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B exam high yield > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most accuarate way to meaasure the extent of burns? (not rule of nines)

A

Lund and Browder chart

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2
Q

What are the 4 major types of burn?

A
  • Superficial epidermal
  • Partial thickness (superF dermal)
  • Partial thickness (deep dermal)
  • Full thickness
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3
Q

Describe a superficial epidermal burn

A
  • Red
  • Painful
  • Dry
  • No blisters
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4
Q

Describe a partial thickness (superficial dermal) burn

A
  • Pale pink
  • Painful
  • Blistered
  • Slow cap refill
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5
Q

Describe a partial thickness (deep dermal) burn

A
  • Typically white, may have pathces of non-blanching erythema
  • Reduced sensation
  • Painful to deep pressure
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6
Q

Describe a full thickness burn

A
  • White (waxy)/brown leathery
  • Black
  • No blisters
  • No pain
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7
Q

What are the indocations that a burn should be referred to secondary care?

A
  • All deep dermal and full-thickness burns
  • Superficial dermal >3% (>2% in kids)
  • Sup Derm of face, hands, feet, flexure and circumferntial
  • Inhalation, chemical, electrical
  • Non-accidental
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8
Q

What burns are escharotomies indicated in?

A
  • Circumferential full-thickness burns of torso or limbs
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9
Q

Management of superficial epidermal burn

A

Symptomatic relief
- Analgesia
- Emollients

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10
Q

Management of superficial dermal burns

A
  • Cleanse wound
  • Leave blister intact
  • Non-adherent dressing
  • Avoid topical creams
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11
Q

When should intubation be considered in burns?

A
  • Deep burns to face or neck
  • Blisters or oedema of oropharynx
  • Stridor
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12
Q

When are IV fluids required in a burn injury and how is it calculated?

A
  • Gretaer than 10% in kids, 15% in adults
  • TBSA x weight x 4 (24hrs)
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13
Q

How much / what solution is given after 24 hrs in fluid resus in burns?

A
  • Colloid infusion at 0.5 x TBSA x BW
  • Crystalloid 1.5 x TBSA x BW
  • Antioxidants added
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14
Q

What do keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts interact with to cause acanthosis nigricans?

A

Insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1)

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15
Q

What is acne fulminans and how is it managed?

A

Very severe acne associated with severe upset (fever)
- Admission and oral steroids

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16
Q

How can erysipelas be differentiated from cellulitis?

A
  • Erysipelas: Raised well defined border (Strep A), upper dermis
  • Cellulitis: Ill-defined, deep dermis and subcut infection
17
Q

Petechial rash in a kid what do you do?

A

Admit

18
Q

1st line treatment for lichen sclerosis?

A
  • Topical clobetasol propionate (topical tacrolimus next line with specialist)
19
Q

Treatement of eczema herpeticum?

A

IV aciclovir

20
Q

When can a child return to daycare folowing impetigo?

A

48 hrs after starting treatment

21
Q

What are common complications of seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

Otitis externa and blepharitis

22
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line treatment for acne vulgaris?

A
  • Benzoyl peroxide (or topical retinoid or both)
  • Tetracycline (max 3 months)
23
Q

What may occur as a complication of long-term antibiotic use as a result of acne?

A

Gram-negative folliculitis

24
Q

What can be given for gram-ve folliculitis?

A

High-dose oral trimethoprim

25
Q

What are the 4 main subtypes of melanoma?

A
  • Superficial spreading (most common)
  • Nodular
  • Lentigo aligna
  • Acral lentiginous (least common)
26
Q

Where can acral lentiginous be found? What sign can they have?

A

Subungual pigmentation (Hutchison’s sign)
- Palms or feet

27
Q

How can Nodular and lentigo maligna be differentiated?

A
  • Nodular: middle-aged, red or black lump that bleeds or oozes
  • Lentigo maligna: Older people, growing mole
28
Q

What rash in pregnancy is associated with blistering, occurs in 2nd or 3rd trimester and rarely seen in the 1st pregnancy?

A

Pemphigoid gestationalis

B exam high yield (4 decks)

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