in what?

A

Wasting away of the epidermidis, causing wrinkling increase underlying vascular prominence

202
Q

What effect does atrophy I have on the dermal layer of skin?

A

Result in loss of fat or subcutaneous fat tissue

203
Q

Blanching is a sign of what?

A

Vasodilation

204
Q

What does xerosis mean?

A

Dry

205
Q

what is the topical treatment options for impetigo in children?
list 2

A

Bactroban (mupirocin) ointment TID x7 days
or
Altabax ointment BID x 5 days

206
Q

what is the oral antibiotic treatment options for impetigo in children?

A

Dicloxacillin
cephalexin
Clindamycin
x7 days

207
Q

what two antibiotics are used for MRSA infections in kids?

A

Clindamycin and bactrim

208
Q

what is the treatment of rehydration atopic dermatitis?

A

antihistamines, topical steroid creams, elidel or protopic cream BID

209
Q

what is the treatment of hand-foot mouth disease?

A

supportive therapy
oral ulcers–use orajel or anbesol

210
Q

what virus causes the hand-foot-mouth disease?

A

coxsackievirus A16

211
Q

what is erythema infectiosum called and what is the virus causing it?

A

Fifth’s disease
Parvovirus B19

212
Q

what rash has a Christmas tree like pattern on the back?

A
213
Q

what rash has a Christmas tree like pattern on the back?

A

Pityriasis rosea

214
Q

what is the treatment for pityriasis rosea?

A

calamine lotion, topical steroids, oral antihistamines

215
Q

what is the therapy options for molluscum contagiosum?

A

Cryotherapy and laser ablation

216
Q

what is the treatment for herpes simplex type 1?

A

abreva otc 5 x daily

217
Q

what is the treatment for pediculosis?

A

OTC pyrethrin (RID) and permethrin (NIX) usually 2 treatments 7-10 days apart

218
Q

what is the treatment for scabies?

A

permethrin (Elimite) cream applied from neck to feet, wash off after 8-14 hours, repeat in 10 days if needed

219
Q

what is the treatment for keratosis pilaris?

A

emollients and mild exfoliation

220
Q

how is 5th disease spread?

A

respiratory droplets

PC2-exam 1 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions