Derivatives Flashcards

1
Q

7.1 Pricing & Valuation of Forward Commitements

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– Describe how equity forwards and futures are priced, and calculate and interpret their no-arbitrage value.
– Describe the carry arbitrage model without underlying cashflows and with underlying cashflows.
– Describe how interest rate forwards and futures are priced, and calculate and interpret their no-arbitrage value.
– Describe how fixed-income forwards and futures are priced, and calculate and interpret their no-arbitrage value.
– Describe how interest rate swaps are priced, and calculate and interpret their no-arbitrage value.
– Describe how currency swaps are priced, and calculate and interpret their no-arbitrage value.
– Describe how equity swaps are priced, and calculate and interpret their no-arbitrage value.

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2
Q

Forward Commitments

1- Definition of Forward Commitments: Agreements to transact at a specified future date under predetermined terms.
– Forward commitments include forwards, futures, and swaps.
– Forwards and futures involve a single transaction, whereas swaps consist of a series of transactions.

2- Key Characteristics:
– Terms such as price, transaction date, and quantity are agreed upon when the contract is established.
– Payoffs are linear, exposing parties to both gains and losses based on market movement.

3- Pricing and Valuation:
– Pricing is based on value additivity, arbitrage, and the law of one price.
– Example:
— An interest rate swap’s value can be determined using the prices of two bonds that replicate the swap.

4- Applications of Forward Commitments:
– 1- Diversification: Equity index swaps help investors diversify concentrated asset holdings.
– 2- Duration Adjustments: Pension funds use interest rate swaps to modify the duration of their portfolios.
– 3- Tactical Allocation: Swaps enable portfolio rebalancing without the need to liquidate positions.
– 4- Debt Nature Conversion: Borrowers use interest rate swaps to change their debt from fixed-rate to floating-rate, or vice versa.
– 5- Market Expectations: Forward contract prices, such as volatility swaps, can infer market expectations.

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Key Takeaways
– Forward commitments include forwards, futures, and swaps, offering flexibility and risk management.
– Pricing relies on arbitrage and the law of one price.
– Applications include diversification, duration adjustments, and tactical portfolio rebalancing.

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3
Q

Principles of Arbitrage-Free Pricing and Valuation of Forward Commitments

1- Key Definitions:
– Forward Price: The fixed price agreed upon at the initiation of a forward commitment, which remains constant throughout the term of the contract. It is typically set so the initial value of the contract is zero.
– Value of a Forward Commitment: The fluctuating value of the forward contract over its term, which changes based on the underlying asset’s price movements.

2- Arbitrage-Free Pricing:
– Arbitrage-free pricing relies on the assumption that no arbitrage opportunities exist in the market, meaning no risk-free profit can be earned without using capital.
– Arbitrage is possible when identical cash flows for the same risk do not have the same price.
– The law of one price ensures identical investments have the same price, while the value additivity principle states that the total portfolio value equals the sum of its individual asset values.

3- Simplifying Assumptions for No-Arbitrage Pricing:
– Replicating instruments are available for the derivative.
– No market frictions exist (e.g., no taxes or transaction costs).
– Short selling is allowed.
– Borrowing and lending occur at the risk-free rate.

4- Carry Arbitrage Model:
– Definition: This model combines a position in the underlying asset with a forward contract. It demonstrates how to arbitrage the cost of carrying an asset over time.
– Example:
– Borrow money to purchase the underlying asset today.
– Simultaneously, enter a forward contract to sell the asset at a predetermined price in the future.
– This is called the cost-of-carry model or cash-and-carry arbitrage.
– Use: The carry arbitrage model is a foundational tool for deriving the observed prices of forward contracts.

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Key Takeaways
– Forward price and value are distinct: the forward price is fixed, while the value changes with the underlying asset price.
– Arbitrage-free pricing assumes no arbitrage opportunities, enabled by the law of one price and value additivity.
– The carry arbitrage model is crucial for understanding forward contract pricing based on cost-of-carry.

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4
Q

Notation for Forward and Futures Contracts

1- S_t:
– Represents the price of the underlying instrument at a specific point in time, t.

2- F₀(T):
– Denotes the forward price agreed upon at time 0 for a contract that expires at time T.

3- f₀(T):
– Indicates the futures price agreed upon at time 0 for a contract that expires at time T.

4- V_t(T):
– The value of a forward contract at time t, which will expire at time T.

5- v_t(T):
– The value of a futures contract at time t, which will expire at time T.

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5
Q

Pricing and Valuing Generic Forward and Futures Contracts

1- Differences Between Forwards and Futures:
– Forwards: Over-the-counter (OTC) contracts with customizable terms and no assurance from a clearinghouse.
– Futures: Exchange-traded contracts with standardized terms, guaranteed by a clearinghouse requiring margin deposits and daily marking-to-market.
– While operational differences exist, pricing of both instruments can be analyzed using the same carry arbitrage models.

2- Key Definitions and Notations:
– S0: Spot price of the underlying asset at initiation (time 0).
– Ft: Forward price of a futures or forward contract at a specific point after initiation (time t).
– FT: Forward price when the contract expires at time T.
– ft: Current price of a futures contract after initiation but before expiration.

3- Price Movements During the Contract Term:
– The spot price of the underlying asset (St) will fluctuate after initiation, influencing forward and futures prices.
– Example: If an asset’s forward price is initially F0 = €100 and its spot price increases to St > S0, the forward price for a shorter contract (Ft) will likely rise above F0, all else equal.

4- Convergence to Spot Price:
– As the contract approaches expiration, forward and futures prices tend to converge with the spot price of the underlying asset.
– At expiration: FT = ft = ST.
– Forward price reflects the value for immediate delivery, ensuring it matches the spot price at expiration.

5- Cost and Benefits of Carrying the Underlying Asset:
– Carrying Costs: Borrowing costs to hold the asset increase the forward price. Higher risk-free rates result in a higher forward price.
– Carrying Benefits: Benefits such as dividends reduce the forward price.
– Basis: The difference between the spot price and the forward or futures price at any time, reflecting these costs and benefits.

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Key Takeaways
– Forwards and futures pricing depends on changes in the spot price and cost-of-carry assumptions.
– Convergence ensures forward prices align with the spot price at expiration.
– The forward price incorporates both the costs and benefits of holding the underlying asset.

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6
Q

Valuing Forward and Futures Contracts

1- Valuing Forward Contracts:
– The value of a forward contract depends on the difference between the prevailing spot price (St) and the forward price agreed upon at initiation (F0).
– Formulas:
— Long position: Value at time T (VT) = St - F0.
— Short position: VT = F0 - St.
– Observations:
— The long party benefits if the spot price rises above the forward price, while the short party benefits if the spot price falls below the forward price.
— Forward commitments are typically structured as “at market” contracts, meaning the initial value (V0) is zero.

2- Valuing Futures Contracts:
– Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily, resetting the value to zero after settlement each day.
– Formula for the value of a futures contract (vt) for the long party (before daily settlement):
vt = Nf × (ft - ft-1).
– Where:
— Nf = Contract multiplier.
— ft = Current futures price.
— ft-1 = Previous day’s settlement price.

3- Example (Futures Contract Valuation):
– If a contract for 1,000 barrels of oil rises from $80 to $82:
vt = 1,000 × ($82 - $80) = $2,000.
– This gain is credited to the long party’s margin account, while the short party records an equivalent loss. After daily settlement, the value returns to zero.

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Key Takeaways
– Forward contract valuation is straightforward and depends on the difference between the spot price and the agreed forward price.
– Futures contracts require daily marking-to-market, with gains and losses settled daily, ensuring the contract’s value resets to zero at the close of each trading day.

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7
Q

Price vs. Value in Forward Contracts

1- Forward Price:
– The forward price is the rate agreed upon at the initiation of the forward contract for a future transaction.

– Key points:
— It is fixed and does not change over the life of the contract.
— This is the price scheduled to occur at the contract’s expiration.

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2- Forward Value:
– The forward value measures the worth of the contract during its term.
– Key points:
— It fluctuates as the underlying asset’s spot price changes.
— The value reflects the financial gain or loss for one party, offset by the equivalent loss or gain for the other party.

Key Takeaways
– The forward price remains constant throughout the contract, whereas the forward value changes based on market conditions.
– Forward price determines the transaction terms, while forward value assesses the contract’s worth over time.

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8
Q

Marking to Market and Valuation Differences in Futures and Forward Contracts

1- Futures Contracts and Marking to Market:
– The value of a futures contract is adjusted daily through a process known as marking to market.
– The difference between the futures price of the current day (f_t(T)) and the futures price of the previous day (f_(t-)(T)) determines the daily gain or loss.
– Value before marking to market (v_t(T)):
— For a long futures position: v_t(T) = f_t(T) - f_(t-)(T).
— For a short futures position: v_t(T) = f_(t-)(T) - f_t(T).

2- Cash Flow Adjustments:
– Any gains or losses are immediately added to or subtracted from the investor’s margin account daily.
– Because of this daily settlement, the value of the futures contract is reset to 0 at the end of each trading day.

3- Impact of Marking to Market:
– The differences between f_t(T) and f_(t-)(T) are generally small due to the daily adjustment process.
– This ensures minimal carryover of risk compared to forward contracts.

4- Forward Contracts and Counterparty Risk:
– Forward contracts do not undergo daily marking to market, which means gains or losses are realized only at expiration.
– This lack of interim cash flow adjustments results in greater counterparty risk.
– No intermediate transactions occur prior to contract expiration, unlike futures.

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Key Takeaways
– Futures contracts reduce counterparty risk due to daily settlements, while forward contracts carry greater risk as adjustments occur only at the end of the contract.
– The value of a futures contract fluctuates daily, whereas forward contracts maintain a fixed value until expiration.

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9
Q

Forward and Futures Contracts: Value at Inception and Expiration

1- Forward Contract:
– At inception (time 0):
— The forward contract is typically structured as an “at market” contract, meaning the initial value is set to zero.
— Formula: V₀(T) = 0.

– At expiration (time T):
— For a long forward position: The value is the difference between the spot price of the underlying asset (S_T) and the forward price agreed at initiation (F₀(T)).
— Formula: V_T(T) = S_T - F₀(T).

— For a short forward position: The value is the reverse, where the forward price is subtracted from the spot price.
— Formula: V_T(T) = F₀(T) - S_T.

2- Futures Contract:
– Futures contracts are marked to market daily, so their value resets to zero after each trading session.

– Before marking to market:
— For a long futures position: The value is the difference between the current futures price (f_t(T)) and the previous day’s futures price (f_(t-)(T)).
— Formula: v_t(T) = f_t(T) - f_(t-)(T).

— For a short futures position: The value is the difference between the previous day’s futures price and the current futures price.
— Formula: v_t(T) = f_(t-)(T) - f_t(T).

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10
Q

Carry Arbitrage Model Without Underlying Cash Flows

1- Concept of Carry Arbitrage:
– The carry arbitrage model is used to exploit mispricing in forward contracts by carrying the underlying asset over the life of the contract.
– The portfolio is designed to require no initial capital and involve no risk, provided the ending value is certain.

2- Steps to Establish a Carry Arbitrage Position:
– 1- Take a short position in a forward contract, with an initial value of zero.
– 2- Borrow funds equal to the current value of the underlying asset (S₀).
– 3- Use the borrowed funds to purchase the underlying asset.

3- Cash Flows:
– At Time 0:
— The investor borrows S₀ and uses it to purchase the underlying, resulting in zero net cash flow.

– At Time T:
— The investor repays the borrowed amount with interest, calculated as FV(S₀), and delivers the asset under the forward contract.
— Net payoff is determined by the difference between the forward price (F₀) and the future value of the borrowed funds [FV(S₀)].

4- Future Value of Borrowed Amount (FV(S₀)):
– Continuous compounding: FV(S₀) = S₀ * e^(r_c*T).
– Annual compounding: FV(S₀) = S₀ * (1 + r)^T.
— Where r_c = continuously compounded risk-free rate, and r = annually compounded risk-free rate.

5- Arbitrage Condition:
– If the forward contract is correctly priced, the overall position generates a return equivalent to the risk-free rate.
– If the forward price (F₀) deviates from its fair value, arbitrage opportunities arise.

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11
Q

Reverse Carry Arbitrage Strategy

1- Definition of Reverse Carry Arbitrage:
– This strategy is the inverse of the carry arbitrage model. It is used when the forward price of an asset is too low relative to its fair value.
– The objective is to exploit the mispricing by profiting from borrowing the underlying asset and selling it short while entering into a long forward contract to lock in a repurchase price at maturity.

2- Steps to Execute Reverse Carry Arbitrage:
– 1- Take a long position in a forward contract:
— Enter into a forward contract to buy the underlying asset at a future date (at price F₀).

– 2- Sell the underlying asset short:
— Borrow the underlying asset and sell it in the market at its current spot price (S₀).
— The proceeds of this short sale equal S₀.

– 3- Lend the proceeds from the short sale:
— Invest the proceeds from selling the underlying asset at the risk-free rate.

3- Cash Flows:
– At Time 0:
— Borrow the underlying asset and sell it at S₀, earning S₀ in cash.
— Lend the proceeds at the risk-free rate, resulting in a zero net cash flow at initiation.

– At Time T:
— Receive the repayment from the loan, including interest, calculated as FV(S₀).
— Use the forward contract to buy back the asset at F₀ and return it to the lender.
— The net payoff is the difference between the future value of the loan [FV(S₀)] and the forward price (F₀).

4- Arbitrage Condition:
– The strategy is profitable if the forward price (F₀) is lower than the fair forward price, calculated as FV(S₀).
— If F₀ < FV(S₀), the arbitrageur earns risk-free profits.
— Fair pricing ensures that the forward price accounts for the cost of carrying the underlying asset, preventing arbitrage opportunities.

5- Formula for Fair Forward Pricing:
– The forward price is considered fair if F₀ = FV(S₀).
— FV(S₀) = S₀ * e^(r_c*T) under continuous compounding, or S₀ * (1 + r)^T under annual compounding.
— If the forward price deviates from this condition, arbitrage opportunities exist.

6- Key Takeaways:
– Reverse carry arbitrage locks in profits by capitalizing on a forward price that is lower than its fair value.
– The profit results from lending proceeds of the short sale (FV(S₀)) and buying the asset back at a cheaper forward price (F₀).
– This strategy ensures risk-free profits if the mispricing persists.

7- Illustration of Arbitrage Profit:
– Suppose:
— S₀ = $100, r = 5%, T = 1 year, F₀ = $103.
— Fair forward price = FV(S₀) = $100 * (1 + 0.05) = $105.
— Arbitrage profit = FV(S₀) - F₀ = $105 - $103 = $2 per unit.

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12
Q

Carry Arbitrage and Reverse Carry Arbitrage: Key Explanation

1- Carry Arbitrage:
– A carry arbitrage position is established when the observed forward price is too high relative to the arbitrage-free forward price.
– This situation is represented mathematically as:
F₀ > S₀ × (1 + r)^T,
where:
— F₀ is the forward price.
— S₀ is the spot price today.
— r is the risk-free rate.
— T is the time to maturity.

In this case, the forward price exceeds its arbitrage-free level, creating an opportunity to sell the forward contract (short forward), borrow funds, and purchase the underlying asset.

2- Reverse Carry Arbitrage:
– A reverse carry arbitrage position is established when the observed forward price is too low relative to the arbitrage-free forward price.
– This situation is represented mathematically as:
F₀ < S₀ × (1 + r)^T.

Here, the forward price is below its fair value, presenting an opportunity to buy the forward contract (long forward), sell the underlying asset short, and lend the proceeds.

3- Key Implications:
– The arbitrage-free forward price is solely determined by the current price of the underlying (S₀) and the risk-free interest rate (r), compounded over time (T).
– Importantly, the forward price is not influenced by the expected future price of the underlying asset. This ensures that arbitrage opportunities are strictly a function of mispricing relative to the cost of carrying the underlying.

A

Linking Back to the Previous Example:
In the reverse carry arbitrage example:
– If the forward price F₀ = 78 is correct, there are no arbitrage profits because gains on one leg of the strategy are fully offset by losses on the other.
– If the forward price were observed to be too low, say F₀ = 76, a reverse carry arbitrage strategy could be executed to lock in a risk-free profit by:
— Going long the forward contract.
— Short-selling the stock at S₀ = 75.
— Lending the proceeds at the risk-free rate to earn FV(S₀) > F₀.

Similarly, if F₀ were too high, a carry arbitrage position could exploit the mispricing by shorting the forward contract and buying the underlying asset.

This ensures that prices align with the no-arbitrage condition, maintaining market efficiency.

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13
Q

Valuing a Forward Contract with No Cash Flows After Initiation

1- Initial Value of the Contract:
– At initiation, a forward contract is structured to have a value of zero by setting the forward price appropriately.
– This eliminates the need for any payment between the two parties at the beginning of the contract.

2- Value Over Time:
– As time progresses, the value of the forward contract changes due to fluctuations in the spot price St of the underlying asset and time remaining to expiration.

3- Formula for the Value of a Long Forward Contract:
– Name of Formula: Long forward value formula.
– Formula: “Vt = St - [F0 ÷ (1 + r)^(T-t)]”

Where:
– Vt: Value of the forward contract at time t.
– St: Current spot price of the underlying asset at time t.
– F0: Forward price agreed upon at initiation.
– r: Risk-free interest rate.
– T: Time to expiration (in years).
– t: Time elapsed since initiation (in years).

4- Explanation of the Formula:
– The formula calculates the forward contract’s value by finding the difference between:
– 1- The current spot price of the underlying asset (St).
– 2- The present value of the forward price (F0) discounted back to time t using the risk-free rate.

5- Key Assumptions:
– The underlying asset generates no interim cash flows, such as dividends or coupons, during the contract’s life.
– The risk-free rate is constant over the contract’s duration.

6- Numerical Example:
– Suppose the following:
– 1- St = 110 (current spot price of the underlying).
– 2- F0 = 105 (forward price agreed at initiation).
– 3- r = 5% (risk-free rate).
– 4- T = 1 year, and t = 0.5 years (6 months have passed since initiation).

Using the formula:
“Vt = St - [F0 ÷ (1 + r)^(T-t)]”

Substituting values:
“Vt = 110 - [105 ÷ (1 + 0.05)^(1-0.5)]”

Step-by-step:
“Vt = 110 - [105 ÷ (1.05)^0.5]”
“Vt = 110 - [105 ÷ 1.0247]”
“Vt = 110 - 102.45”
“Vt = 7.55”

– The value of the forward contract at time t = 0.5 is 7.55.

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Key Takeaways
– Forward contracts are priced to have a zero value at initiation by setting an appropriate forward price.
– The contract’s value fluctuates over time as the spot price changes and time passes.
– The formula accounts for the current spot price and the discounted forward price, ensuring consistency with no-arbitrage principles.

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14
Q

Carry Arbitrage Model When Underlying Has Cash Flows

1- Introduction: The pricing of a forward contract must account for the presence of cash flows in the underlying asset. These cash flows can be positive (benefits) or negative (costs).

– Carry benefits (CB): Include cash flows like dividends and bond coupon payments.
– Carry costs (CC): Include costs such as storage, waste, and insurance.

2- Formula for Forward Price with Cash Flows:

– Name of Formula: Forward price with cash flows.
– Formula: “F0 = FV[S0 + CC0 − CB0]”
— Where:
— F0: Forward price.
— FV: Future value operator.
— S0: Spot price of the underlying asset.
— CC0: Present value of carry costs.
— CB0: Present value of carry benefits.

– Explanation:
— Carry benefits (CB) decrease the forward price as they add value to holding the underlying.
— Carry costs (CC) increase the forward price as they impose additional burdens.

3- Special Case for Dividend-Paying Stocks:

– Name of Formula: Forward price for dividend-paying stocks.
– Formula: “F0 = FV(S0) − FV(Dividends)”
— Where:
— FV(S0): Future value of the spot price at time T.
— FV(Dividends): Future value of dividends paid during the contract period.

– Explanation:
— For dividend-paying stocks, the forward price decreases by the future value of dividends, assuming there are no other carrying costs.

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Key Takeaways:
– Cash flows in the underlying affect forward pricing, requiring adjustments for benefits and costs.
– Carry benefits (e.g., dividends) lower the forward price, while carry costs (e.g., storage) increase it.

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15
Q

Valuing a Forward Contract with Cash Flows after Initiation

1- Introduction: Forward contracts with cash flows follow similar valuation principles as those without cash flows. However, adjustments must account for carry costs (CC) and carry benefits (CB).

2- General Valuation Formula:

– Name of Formula: Value of a forward contract with cash flows.
– Formula: “Vt = PV[FT − F0]”
— Where:
— Vt: Value of the forward contract at time t.
— PV: Present value operator.
— FT: Forward price at time T.
— F0: Forward price agreed upon at initiation.

3- Adjusted Valuation Formula:

– Name of Formula: Adjusted value of forward contracts considering cash flows.
– Formula: “Vt = St − [F0 ÷ (1 + r)^(T−t)] + PV(CC) − PV(CB)”
— Where:
— Vt: Value of the forward contract at time t.
— St: Spot price of the underlying asset at time t.
— F0: Forward price at initiation.
— r: Risk-free rate.
— T: Time of forward contract expiration.
— PV(CC): Present value of carry costs.
— PV(CB): Present value of carry benefits.

4- Explanation:

– 1- The first component, “St − [F0 ÷ (1 + r)^(T−t)],” represents the intrinsic value of the contract based on the difference between the current spot price and the present value of the agreed forward price.
– 2- The additional terms, “PV(CC) − PV(CB),” adjust for the effects of carry costs and benefits:
— PV(CC): Increases the forward value, reflecting the costs incurred.
— PV(CB): Decreases the forward value, reflecting the benefits received.

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Key Takeaways:
– Forward valuation after initiation must account for adjustments due to carry costs and benefits.
– The formula integrates the intrinsic value of the contract and the cash flow effects of the underlying asset.

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16
Q

Equity Forward and Futures Contracts

1- Forward Pricing Formula with Cash Flows:
The formula for forward price is adjusted to account for continuous compounding, carry costs, and carry benefits when the timing and amount of interim cash flows (e.g., dividends) are uncertain.

– Name of Formula: Equity forward price formula (adjusted for interim cash flows).
– Formula: “F0 = S0 × e^[(rc + CC - CB) × T]”
– Where:
— F0: Forward price at time 0.
— S0: Current spot price of the equity or index.
— rc: Continuous compounding rate (risk-free rate).
— CC: Carry costs (e.g., storage, borrowing costs).
— CB: Carry benefits (e.g., dividends, coupon payments).
— T: Time to contract maturity, expressed in years.

2- Explanation:
– The formula works best when interim cash flows (dividends, etc.) are limited and known.
– If dividend payments or other cash flows have uncertain timing and amounts, the formula adjusts for these variables through carry benefits and costs, alongside continuous compounding rates.

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Key Takeaways
– This formula incorporates both costs and benefits of carrying equity over the life of the contract.
– Continuous compounding ensures precision in calculating forward prices.
– Adjustments for uncertain cash flows make the model applicable to stock indexes with complex dividend structures.

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17
Q

Interest Rate Forward and Futures Contracts

1- Libor as Reference Rate:
The London Interbank Offered Rate (Libor) has traditionally been the reference interest rate for many derivatives. It represents the rate at which London banks borrow from each other. Despite its phasing out due to rate-rigging scandals, Libor is still used in this context.

2- Notation for Interest Rate Forward Pricing:
– Lm: Libor on an m-day deposit on day i.
– NA: Notional amount, or funds deposited.
– NTD: Number of days in a year for interest calculations (360 days by convention).
– tm: Fraction of year for an m-day deposit, calculated as m ÷ NTD.
– TA: Terminal amount or funds repaid, calculated as follows:
— “TA = NA × [1 + Lm × tm]”

3- Example of Terminal Amount Calculation:
– Suppose a 180-day Libor deposit has a notional amount of $100 and a 4% annualized rate.
– Using “TA = NA × [1 + Lm × tm]”, the terminal amount is:
— “TA = 100 × [1 + 0.04 × (180 ÷ 360)] = 102”
– Here, $2 represents the interest paid over 180 days.

4- Formula for Interest Paid:
Interest can be calculated using either of the following methods:
– Formula 1: “Interest = TA - NA”
– Formula 2: “Interest = NA × (Lm × tm)”

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Key Takeaways
– The pricing of Libor-based forwards uses simple, linear calculations based on the actual/360 convention.
– Terminal amounts and interest paid depend on the notional amount, the Libor rate, and the fraction of the year.
– These formulas are foundational for understanding Libor-based derivatives.

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18
Q

Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs)

1- Definition of FRAs:
Forward Rate Agreements are forward contracts with an interest rate as the underlying.
– The fixed-rate payer (short) and floating-rate receiver (long) are the two counterparties.
– The long party benefits if interest rates rise, while the short party benefits if rates fall.
– The FRA price is the fixed rate that ensures the FRA’s initial value is zero.

2- FRA Notation and Format:
FRAs are written as “X × Y”.
– X: Time to FRA expiration in months.
– Y: Time to the maturity of the underlying deposit in months from the contract’s initiation.
– Example: A 3 × 9 FRA expires in 3 months and is based on a 6-month deposit maturing in 9 months.

3- Timeline for FRAs:
– Time 0: Initiation date, when the FRA is created and priced.
– Time h: FRA expiration, when the floating rate is determined and compared to the fixed rate.
– Time h + m: The maturity of the underlying deposit, also denoted as T (where T = h + m).
– The FRA’s value depends on the time remaining until h and the rates observed during this period.

4- FRA Pricing and Settlement:
– The fixed forward rate, “FRA0”, is the interest rate ensuring that the FRA’s initial value is zero.
– FRAs are typically advanced set (rate set at time h) and advanced settled (settled at time h).
– Settlement in arrears means the payment would occur at h + m, but FRAs usually settle early.

5- Settlement Formula:
For the floating rate receiver (long position), the settlement amount is calculated as:
– Formula: “Settlement = [NA × (Lh(m) - FRA0) × tm] ÷ [1 + Dm × tm]”
— NA: Notional amount.
— Lh(m): Floating rate for the m-day deposit determined at time h.
— FRA0: Fixed forward rate agreed at time 0.
— tm: Fraction of the year for the m-day deposit.
— Dm: Discount rate, typically assumed equal to Lm (the m-day Libor rate).

A

Key Takeaways
– FRAs are useful for hedging interest rate exposure by locking in future borrowing or lending rates.
– They are structured for flexibility with “advanced set, advanced settled” being the standard for payment.
– Pricing and settlement involve comparing the fixed and floating rates, with settlement discounted to the FRA expiration date.

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19
Q

Simple Explanation of Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs)

A Forward Rate Agreement (FRA) is like a bet on future interest rates. Two parties agree to a specific interest rate for a loan or deposit that will start in the future. Here’s how it works:

Two Roles in an FRA:
Fixed-rate payer: This party “locks in” an interest rate and will pay it no matter what happens in the market.
Floating-rate payer: This party agrees to pay whatever the actual interest rate is at the future time.

Why Do FRAs Exist?
FRAs are used to manage the risk of future interest rate changes. For example, a company that knows it will borrow money in six months can use an FRA to “lock in” the borrowing cost today.

How the Settlement Works:
On the agreement’s end date (called the expiration date), the actual interest rate in the market is compared to the fixed rate that was agreed upon.
If the market rate is higher than the agreed fixed rate, the fixed-rate payer gains money because they locked in a lower rate.
If the market rate is lower, the floating-rate payer benefits because they pay less interest than expected.

Key Points to Remember:
FRAs are settled in cash, not by actually borrowing or lending money.
Settlement is based on the difference between the agreed fixed rate and the actual floating rate.

A

Difference Between FRAs and Swaps

While FRAs and swaps both involve agreements about future interest rates, they work differently:

Timeframe:
FRA: A one-time agreement about a single period in the future. For example, you agree on the interest rate for a six-month loan starting three months from now.
Swap: A longer-term agreement that involves multiple periods. For example, you might exchange interest rate payments every six months for five years.

Structure:
FRA: Only one settlement happens (at the expiration date of the agreement).
Swap: Many settlements happen, one for each payment period over the life of the swap.

Use:
FRA: Typically used to manage risk for a specific short-term future loan or deposit.
Swap: Used for longer-term risk management or to change the structure of ongoing debt (e.g., from fixed to floating interest payments or vice versa).

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20
Q

Determining the FRA Rate (FRA0)

1- Setting the FRA Rate:
To make the FRA’s initial value zero, the fixed forward rate (FRA0) is set using no-arbitrage principles.
– Assumptions:
— Borrowing and lending occur at the Libor rate (Lm).
— Notional amount (NA) is standardized as 1.
— Discount rate is equal to Lm at time h.

2- Cash Flow Table Summary:
The table summarizes cash flows for the following:
– Depositing funds for T days.
– Borrowing for h days.
– Borrowing for m days starting at time h.
– Receiving floating-rate payments based on FRA.

Key Rows from the Table:

At time 0: Deposits and borrowings are initiated.
At time h: Borrowing m-day funds begins; floating payments are calculated.
At time T (h + m): The total payoff of deposits and borrowings is settled.
The net cash flow at time T is adjusted to ensure the ending value is zero, eliminating any arbitrage opportunities.

3- FRA Pricing Formula:
The no-arbitrage condition results in the following equation:
“1 + LrT * tT ÷ (1 + Lth * th) - FRA0 * tm ÷ (1 + Lth * th) = 0”

Rearranging this equation, the FRA0 rate is calculated as:
“FRA0 = [ (1 + LrT * tT) ÷ (1 + Lth * th) - 1 ] ÷ tm”

– Where:
— LrT: Libor rate for T days.
— Lth: Libor rate for h days.
— tT and th: Time fractions for T and h days.
— tm: Fraction of the year for m days.

4- Simplifying the Equation:
To better illustrate equivalence, the cash flows from:
– Two successive deposits (one for h days and one for m days).
– A single deposit for T days.

The equivalence can be expressed as:
“[1 + Lth * th] * [1 + FRA0 * tm] = 1 + LrT * tT”

A
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21
Q

Example: Calculating the FRA Fixed Rate

1- Problem Setup:
The task is to calculate the rate of a 3 × 9 forward rate agreement (FRA).
– Given:
— h = 90 days.
— m = 180 days.
— T = 270 days.
— Euribor for 90 days (Lth) = 5.6% (or 0.056).
— Euribor for 270 days (LrT) = 6.1% (or 0.061).

2- Formula for FRA0:
The FRA fixed rate (FRA0) can be calculated using:
“FRA0 = [ (1 + LrT * tT) ÷ (1 + Lth * th) - 1 ] ÷ tm”

– Where:
— LrT: Rate for T days.
— Lth: Rate for h days.
— tT = T ÷ 360: Fraction of a year for T days.
— th = h ÷ 360: Fraction of a year for h days.
— tm = m ÷ 360: Fraction of a year for m days.

3- Substituting the Values:
Step 1: Calculate tT, th, and tm:
– tT = 270 ÷ 360 = 0.75.
– th = 90 ÷ 360 = 0.25.
– tm = 180 ÷ 360 = 0.5.

Step 2: Substitute into the formula:
“FRA0 = [ (1 + 0.061 * 0.75) ÷ (1 + 0.056 * 0.25) - 1 ] ÷ 0.5”

Step 3: Simplify the terms:
– Numerator: (1 + 0.061 * 0.75) = 1.04575.
– Denominator: (1 + 0.056 * 0.25) = 1.014.
– Fraction: (1.04575 ÷ 1.014) - 1 = 0.0313.
– Divide by tm: 0.0313 ÷ 0.5 = 0.0626 (or 6.26%).

Final Result:
The FRA fixed rate (FRA0) is 6.26%.

A
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22
Q

Valuing an Existing Long FRA (Floating Receiver)

1- Formula for Valuing a Long FRA:
The value of an existing long FRA, where the investor receives floating payments, can be calculated using:
“Vg = [(FRAg - FRA0) * tm] ÷ [1 + D(T-g) * t(T-g)]”

– Where:
— Vg: Value of the FRA at time g.
— FRAg: Current forward rate for the underlying period at time g.
— FRA0: Fixed forward rate established at initiation.
— tm: Fraction of the year for the maturity period (m days ÷ 360).
— D(T-g): Discount rate for the remaining time (T-g days).
— t(T-g): Fraction of the year for the remaining time (T-g days ÷ 360).

2- Explanation of Components:
– The numerator, “(FRAg - FRA0) * tm”, calculates the difference in cash flows based on the current FRA rate and the original rate for the maturity period.
– The denominator discounts this difference back to the current time (g), reflecting the time value of money.

3- Key Points:
– A positive Vg indicates a gain for the floating-rate receiver.
– A negative Vg indicates a loss for the floating-rate receiver.
– The formula accounts for changes in forward rates and adjusts for the time remaining until maturity.

A

Key Takeaways
– The value of an FRA is determined by the difference between the current forward rate (FRAg) and the original rate (FRA0), adjusted for the maturity period and discounted for time.
– This approach ensures that the FRA’s value reflects the prevailing market conditions and no-arbitrage principles.

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23
Q

Valuation of a Long FRA

1- Problem Summary:
The goal is to calculate the value of a long FRA, given that the FRA is 25 days into the contract. The following data is provided:
– h = 65 days (time until the FRA expires).
– m = 180 days (maturity of the underlying rate).
– T = 245 days (total time until the maturity of the underlying rate).
– The 65-day Euribor = 5.9%.
– The 245-day Euribor = 6.5%.
– The original FRA rate (FRA0) at time 0 = 6.26%.

2- Steps to Solve:

Step 1: Calculate the current FRA rate (FRAg) at day 25.
The formula for FRAg is:
“FRAg = [ (1 + LrT * tT) ÷ (1 + Lh * th) - 1 ] ÷ tm”

– LrT = 6.5% (245-day Euribor).
– Lh = 5.9% (65-day Euribor).
– tT = 245 ÷ 360 = 0.6806.
– th = 65 ÷ 360 = 0.1806.
– tm = 180 ÷ 360 = 0.5.

Substituting values:
“FRA25 = [ (1 + 0.065 * 0.6806) ÷ (1 + 0.059 * 0.1806) - 1 ] ÷ 0.5”
“FRA25 = 6.65%”.

Step 2: Calculate the value of the FRA (V25).
The value formula for a long FRA is:
“Vg = [ (FRAg - FRA0) * tm ] ÷ [ 1 + D(T-g) * t(T-g) ]”

– FRAg = 6.

Valuation of a Long FRA

1- Problem Summary:
The objective is to calculate the value of a long FRA at 25 days into the contract. The following information is provided:
– h = 65 days (time to FRA expiration).
– m = 180 days (maturity of the underlying rate).
– T = 245 days (total time to the maturity of the underlying rate).
– The 65-day Euribor = 5.9%.
– The 245-day Euribor = 6.5%.
– The original FRA rate (FRA0) at time 0 = 6.26%.

2- Steps to Solve:

Step 1: Calculate the Current FRA Rate (FRAg) at Day 25.
The formula for FRAg is:
“FRAg = [ (1 + LrT * tT) ÷ (1 + Lh * th) - 1 ] ÷ tm”

– LrT = 6.5% (245-day Euribor).
– Lh = 5.9% (65-day Euribor).
– tT = 245 ÷ 360 = 0.6806.
– th = 65 ÷ 360 = 0.1806.
– tm = 180 ÷ 360 = 0.5.

Substitute the values into the formula:
“FRA25 = [ (1 + 0.065 * 0.6806) ÷ (1 + 0.059 * 0.1806) - 1 ] ÷ 0.5”
“FRA25 = 6.65%”.

Step 2: Calculate the Value of the FRA (V25).
The formula for valuing the FRA is:
“V25 = [ (FRAg - FRA0) * tm ] ÷ [ 1 + Lr(T-g) * t(T-g) ]”

– FRAg = 6.65%.
– FRA0 = 6.26%.
– tm = 180 ÷ 360 = 0.5.
– Lr(T-g) = 6.5%.
– t(T-g) = 245 ÷ 360 = 0.6806.

Substitute the values into the formula:
“V25 = [ (0.0665 - 0.0626) * 0.5 ] ÷ [ 1 + 0.065 * 0.6806 ]”
“V25 = 0.0019”.

A

3- Key Insights:
– The value is positive, indicating that the long position benefits because interest rates have increased.
– The FRAg being greater than FRA0 signifies a favorable shift for the floating receiver.

Key Takeaways
– The value of a long FRA depends on the difference between the current and original FRA rates, adjusted for time to maturity.
– Discounting ensures that the value reflects the time value of money for the remaining term.

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24
Q

Pricing a Two-Year Forward Contract

1- Problem Summary:
The S&P 500 Index is currently valued at 4,000. Key details include:
– A continuous dividend yield of 1.90%.
– A continuously compounded annual interest rate of 0.80%.
– The goal is to calculate the price of a two-year forward contract.

2- Observations:
– The forward price is calculated based on the current index value, the risk-free rate, and the dividend yield.
– The forward price reflects no arbitrage and is unaffected by an investor’s expectations about the future price of the index.

3- Key Insights:
– The forward price is less than the current index value because the dividend yield (1.90%) is greater than the risk-free rate (0.80%).
– When the dividend yield exceeds the risk-free rate, dividends reduce the forward price since they represent benefits received before contract maturity, reducing the cost of holding the index.

A

The expected future prices of the S&P is based on investors opinion, and not relevant in the calculation

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25
Q

Understanding a 3 × 9 Forward Rate Agreement (FRA)

1- Overview of a 3 × 9 FRA:
– A 3 × 9 FRA refers to a forward rate agreement that expires in 3 months, with a payoff based on the 6-month Libor rate that starts at that time.
– The “3 × 9” format means:
— “3” is the number of months until the FRA expires (deferral period).
— “9” is the total number of months until the underlying deposit matures (3 months deferral + 6 months deposit).

2- Structure of a Short Position in a 3 × 9 FRA:
– A short position involves:
– 1- Going short on a 9-month Libor deposit to avoid locking in a lower rate in the future.
– 2- Going long on a 3-month Libor deposit to hedge against rate increases in the short term.

3- Key Payment Mechanics:
– When the FRA expires in 3 months:
— The floating interest rate for a 6-month period (Libor) will determine the payoff.
— The FRA’s settlement is made based on the difference between the agreed fixed rate and the floating rate.
— Payments are netted at this point.

A

Key Takeaways
– The payoff of the FRA is calculated based on the 6-month Libor rate at the expiration of the FRA.
– The settlement allows participants to hedge interest rate risk for the 6-month deposit that begins in 3 months.
– The agreement can be “advanced set, advanced settled,” meaning rates are fixed at expiration and settlement happens immediately.

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26
Q

Understanding FRA Settlements and Payments

1- Structure of FRA Payments:
– The fixed interest rate is established at the FRA initiation date (time 0).
– The floating interest rate is determined at the FRA expiration date, based on the underlying rate (e.g., Libor) for the maturity period specified.

2- Settlement Process:
– The difference between the fixed and floating interest rates is settled in cash at the FRA expiration date.
– This settlement represents the payoff of the FRA, which is based on the agreed notional amount.

3- Example: A 3 × 9 FRA:
– This FRA expires in 3 months, with the payoff determined by the 6-month Libor rate.
– At expiration (3 months):
— The fixed rate was agreed upon at initiation.
— The floating rate is based on the actual 6-month Libor rate observed at that time.
– The cash settlement occurs immediately after expiration.

A

4- Key Takeaways:
– The floating rate is observed at the FRA expiration and determines the payoff.
– The FRA allows for hedging or speculation on interest rate movements over the specified time frame.
– Payments are settled in cash, netting the difference between fixed and floating interest obligations.

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27
Q

Settlement Amount for FRA (Floating Receiver/Long Position)

1- Overview of the Settlement Process:
– The floating receiver (long position in an FRA) benefits if the floating rate exceeds the fixed rate agreed upon at initiation.
– The settlement amount reflects the difference between the actual floating rate (Lh) and the fixed FRA rate (FRA0).

2- Advanced Settlement:
– FRA settlements occur at the expiration date, but the underlying interest period typically starts later (maturity of the underlying rate).
– The settlement payment is discounted back to the FRA expiration date using the discount rate for the period.

3- Formula for Settlement Amount:
– Settlementamount = [NA × (Lh - FRA0) × tm] ÷ [1 + D × tm]
– Where:
— NA: Notional amount.
— Lh: Floating rate determined at FRA expiration.
— FRA0: Fixed FRA rate agreed upon at initiation.
— tm: Fraction of the year for the maturity of the underlying rate.
— D: Discount rate (typically the floating rate).

4- Key Steps in the Timeline:
– At contract initiation (time 0), the fixed rate (FRA0) is agreed upon, ensuring the initial value of the FRA is zero.
– At FRA expiration (time h), the floating rate (Lh) is observed, and the settlement amount is determined.
– The maturity of the underlying interest rate (h + m) marks the end of the interest period, but the settlement occurs earlier, at time h, on an advanced-settled basis.

A

5- Key Takeaways:
– The difference between the floating and fixed rates determines the FRA payoff.
– The settlement is discounted to account for the time value of money, as the underlying period extends beyond the FRA expiration.

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28
Q

Unique Issues Affecting Fixed-Income Forward and Futures Contracts

1- Accrued Interest in Bond Pricing
– Bonds can be quoted in two ways:
— 1- Clean price: Excludes accrued interest.
— 2- Dirty price: Includes accrued interest.

– For forward and futures contracts, adjustments may need to be made to account for accrued interest, especially when determining the actual settlement amount.

2- Multiple Bonds Deliverable by the Seller
– Certain contracts allow sellers to choose from a set of eligible bonds for delivery.
– This flexibility can introduce pricing variations and potential uncertainty for the buyer.

3- Cheapest-to-Deliver Bonds
– When multiple bonds are eligible for delivery, the seller often selects the cheapest-to-deliver bond, minimizing their cost of fulfilling the contract.
– The cheapest-to-deliver bond is determined by comparing the cost of the bond to the delivery price specified in the contract.

A
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29
Q

Accrued Interest in Fixed-Income Pricing

1- Definition of Accrued Interest (AI)
– Accrued interest refers to the interest that has been earned on a bond since the last coupon payment but has not yet been paid.

– Bonds are quoted in two ways:
— 1- Clean price: Excludes accrued interest and reflects only the bond’s market value.
— 2- Dirty price: Includes accrued interest, representing the total amount a buyer pays for the bond.

2- Relevance in Derivative Pricing
– The distinction between clean and dirty prices is essential for derivative pricing, as different markets and countries may use either method, potentially impacting pricing conventions.

3- Calculation of Accrued Interest
– Accrued interest is calculated using linear interpolation, based on:
— 1- NAD: Number of days since the last coupon payment.
— 2- NTD: Total number of days in the coupon payment period.
— 3- n: Number of coupon payments per year.
— 4- C: Annual coupon amount.

A
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30
Q

Bond Forward Pricing Adjustments

1- Cheapest-to-Deliver (CTD) Bonds
– Sellers in bond forward contracts often have the flexibility to deliver multiple bonds. A conversion factor is applied to standardize values across bonds.
– However, differences remain, leading sellers to choose the cheapest-to-deliver bond for maximizing profits or minimizing costs.

2- Forward Price Calculation with Accrued Interest
– If the full bond price, including accrued interest, is quoted, the forward price is determined using the general formula:
— Forward price adjusts for carry costs (CC) and carry benefits (CB).

3- Customizing the Formula for Bonds
– Key adjustments for bonds include:
— 1- Carry costs (CC) are assumed to be zero.
— 2- Carry benefits (CB) consist of coupon payments, represented by the present value of coupon interest (PVCI).
– The resulting adjusted formula accounts for coupon benefits:
— Forward price reflects the clean price (B0) and accrued interest (AI0).

4- Accrued Interest and Settlement Price
– The accrued interest at contract expiry (AIT) is excluded from the settlement because contracts settle based on the clean bond price.
– This exclusion ensures the calculation of an arbitrage-free forward price.

A

Key Takeaways
– Bond forward pricing relies on clean bond price (excluding accrued interest) and coupon cash flow adjustments.
– Cheapest-to-deliver bonds and accrued interest considerations are critical for ensuring fair valuation in bond derivatives.

F0=[B0 + AI0] - AI_T - FVCI

F0=[B0 + AI0] - AI_T - FVCI –> Formula must be true to avoid arbitrage

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31
Q

Quoted Futures Price and Conversion Factor for Bond Forwards

1- Use of Conversion Factor (CF)
– When multiple bonds can be delivered, the forward price is calculated as the product of the quoted futures price (Q0) and the conversion factor (CF):
— Forward price formula: Forward price = Q0 × CF.

2- Purpose of Conversion Factor
– The conversion factor adjusts the quoted futures price to account for the seller’s choice of the cheapest-to-deliver (CTD) bond.
– This adjustment is necessary because the bond used to calculate the forward price may differ from the bond ultimately delivered.

3- Formula for Quoted Forward Price
– The quoted forward price (Q0) is derived as the forward price adjusted for the conversion factor. The formula is:
— Quoted forward price accounts for:
— Clean bond price (B0),
— Accrued interest (AI0),
— Accrued interest at expiry (AIT),
— Present value of coupon interest (PVCI).

A

Q0 = [1/CF] {FV [B0 + AI0] -AI_T - FVCI}

Q0 = [1/CF] {FV [B0 + AI0] -AI_T - FVCI}

Key Takeaways
– Conversion factors ensure fair pricing by standardizing futures prices when multiple bonds can be delivered.
– The quoted price reflects the actual forward price adjusted for the chosen bond’s conversion factor.

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32
Q

Quoted Futures Price and Conversion Factor for Bond Forwards

1- Use of Conversion Factor (CF)
– When multiple bonds can be delivered, the forward price is calculated as the product of the quoted futures price (Q0) and the conversion factor (CF).
— Formula: F0 = Q0 × CF.

2- Purpose of Conversion Factor
– The conversion factor adjusts the quoted futures price to account for the seller’s choice of the cheapest-to-deliver (CTD) bond.
– This adjustment is necessary because the bond used to calculate the forward price may differ from the bond ultimately delivered.

3- Forward Price and Adjusted Formulas
– The general forward price formula is: F0 = FV(S0 + CC0 - CB0).
– For bond forward contracts, since there are no carry costs (CC0 = 0) and the carry benefit is the present value of coupon interest (PVCI), the adjusted formula is:
— F0 = FV(S0 + 0 - PVCI).
— Additionally, the bond price can be separated into clean price (B0) and accrued interest (AI0), giving:
— S0 = B0 + AI0.

4- Final Forward Price Formulas
– Substituting into the adjusted formula, we get:
— F0 = FV(B0 + AI0 - PVCI).
– If the accrued interest at expiration (AIT) and future value of coupon interest (FVCI) need to be deducted at settlement, the formula becomes:
— F0 = [B0 + AI0] - AIT - FVCI.

5- Quoted Forward Price Formula with Conversion Factor
– When using the conversion factor (CF), the quoted forward price (Q0) is calculated as:
— Q0 = [1/CF] {FV [B0 + AI0] - AIT - FVCI}.

A
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33
Q

Comparing Forward and Futures Contracts

1- Overview of the Concept
– Forward and futures prices both reflect the future value of the underlying asset, adjusted for carry costs and carry benefits.
– The value of a forward contract after initiation is calculated as the present value of the difference between the current forward price and the original forward price.
– Futures positions are marked to market at the end of each trading day, resetting their value to zero after settlement.

2- Formula for the Value of a Forward Contract
– Formula: Vt = PV[Ft - F0].

3- Explanation of Variables
– Vt: Value of the forward contract at time t.
– Ft: Current forward price of the contract.
– F0: Forward price agreed upon at the initiation of the contract.
– PV: Present value operator that discounts the difference between Ft and F0 to the current value.

4- Comparison to Futures Contracts
– Futures contracts differ from forward contracts in that they are marked to market daily.
– The value of a futures contract is determined by the difference between the current price and the previous day’s settlement price.
– After marking to market, the futures contract value is reset to zero.

A
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34
Q

Accrued Interest (AI)

1- Overview of the Concept
– Accrued interest is the portion of the bond’s coupon payment that has been earned but not yet paid since the last coupon payment date.
– Bonds can be quoted with accrued interest (dirty price) or without it (clean price).

2- Formula for Accrued Interest
– Formula: AI = (NAD ÷ NTD) × (C ÷ n).

3- Explanation of Variables
– AI: Accrued interest since the last coupon payment.
– NAD: Number of accrued days since the last coupon payment.
– NTD: Total number of days in the coupon payment period.
– C: Stated annual coupon amount.
– n: Number of coupon payments per year.

4- Calculation Example
– If an investor earns $10 per month on a bond with an annual coupon of $120, the accrued interest after two months would be:
— NAD = 2 months (out of 12 total months).
— C = $120, and n = 12 (monthly payments).
— AI = (2 ÷ 12) × (120 ÷ 12) = $20.

A
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35
Q

Fixed-Income Forward and Futures Contracts

1- Unique Issues
– Bond prices may be quoted with or without accrued interest:
— This depends on the country, as some use clean price (excluding accrued interest) while others use dirty price (including accrued interest).

– Contracts often allow more than one bond to be delivered by the seller:
— Sellers use adjustment factors, such as a conversion factor, to make bonds roughly equal in price.

– Sellers typically choose the cheapest-to-deliver bond:
— If multiple bonds can be delivered under a contract, the seller will deliver the bond that minimizes their cost, referred to as the “cheapest-to-deliver” bond.

A
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36
Q

Example: Calculating the Futures Price for a Bond Contract

1- Scenario
A 4% coupon bond with a par value of $1,000 pays semi-annual coupons. The current price, including accrued interest, is $990. The next coupon payment of $20 occurs in 80 days, and the futures contract expires in 210 days. The current risk-free rate is 5.10%.

2- Steps for Calculation

Step 1: Determine the Forward Price Formula
The futures price for the bond is calculated using the formula:
F0 = FV(B0 + AI0) - AIT - FVIC

Where:
– F0: Futures price.
– B0: Clean bond price (excluding accrued interest).
– AI0: Accrued interest at initiation (current accrued interest).
– AIT: Accrued interest at contract expiry.
– FVIC: Future value of the coupon interest payments.

Step 2: Calculate Each Component

A. Present Value of Bond Price Including AI (FV[B0 + AI0])
FV[B0 + AI0] = 990 × (1 + 0.051 × 210 ÷ 360) = 1,019.15

B. Accrued Interest at Contract Expiry (AIT)
AIT = 20 × (130 ÷ 180) = 14.44

C. Future Value of Coupon Interest (FVIC)
FVIC = 20 × (1 + 0.051 × 130 ÷ 360) = 20.36

Step 3: Combine the Results
Substituting the values into the formula:
F0 = 1,019.15 - 14.44 - 20.36 = 984.35

A
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37
Q

Comparing Forward and Futures Contracts

1- Bond Futures Contracts
– Bond futures contracts are marked-to-market daily. This involves:
— Daily settlement of gains or losses based on the price change since the previous day’s settlement.
— The value of the bond futures contract reverts to zero immediately after settlement.

2- Bond Forward Contracts
– Bond forward contracts do not involve daily settlements. Instead, the value is determined by the present value (PV) of the difference between the forward price at time t and the initial forward price:
— Formula: Vt = PV(Ft - F0).

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38
Q

A receive-floating, pay-fixed swap is equivalent to being long a floating-rate bond and short a fixed-rate bond. The investor is borrowing at a fixed rate and investing in a floating rate. For the swap to have zero initial value, the price of the floating-rate bond and fixed-rate bond should be the same. This is usually done by assuming both are selling at par.

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39
Q

Swaps for Converting Fixed-Rate to Floating-Rate Assets

1- Overview of Swaps
– Swaps are widely used by market participants to transform the nature of assets or liabilities from fixed-rate to floating-rate or vice versa, depending on financial objectives.

2- Example: Converting a Fixed-Rate Asset to a Floating-Rate Asset
– A company holding a fixed-rate asset can convert it into a floating-rate asset by entering into a receive-floating, pay-fixed swap.

3- Mechanics of the Swap
– The company continues to earn the fixed rate on its asset.
– It pays the fixed rate on the swap while receiving the floating rate from the swap.
– The fixed-rate receipt from the asset cancels with the fixed-rate payment on the swap, leaving the company with the floating-rate receipt from the swap as its net outcome.

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40
Q

Interest Rate Swap Contracts

1- Overview of Interest Rate Swaps
– Interest rate swaps are agreements between counterparties to exchange cash flows, typically one based on a fixed rate and the other on a floating rate.
– Swaps can vary significantly in terms of notional amounts, settlement frequencies, and day count conventions.

2- Formula for Fixed-Rate Receiver’s Cash Flow (FS)
– The fixed-rate cash flow is calculated as:
— Formula: “FS = AP * rFIX”.
— Where:
—- FS: Fixed-rate cash flow.
—- Cash flows on a monthly basis using a 30/360 day count convention - AP: Accrual period (e.g., 30/360 or ACT/ACT).
—- rFIX: Fixed swap rate.

3- Formula for Floating-Rate Receiver’s Cash Flow (Si)
– The floating-rate cash flow is calculated as:
— Formula: “Si = AP * rFLT,i”.
— Where:
—- Si: Floating-rate cash flow.
—- rFLT,i: Floating rate at the ith reset date.

4- Net Cash Flow to the Fixed-Rate Receiver (FS - Si)
– The net cash flow to the fixed-rate receiver is:
— Formula: “FS - Si = AP * (rFIX - rFLT,i)”.
– Example Calculation:
— Given:
—- AP = 30/360, rFIX = 4%, rFLT,i = 5.4%.
— Net cash flow: “FS - Si = (30/360) * (0.054 - 0.04) = 0.0012”.

5- Valuation of Fixed and Floating Legs
– The value of the fixed leg (VFIX) and the floating leg (VFLT) must be equal when the swap is initiated to ensure a zero value:
— Formula for VFIX:
“VFIX = FS * T∑_i=1 PVi(1) + PVn(1)”.
— Formula for rFIX:
“rFIX = [1 - PVn] / [T∑_i=1 PVi] * (1 / AP)”.
— Where:
—- T∑_i=1 PVi: Present value of cash flows at each payment period.
—- PVn: Present value of the notional amount at maturity.

A

Key Takeaways
– Interest rate swaps are flexible instruments that allow market participants to hedge interest rate risk or transform fixed and floating exposures.
– The net cash flow for each party depends on the accrual period and the difference between the fixed and floating rates.
– Valuation of the fixed and floating legs ensures fair pricing at the swap’s initiation.

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41
Q

Types of Payment Structures: “Advanced Set” and “Settled in Arrears”

1- Advanced Set, Settled in Arrears (Used in Swaps and FRAs)
– Advanced Set:
— The interest rate for a future period is determined at the start of that period.
— Example: If the interest payment covers a 6-month period starting today, the rate is “set” at the beginning of the 6 months (today).

– Settled in Arrears:
— The payment is made at the end of the period, after the 6 months have passed.
— Example in Plain Words:
—- Suppose you agree on an interest rate today for the next 6 months. At the end of those 6 months, the payment is calculated using the “set” rate and paid then.

2- Advanced Set, Advanced Settled (Used in FRAs)
– Advanced Set:
— Similar to the above, the interest rate is determined at the start of the period.

– Advanced Settled:
— The payment is made at the beginning of the period, instead of at the end.
— To ensure fairness, the payment is discounted back to today’s value since it is made earlier than normal.

– Example in Plain Words:
— Suppose today you agree on an interest rate for a 6-month loan starting 3 months from now. When the loan period starts in 3 months, the rate is already set (advanced set), and you make the payment immediately at the start of the period (advanced settled), discounted to present value.

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42
Q

Valuing a Swap After Initiation

1- Overview of Swap Valuation
– The value of a swap after initiation is calculated using an offsetting swap.
– Example: Consider a 12-month swap that needs to be valued 3 months after its initiation. The value is based on the swap rate for a new 9-month swap required to offset the remaining exposure of the original swap.
– The valuation is determined by the present value of the difference between the two fixed swap rates.

2- Formula for Swap Value
– The value of a receive-fixed swap with notional principal (NA) at time t is:
— “Vswap = NA(FS0 - FSt) ∑PV.”

3- Explanation of Variables
– Vswap: Value of the swap at time t.
– NA: Notional principal (notional amount) of the swap.
– FS0: Original fixed swap rate of the swap.
– FSt: Fixed rate for the new offsetting swap covering the remaining term of the original swap.
– ∑PV: Present value of the payments remaining over the swap’s life.

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Key Takeaways
– The value of a swap changes over time, depending on the difference between the original swap rate and the current swap rate for the remaining term.
– The valuation requires discounting the difference in cash flows to their present value.

43
Q

Currency Swaps

1- Overview of Currency Swaps
– A currency swap exchanges cash flows in different currencies, typically involving payments that are either fixed or floating interest rates.
– There are four types of currency swaps:
— Fixed-for-fixed.
— Floating-for-fixed.
— Fixed-for-floating.
— Floating-for-floating.

2- Key Features of Currency Swaps
– Unlike other swaps, currency swaps often involve the exchange of notional amounts at both initiation and expiry of the swap.
– The exchange rate used for the notional amount exchange is fixed at the time the swap is initiated.
— This ensures that the exchange rate remains consistent for both initiation and settlement.
– Subsequent periodic payments are not netted because they occur in different currencies, requiring separate payment streams.

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44
Q

Fixed-for-Fixed Currency Swaps

1- Overview
– Fixed-for-fixed currency swaps involve exchanging fixed interest rate payments in one currency for fixed interest rate payments in another currency.
– The initial value of the swap is set to zero by aligning the notional amounts of the two currencies and determining fixed rates.

2- Valuation of a Fixed-Rate Bond in a Specific Currency
– The value of a fixed-rate bond in currency k can be calculated using the formula:
— Formula: Vk = Ck * T∑_i=1 PVi(1) + PVn(1) * Park.
— Where:
—- Vk: Value of the bond in currency k.
—- Ck: Coupon payment in currency k.
—- Park: Bond’s par value in currency k.
—- T∑_i=1 PVi(1): Present value of the coupon payments.
—- PVn(1): Present value of the par amount at maturity.

3- Valuation of the Fixed-for-Fixed Currency Swap
– Formula: VCS = Va - S0 * Vb.
— Where:
—- VCS: Value of the currency swap.
—- Va: Value of the bond denominated in currency a.
—- Vb: Value of the bond denominated in currency b.
—- S0: Exchange rate (units of currency a per unit of currency b).

4- Condition for Zero Initial Value of the Swap
– For the swap to have an initial value of zero, the value of the two underlying bonds must be equal.
— Formula: Va = S0 * Vb.

5- Determining Fixed Rates for Each Currency
– The fixed rates for each bond are determined using the same method as in non-currency swaps.
— Fixed rate in currency a: rFIX,a = [1 - PVn,a(1)] ÷ T∑_i=1 PVi,a(1) × (1 ÷ AP).
— Fixed rate in currency b: rFIX,b = [1 - PVn,b(1)] ÷ T∑_i=1 PVi,b(1) × (1 ÷ AP).
— Where:
—- PVn,a(1): Present value of par amount in currency a.
—- T∑_i=1 PVi,a(1): Summation of the present values of coupon payments in currency a.
—- AP: Accrual period.

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Key Takeaways
– Fixed-for-fixed currency swaps exchange fixed payments between two currencies.
– The value of the swap is based on the difference in the values of the underlying bonds in their respective currencies.
– Fixed rates are set to ensure the swap has a zero initial value, with calculations similar to those used in non-currency swaps.

45
Q

Valuation of a Currency Swap at a Later Date

1- Overview
– The value of a currency swap at a later date (t) is the difference between the current values of the two underlying bonds, adjusted for the exchange rate at time t.
– This method assumes the investor receives fixed payments in currency a and makes fixed payments in currency b.

2- Formula for Valuation
– Formula: VCS = Va - St * Vb.

3- Explanation of Variables
– VCS: Value of the currency swap at time t.
– Va: Current value of the bond denominated in currency a.
– Vb: Current value of the bond denominated in currency b.
– St: Exchange rate at time t (units of currency a per unit of currency b).

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46
Q

Plan for Solving the Problem

1- Determine Present Value (PV) Factors
– Use the given spot rates for GBP and EUR to compute the PV factors for each cash flow period.
— Formula for PV Factor: PV_factor = 1 / [1 + (spot_rate ÷ 2)]^n, where n is the period number.

2- Calculate Fixed Coupon Rate for Each Currency
– Using the PV factors for GBP and EUR, calculate the fixed coupon rates that would make each bond trade at par.
— Formula for Fixed Coupon Rate: r_fix = [1 - PV_last] ÷ ∑(PV_factors), where PV_last is the last PV factor.

3- Convert Notional Amount
– Convert the notional amount of €10 million to GBP using the exchange rate of 1.14 pounds per euro.

4- Compute Fixed Semiannual Swap Payments
– Use the fixed coupon rates and notional amounts for GBP and EUR to calculate the semiannual payments.
— Formula for Payment: Payment = Notional × r_fix ÷ 2.

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47
Q

Equity Swaps Overview

1- Definition of Equity Swaps
– An equity swap is a financial contract in which at least one payment is determined by an equity return.
– The other payment is typically determined by a fixed interest rate, floating interest rate, or another equity return.
– Equity swaps are used to modify the equity exposure of a portfolio.

2- Types of Equity Swaps
– 1- Receive-equity return, pay-fixed: The investor receives the return on an equity asset while paying a fixed interest rate.
– 2- Receive-equity return, pay-floating: The investor receives the return on an equity asset while paying a floating interest rate.
– 3- Receive-equity return, pay-another equity return:
— This involves swapping the returns of two different equity assets.
— It can be synthetically created by combining two “receive-equity return, pay-fixed” swaps.

3- Characteristics of the Equity Portion
– The equity return can be based on:
— An individual stock.
— A stock index.
— A custom portfolio.
– Returns can include or exclude dividends.
– The equity return may be positive or negative.

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Key Takeaways
– Equity swaps provide flexibility for managing equity exposure.
– Returns are determined based on pre-agreed benchmarks and can vary in structure depending on the needs of the parties involved.

48
Q

Pricing and Valuing Equity Swap Contracts

1- Overview of the Concept
– Equity swaps are agreements where one party exchanges cash flows based on the performance of an equity asset for cash flows determined by another rate or equity performance.
– This section covers pricing the fixed leg of an equity swap and valuing the swap at a later date.

2- Formula for the Fixed Rate of the Swap
– Name of Formula: Fixed rate formula for swaps.
– Formula: “rFIX = [1 - PVn ÷ T∑_i=1 PVi] × (1 ÷ AP)”

3- Explanation of Variables
– rFIX: Fixed rate for the equity swap.
– PVn: Present value of the notional payment at maturity.
– T∑_i=1 PVi: Summation of the present values of all cash flows for the payment dates.
– AP: Accrual period between payments.

4- Valuing the Swap at a Later Date
– Name of Formula: Value of the receive-fixed, pay-equity swap.
– Formula: “VEQ,t = VFIX(C0) - [(St ÷ St−) × NAE] - PV(Par − NAE)”

5- Explanation of Variables
– VEQ,t: Value of the equity swap at time t.
– VFIX(C0): Value of the fixed leg, calculated as a fixed-rate bond with coupon rate C0.
– St: Current equity price.
– St−: Equity price at the most recent reset date.
– NAE: Notional amount of the equity swap.
– PV(Par − NAE): Present value adjustment to ensure the swap’s initial value is zero.

A

Key Takeaways
– Pricing of the fixed leg in an equity swap mirrors the principles for interest rate swaps.
– Swap valuation incorporates the equity price changes since the last reset date and the fixed leg’s bond-like valuation.
– Assumptions like Par = NAE simplify calculations, ensuring the swap starts with zero value.

49
Q

Receive-Equity Return, Pay-Fixed Equity Swaps

1- Overview of Receive-Equity, Pay-Fixed Swaps
– In this type of equity swap, one party (Party A) receives returns tied to an equity performance while paying fixed cash flows to the other party (Party B).
– The equity return cash flows can be either positive or negative, depending on the performance of the equity.

2- Formula for Equity Leg Cash Flows
– Equity cash flow (Si): “Si = NA_E x R_Ei”
— NA_E: Notional amount of the swap.
— R_Ei: Equity return for the period.
— Note: If R_Ei is negative, the cash flows will be negative, meaning Party A must pay Party B.

3- Cash Flow Dynamics
– Party A receives the equity leg cash flows (Si), which depend on the equity performance.
– Party B receives fixed cash flows and may need to make payments to Party A if the equity performance is negative.

A

Key Takeaways
– Receive-equity, pay-fixed swaps expose the receiving party to equity market returns while locking in fixed cash outflows.
– The equity leg’s performance determines whether Party A benefits or owes payments to Party B.
– This type of swap is used to gain or hedge equity exposure without directly holding the underlying equity asset.

50
Q

Graphical Explanation of Combining Two Receive-Equity Return, Pay-Fixed Swaps

1- Concept Overview
– A “Receive-equity return, pay-another equity return” swap can be synthetically created by combining two separate “Receive-equity return, pay-fixed” swaps.

2- Graphical Breakdown
– First Swap (Receive Equity X, Pay Fixed):
— The company (Party A) receives returns based on Equity X from Counterparty A.
— In exchange, Party A pays fixed cash flows to Counterparty A.

– Second Swap (Pay Equity Y, Receive Fixed):
— The company (Party A) pays returns based on Equity Y to Counterparty B.
— In exchange, Party A receives fixed cash flows from Counterparty B.

3- Combined Effect
– By combining these two swaps:
— The fixed cash flows received and paid by Party A cancel each other out.
— What remains is Party A receiving returns based on Equity X and paying returns based on Equity Y.

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51
Q

Equity Swap Valuation: Adjusting Equity Value to Offset Bond Value

1- Overview of the Example
– A receive-equity, pay-fixed three-year annual reset swap was initiated three months ago.
– The fixed swap rate was set at 2.5%, and the equity value was 1,200 at that time.
– The term structure of interest rates has shifted, and the current discount rate is 2.0%.

2- Current Situation
– The bond’s value has increased due to the decline in the discount rate from 2.5% to 2.0%.
– To maintain the swap value at zero, the equity value must increase to offset this rise in the bond value.

3- Key Factors to Consider
– Bond Component:
— The bond initially traded at par with the fixed swap rate of 2.5%.
— A lower discount rate of 2.0% increases the bond’s present value, creating an imbalance in the swap.

– Equity Component:
— To neutralize the effect of the increased bond value, the equity price must rise above its initial value of 1,200.
— This ensures that the net present value of the swap remains zero.

4- Graphical Explanation
– The flow chart illustrates that the bond’s increase in value shifts the balance of the swap.
– To offset this, the equity component must grow, making the equity price exceed 1,200.
– This adjustment reflects how the swap’s components interact to maintain a fair valuation.

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52
Q

Since the forward price is too high (i.e., 4,578) relative to the carry arbitrage value, we should sell the forward contract and purchase the underlying index. This is an example of carry arbitrage.

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53
Q

Carry Arbitrage Opportunity in Forward Pricing

1- Overview of the Situation
This question evaluates whether the observed spot and forward prices of the CAC 40 index imply an arbitrage opportunity. According to the carry arbitrage model, the forward price should account for carry costs and benefits, ensuring no-arbitrage conditions.

2- Carry Arbitrage Pricing Formula
The forward price under the carry arbitrage model is calculated using the formula:
“F0(T) = S0 * e^[(rc + θ - γ) * T]”
– Where:
— F0(T): Carry arbitrage forward price with settlement at time T.
— S0: Spot price of the index.
— rc: Continuous risk-free rate (1.25% from the passage).
— θ: Carry costs (0, as none are mentioned in the passage).
— γ: Carry benefits (dividend yield, 2.45% from the passage).
— T: Time to maturity (6 months = 6/12).

3- Input Parameters
From the passage:
– Spot price (S0) = 4,551.
– Risk-free rate (rc) = 1.25%.
– Dividend yield (γ) = 2.45%.
– No carry costs (θ = 0).
– Time to maturity = 6 months or 0.5 years.

4- Calculation of Arbitrage Forward Price
Using the formula:
“F0(T) = 4,551 * e^[0.0125 - 0.0245) * 0.5]”
– F0(T) ≈ 4,524.

5- Identification of Arbitrage Opportunity
The forward price in the market is 4,578, which exceeds the calculated no-arbitrage price of 4,524. This difference presents a carry arbitrage opportunity, as the forward price is too high.

6- Arbitrage Strategy
To exploit this arbitrage opportunity:
– Sell the forward contract at the overpriced forward price (4,578).
– Purchase the underlying index at the spot price (4,551).
This strategy ensures arbitrage profit due to the pricing inefficiency.

A

Key Takeaways
– The observed forward price is too high relative to the no-arbitrage forward price, signaling a carry arbitrage opportunity.
– The arbitrage strategy involves selling the overpriced forward contract and buying the underlying index.
– This scenario highlights the importance of incorporating carry costs and benefits when pricing forward contracts.

54
Q

Clarification on FRA Properties

1- Property 1: FRAs are standardized contracts traded on exchanges. – This property is incorrect. FRAs are over-the-counter (OTC) contracts, not standardized contracts traded on exchanges. They are privately negotiated agreements between counterparties. – The underlying for an FRA is the interest rate, not a financial instrument like stocks or bonds, which is common in many derivative contracts.

2- Property 2: In an FRA, cash is exchanged at initiation and when interest is paid on each leg of the agreement. – This property is also incorrect. Cash is not exchanged at initiation under an FRA. Instead, cash is exchanged only when the FRA is settled. – FRAs are typically advanced set (the rate is determined at the beginning of the period) and advanced settled (the cash payment is made at the start of the settlement period after discounting for time value).

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55
Q

Assessment of Reynolds’ Comments on Fixed-Income Futures Contracts

1- Comment 1: “To value a bond from a country that only lists the clean price, we need to add accrued interest to the price to get the full price.” – This comment is correct. The clean price of a bond reflects the present value of future cash flows without considering accrued interest. – To obtain the dirty price (or full price), the accrued interest must be added. – Accrued interest is determined by multiplying the coupon amount by the fraction of the accrual period that has elapsed since the last coupon payment.

2- Comment 2: “The conversion factor ensures that the seller of a futures contract will be indifferent with respect to which bond to deliver at maturity.” – This comment is incorrect. While the conversion factor is designed to equalize the values of eligible bonds for delivery, it is not perfect. – In practice, sellers will opt to deliver the cheapest-to-deliver bond, which may not align with the theoretical neutrality implied by the conversion factor.

A

Key Takeaway
– Comment 1 is correct, and Comment 2 is incorrect.

56
Q

Currency swap contracts involve one party making interest payments based on a notional amount of one currency and a counterparty making interest payments based on a notional amount of a different currency. These contracts can be structured with both parties paying fixed rates, both parties paying floating rates, or one party paying a fixed rate and the counterparty paying a floating rate.

A
57
Q

Fixed Rate for a Currency Swap Contract

1- Overview of the Concept
– The fixed rate (rFIX) for a currency swap contract ensures the present value of fixed payments equals the notional principal at the start of the swap. This makes the swap’s initial value zero.

2- Formula
– Fixed rate formula:
“rFIX = [1 - PV0,tn] ÷ T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1)”
— Where:
—- rFIX: Fixed rate of the swap.
—- PV0,tn: Present value of one unit of currency at the swap’s maturity.
—- T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1): Summation of all present value factors for the swap’s term.

3- Explanation of Variables
– PV0,tn: Calculated using the formula “PV0,tn = 1 ÷ [1 + spot rate × (days to maturity ÷ 360)]” for the final term.
– T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1): Sum of the present value factors for each term within the swap’s maturity.

4- Steps to Solve
– Calculate PV factors for all maturities using spot rates:
— For 90 days: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.028 × (90 ÷ 360)] = 0.993049.
— For 180 days: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.031 × (180 ÷ 360)] = 0.984737.
— For 270 days: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.033 × (270 ÷ 360)] = 0.975848.
— For 360 days: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.034 × (360 ÷ 360)] = 0.967118.
– Sum these PV factors: T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1) = 3.920751.
– Calculate PV0,tn for the final maturity term (360 days): PV0,tn = 0.967118.

5- Final Calculation
– Substitute values into the formula:
“rFIX = [1 - 0.967118] ÷ 3.920751 = 0.008387 (quarterly rate).”
– Convert to annualized rate:
“Annual rate = 0.008387 × 4 = 3.35%.”

A
58
Q

Fixed Rate for the Fixed Leg of a Libor-Based Interest Rate Swap

1- Overview of the Concept
– To determine the fixed rate (rFIX) for the fixed leg of a Libor-based interest rate swap, the present value of all cash flows must equal the notional principal at the swap’s initiation. This involves using spot rates and adjusting them for Libor spreads.

2- Formula
– Fixed rate formula:
“rFIX = [1 - PV0,tn] ÷ T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1)”
— Where:
—- rFIX: Fixed rate of the swap.
—- PV0,tn: Present value of one unit of currency at the swap’s maturity.
—- T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1): Summation of all present value factors over the term of the swap.

3- Explanation of Variables
– PV0,tn: Present value factor for the final maturity term, calculated as “PV0,tn = 1 ÷ [1 + Libor rate × t]”.
– T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1): Sum of the present value factors for all periods in the swap’s term.

4- Steps to Solve
– Add the Libor spread (45 basis points) to each zero-coupon Treasury spot rate to derive Libor rates:
— Year 1: 4.30% + 0.45% = 4.75%.
— Year 2: 4.70% + 0.45% = 5.15%.
— Year 3: 5.00% + 0.45% = 5.45%.
— Year 4: 5.15% + 0.45% = 5.60%.
— Year 5: 5.25% + 0.45% = 5.70%.

– Calculate PV factors using these Libor rates:
— Year 1: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.0475] = 0.954654.
— Year 2: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.0515]^2 = 0.904444.
— Year 3: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.0545]^3 = 0.852826.
— Year 4: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.0560]^4 = 0.804163.
— Year 5: PV factor = 1 ÷ [1 + 0.0570]^5 = 0.757923.

– Sum the PV factors: T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1) = 4.27401.

– Use the formula to calculate rFIX:
“rFIX = [1 - 0.757923] ÷ 4.27401 = 0.0566 (or 5.66%).”

A
59
Q

Valuing AMC’s Interest Rate Swap One Year After Initiation

1- Overview of the Concept
– The value of AMC’s interest rate swap is determined by comparing the fixed rate the company is paying (from the original five-year swap) to the current fixed rate for a four-year swap, which reflects market conditions after one year.

2- Formula for the Swap’s Value
– Value formula:
“V = (FSt - FS0) × T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1) × Notional amount”

3- Explanation of Variables
– V: Value of the swap.
– FSt: Fixed rate of the swap at time t, which is 5.57%.
– FS0: Fixed rate of the swap at initiation, which is 5.66%.
– T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1): Sum of present value factors for the remaining four years of the swap.
– Notional amount: Principal amount used to calculate cash flows, $10,000,000.

4- Steps to Calculate

Step 1: Compute the new fixed rate (FSt) of 5.57% for a four-year swap.
– Formula to calculate the fixed rate for the swap:
“FSt = (1 - PV0,tn) ÷ T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1)”

– Sub-step A: Calculate the PV factor for the last payment (PV0,tn).
— Using the zero-coupon spot rate for year 4 (5.60%):
“PV0,tn = 1 ÷ (1 + 0.0560)^4 = 0.804163.”

– Sub-step B: Compute the sum of PV factors for the remaining four years (T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1)):
— Year 1: Libor spot rate = 4.75%, PV factor = 1 ÷ (1 + 0.0475)^1 = 0.954654.
— Year 2: Libor spot rate = 5.15%, PV factor = 1 ÷ (1 + 0.0515)^2 = 0.904444.
— Year 3: Libor spot rate = 5.45%, PV factor = 1 ÷ (1 + 0.0545)^3 = 0.852826.
— Year 4: Libor spot rate = 5.60%, PV factor = 1 ÷ (1 + 0.0560)^4 = 0.804163.

“T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1) = 0.954654 + 0.904444 + 0.852826 + 0.804163 = 3.516087.”

– Sub-step C: Calculate the new fixed rate (FSt):
“FSt = (1 - 0.804163) ÷ 3.516087 = 0.0557 or 5.57%.”

Step 2: Calculate the PV factors for the remaining term.
– The PV factors calculated above are the same as in Step 1, with the sum already determined as 3.516087.

Step 3: Calculate the value of the swap (V).
– Use the original fixed rate (FS0 = 5.66%) and the new fixed rate (FSt = 5.57%):
“V = (FSt - FS0) × T∑_t=1 PV0,t(1) × Notional amount.”
“V = (0.0557 - 0.0566) × 3.516087 × 10,000,000.”
“V = -0.0009 × 3.516087 × 10,000,000.”
“V = -33,122.35.”

5- Final Swap Value
– The value of the swap from AMC’s perspective is approximately -$33,100. This negative value indicates a loss for AMC if the swap were to be unwound at this point.

A

Key Takeaways
– The new fixed rate is calculated using the PV factors for the remaining term.
– The swap value depends on the difference between the original fixed rate and the new fixed rate for the remaining term.
– A decline in the market fixed rate (from 5.66% to 5.57%) causes the swap’s value to become negative for AMC as the fixed-rate payer.

60
Q

7.2 Valuation of Contigent Claims

A

– Describe and interpret the binomial option valuation model and its component terms.
– Describe how the value of a European option can be analyzed as the present value of the option’s expected payoff at expiration.
– Identify an arbitrage opportunity involving options and describe the related arbitrage.
– Calculate the no-arbitrage values of European and American options using a two-period binomial model.
– Calculate and interpret the value of an interest rate option using a two-period binomial model.
– Identify assumptions of the Black–Scholes–Merton option valuation model.
– Interpret the components of the Black–Scholes–Merton model as applied to call options in terms of a leveraged position in the underlying.
– Describe how the Black–Scholes–Merton model is used to value European options on equities and currencies.
– Describe how the Black model is used to value European options on futures.
– Describe how the Black model is used to value European interest rate options and European swaptions.
– Interpret each of the option Greeks.
– Describe how a delta hedge is executed.
– Describe the role of gamma risk in options trading.
– Define implied volatility and explain how it is used in options trading.

61
Q

Principles of a No-Arbitrage Approach of Valuation

1- Overview of No-Arbitrage Valuation
– Arbitrage arises when traders profit without using their own money or taking on price risk by exploiting market mispricings.
– The no-arbitrage principle ensures that in efficient markets, prices adjust to eliminate such opportunities, creating consistent pricing across instruments with identical cash flows.

2- Key Principle: The Law of One Price
– Investments with identical cash flows, regardless of outcomes, must have the same price.
– This principle forms the foundation for pricing contingent claims, forwards, and swap contracts.

3- Assumptions for No-Arbitrage Valuation
– The no-arbitrage approach assumes the following conditions:
— 1- Replicating instruments are available: The asset being priced can be perfectly replicated using other instruments.
— 2- No market frictions: Transaction costs and taxes are ignored.
— 3- Short selling is allowed: Investors can sell assets they do not own.
— 4- Known statistical distribution: The underlying instruments follow a predictable and measurable pattern.
— 5- Risk-free borrowing and lending: Investors can transact at the risk-free rate without constraints.

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62
Q

The Binomial Model for Option Valuation

1- Overview of the Binomial Model
– The binomial model is a no-arbitrage framework used for valuing options, particularly for path-dependent options like American options.
– It is designed to calculate the price of an option by considering possible future asset price movements over multiple time steps.

2- Notation Used in the Binomial Model
– S: Underlying asset price.
– X: Exercise price of the option.
– r: Risk-free rate.
– T: Time to expiration, measured in years.
– c: European call option price.
– p: European put option price.
– C: American call option price.
– P: American put option price.

3- Assumptions and Payoff Calculations
– An option contract begins at time 0 and expires at time T.
— Example: A European call option is denoted as c0 at initiation and cT at expiration.
– The value of the option at expiration equals the payoff, which cannot be negative because the owner can always choose not to exercise.

4- Payoff Formulas
– For a call option: “cT = max(0, ST - X)”
— cT: Payoff of the call option at expiration.
— ST: Underlying asset price at expiration.
— X: Exercise price of the option.
– For a put option: “pT = max(0, X - ST)”
— pT: Payoff of the put option at expiration.

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63
Q

One-Period Binomial Model for Option Valuation

1- Overview of the One-Period Binomial Model
– In this model, the underlying asset has two possible price movements after one period: an upward movement or a downward movement.
– The initial asset price is denoted as S0, and its potential values after one period are S+ (if the price increases) or S− (if the price decreases).

2- Call Option Payoff
– At the end of the period, the payoff of the call option depends on the asset’s price:
— c1+ = max(0, S1+ - X), where S1+ is the upward price movement.
— c1− = max(0, S1− - X), where S1− is the downward price movement.

3- Price Movements (Up and Down Factors)
– The price movements of the asset are modeled as follows:
— S+ = S × u, where u is the upward movement factor.
— S− = S × d, where d is the downward movement factor.

4- Arbitrage Condition
– To prevent arbitrage, the following inequality must hold:
— d < 1 + r < u.
— This ensures the range of price movements is realistic given the risk-free rate.

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64
Q

Replicating Portfolios and Pricing Options Using a Binomial Model

1- Hedged Portfolio for Call Options
– A hedged portfolio is created by combining h shares of the underlying asset with a short position in a call option. The hedge ratio, denoted as h, ensures that the portfolio’s value remains the same regardless of whether the asset price moves up or down.
– Formula for the hedge ratio: h = (c+ - c−) ÷ (S+ - S−), where:
— c+: Value of the call option in the up scenario.
— c−: Value of the call option in the down scenario.
— S+: Asset price in the up scenario.
— S−: Asset price in the down scenario.

2- Arbitrage-Free Call Option Pricing
– The initial value of the hedged portfolio, hS − c, must equal the present value of its known ending value to ensure it is risk-free.
– Formula: hS − c = [hS+ − c+] ÷ (1 + r) = [hS− − c−] ÷ (1 + r), where r is the risk-free rate.
– Rearranging gives the arbitrage-free price of the call option:
— c = hS + [−hS+ + c+] ÷ (1 + r).

3- Replicating Portfolios for Put Options
– A similar approach is used to replicate put options. The hedge ratio for a put is: h = (p+ − p−) ÷ (S+ − S−), where:
— p+: Value of the put option in the up scenario.
— p−: Value of the put option in the down scenario.
– The put price formula becomes:
— p = hS + [−hS+ + p+] ÷ (1 + r).

4- Risk-Neutral Valuation Using π
– An alternative method to price options is the risk-neutral approach, which defines π as the probability of an up move:
— π = (1 + r − d) ÷ (u − d), where:
—- u: Upward price factor.
—- d: Downward price factor.
– Using π, the call option value is:
— c = [π × c+ + (1 − π) × c−] ÷ (1 + r).

5- Put-Call Parity for Pricing Relationships
– Put-call parity states that the relationship between call and put prices can be expressed as:
— S + p = PV(X) + c, where:
—- S: Current asset price.
—- p: Put price.
—- PV(X): Present value of the strike price.
—- c: Call price.

A

Key Takeaways
– The hedge ratio ensures a portfolio’s value is identical in both up and down scenarios, enabling risk-free pricing.
– Risk-neutral probabilities provide an intuitive way to calculate option prices without requiring real-world probabilities.
– Put-call parity links the prices of European calls and puts to ensure arbitrage-free conditions.

The initial value of the two portfolios must be equal because the ending values are always the same. In the equation, “X” represents both the strike price for the options and the maturity of a zero-coupon bond.

65
Q

“Because the ending value is known in advance (i.e., it is the same in both the up and down scenarios), the hedged portfolio is risk-free. Therefore, it is appropriate to discount at the risk-free rate” : means that regardless of whether the underlying asset’s price goes up or down, the combined value of the asset and the derivative will reach a predetermined value. Because the portfolio’s value is certain, this justifies the use of the risk-free rate for the purpose of discounting, as the portfolio’s value does not depend on market movements and is essentially risk-free.

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66
Q

Two-Period Binomial Option Pricing Model

1- Overview of the Model
– A two-period binomial lattice is an extension of the one-period model. It allows for a more detailed representation of asset price movements over time, capturing three potential outcomes:
— Asset price moves up twice.
— Asset price moves up and then down (or vice versa).
— Asset price moves down twice.

2- Assumptions
– The factors for upward (u) and downward (d) movements, as well as the risk-free rate (r), remain constant across all periods.
– This creates a recombining tree, reducing the number of unique asset prices compared to a non-recombining tree.
– Risk-neutral probabilities (π) also remain constant across periods.

3- Formulas for Up and Down Movements
– The asset price at each node depends on whether the price moves up or down:
— After two upward movements: S++ = S0 × u².
— After one up and one down movement: S+- = S0 × u × d (or vice versa).
— After two downward movements: S−− = S0 × d².

4- Risk-Neutral Probability
– The risk-neutral probability (π) is defined as the probability of an upward price movement, calculated as:
— π = (1 + r − d) ÷ (u − d).

5- Option Valuation at Each Node
– At the terminal nodes (end of the second period), the option’s payoff is calculated based on its intrinsic value:
— For a call option: c++ = max(0, S++ − X), c+- = max(0, S+- − X), c−− = max(0, S−− − X).
— For a put option: p++ = max(0, X − S++), p+- = max(0, X − S+-), p−− = max(0, X − S−−).

6- Valuation Process at Earlier Nodes
– At earlier nodes, the option value is determined by discounting the expected values at the next time step, weighted by the risk-neutral probabilities:
— c+ = [π × c++ + (1 − π) × c+-] ÷ (1 + r).
— c− = [π × c+- + (1 − π) × c−−] ÷ (1 + r).
– At the root node (initial period), the current option price is determined using the same approach:
— c0 = [π × c+ + (1 − π) × c−] ÷ (1 + r).

A

Key Takeaways
– The two-period binomial model provides a flexible framework for pricing options by breaking down time into multiple steps.
– Constant assumptions for u, d, and r simplify computations and allow the tree to recombine, reducing complexity.
– Risk-neutral valuation is fundamental, ensuring that option prices are consistent with no-arbitrage principles.

67
Q

Dynamic Hedge Ratios in a Binomial Option Pricing Model

1- Overview of Hedge Ratios
– Hedge ratios, represented by “h”, are used to determine the proportion of the underlying asset needed in a replicating portfolio to hedge an option’s payoff at a given node.
– In a binomial model, hedge ratios are recalculated at each node, as they depend on the values of the option and the underlying at that specific point.

2- Hedge Ratio Calculation at Nodes
– The hedge ratio at any node is calculated as the change in the option value divided by the change in the underlying asset price at that node.

For a one-period lattice:
– Formula: h = (c+ − c−) ÷ (S+ − S−).
— Where:
— c+ = Option value at the node where the price goes up.
— c− = Option value at the node where the price goes down.
— S+ = Asset price at the node where the price goes up.
— S− = Asset price at the node where the price goes down.

For a two-period lattice, hedge ratios can differ between nodes:
– At the upper node: h+ = (c++ − c+) ÷ (S++ − S+).
– At the lower node: h− = (c+ − c−−) ÷ (S+ − S−−).

3- Self-Financing and Dynamic Replication
– Self-Financing Portfolio: No additional funds are required to maintain the replicating portfolio at each node. Adjustments to the portfolio are made by reallocating between the underlying asset and borrowing or lending at the risk-free rate.
– Dynamic Replication: The hedge ratio changes dynamically at each node. A planned trading strategy is employed to rebalance the portfolio and replicate the option’s value at all stages.

A

Key Takeaways
– Hedge ratios are not constant and must be recalculated at every node in a binomial model.
– These ratios are critical for constructing a replicating portfolio that is both self-financing and dynamically adjusted.
– The process ensures consistency with the no-arbitrage principle, as the portfolio replicates the option’s payoff in every scenario.

68
Q

Explanation of the Formula Components for 2 periods:

1- Why π is Squared (π²):
– The risk-neutral probability, π, represents the likelihood of an upward price movement in each period under the no-arbitrage assumption.
– Since this is a two-period binomial model, π is multiplied by itself (π²) to account for the compounded probability of two consecutive upward movements (from the initial price S to S++).

2- Discounting for Two Periods (1.03²):
– The call option value is calculated as the present value of the expected payoff.
– Since the option payoff occurs at the end of two periods, it is discounted back to the present by compounding the risk-free rate, r, over two periods. This ensures the value aligns with the no-arbitrage principle.

In summary, π² reflects the compounding of probabilities across two periods, and 1.03² accounts for the two-period time value of money at the risk-free rate.

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69
Q

If a stock does not pay dividends, it will never be optimal to exercise a call option early. The value of the call option will always exceed its exercise value. But for a put option that is deep in the money, it may be optimal to exercise early. The proceeds could be immediately reinvested at the risk-free rate to earn more than the current value of the put option.

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It may be optimal to exercise an American call option early if the underlying stock pays dividends. The stock price will drop by the amount of the dividend right after a dividend is paid, which reduces the value of the call option. If a call is in the money based on the price of the underlying stock before a dividend is paid, there may be value to be captured from early exercise that would be lost if the option could not be exercised until maturity.

70
Q

American-Style Options and Early Exercise

1- General Concept of Early Exercise:
– For American-style options, early exercise before maturity is possible.
– Whether it is optimal to exercise early depends on the type of option and the situation:
— A call option on non-dividend-paying stocks will never be exercised early because its value is always higher when held until maturity.
— A deep-in-the-money put option might be exercised early if the proceeds can be reinvested at the risk-free rate and generate a higher value than the current put option value.

2- Valuing American Put Options Using a Binomial Tree:
– The valuation process must account for the possibility of early exercise at each node:
— At each node, compare the calculated value of the option (based on future expected payoffs) to the exercise value at that node.
— Replace the calculated value with the exercise value if the latter is higher.
— Work backward from the end to the present to find the option value.

3- Early Exercise of Call Options with Dividends:
– For dividend-paying stocks, early exercise of call options might be optimal:
— When a dividend is paid, the stock price drops by the dividend amount, reducing the call option’s value.
— If the call is in the money before the dividend is paid, exercising early may capture the dividend’s value that would otherwise be lost.

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71
Q

Reasons for Early or No Early Exercise of Call and Put Options

1- Why Early Exercise of a Call Option (Without Dividends) Is Never Optimal: – A call option grants the right to buy stock at a strike price. If no dividends are paid, holding the option is always better than exercising early due to:
— Time Value: Holding allows for additional time for the stock price to increase, maximizing potential gains.
— Lost Time Value from Early Exercise: Exercising early forfeits the option’s remaining time value, which is a key component of its worth.

– Example:
Imagine a call option with a strike price of $50 and the stock price currently at $55. Early exercise yields a $5 profit. However, holding the option could lead to a higher stock price (e.g., $60), resulting in a $10 profit. Early exercise limits potential upside.

2- Why Early Exercise of a Put Option Might Be Optimal: – A put option grants the right to sell stock at the strike price. When the stock is “deep in the money” (very low stock price compared to the strike), early exercise can be optimal because:
— Immediate Cash Flow: Selling the stock at the higher strike price immediately generates cash.
— Reinvestment Opportunity: The cash can be reinvested at the risk-free rate, earning interest.
— Holding the put delays this opportunity without adding significant value.

– Example:
Consider a put option with a strike price of $50 and a stock price of $10. Exercising the put allows immediate receipt of $50, which can be reinvested to earn interest. Waiting doesn’t provide any additional benefit.

3- Why Dividends Affect Early Exercise of a Call Option: – Dividends reduce the stock price by the dividend amount when paid, which lowers the value of a call option.
— Capturing the Dividend: If a call option is in the money and a dividend is imminent, early exercise can capture the dividend and offset the anticipated drop in stock price.
— Without early exercise, the stock price decreases after the dividend, reducing the intrinsic value of the call option.

– Example:
A call option with a strike price of $50 has a stock price of $55, and a $2 dividend is about to be paid. Exercising early lets you buy the stock at $50 and capture the $2 dividend. Not exercising early results in a stock price drop to $53, reducing the call option’s value.

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72
Q

[Two-Period Binomial American-Style Put Option Valuation]

1- Overview of the Concept: – The goal is to value an American-style put option using a two-period binomial model. Unlike European options, American options allow early exercise. If exercising early provides greater value than holding the option, early exercise is optimal.

2- Step-by-Step Solution:

– Step 1: Parameters and Initial Setup — The following values are provided: —- u (up factor) = 1.40.
—- d (down factor) = 0.60.
—- S (initial stock price) = 40.
—- r (risk-free rate per period) = 0.03.
—- X (exercise price) = 42.

– Step 2: Compute Stock Prices at Each Node — Calculate the stock prices at each node using the formulas:
—- “S++ = S × u × u” = 40 × 1.40 × 1.40 = 78.40.
—- “S+- = S × u × d” = 40 × 1.40 × 0.60 = 33.60.
—- “S– = S × d × d” = 40 × 0.60 × 0.60 = 14.40.

– Step 3: Compute Option Values at Terminal Nodes — The put option value at expiration is the maximum of the exercise value and zero:
—- “P++ = max(0, X - S++)” = max(0, 42 - 78.40) = 0.
—- “P+- = max(0, X - S+-)” = max(0, 42 - 33.60) = 8.40.
—- “P– = max(0, X - S–)” = max(0, 42 - 14.40) = 27.60.

– Step 4: Compute Risk-Neutral Probability — Formula: “π = (1 + r - d) ÷ (u - d)”.
—- “π = (1 + 0.03 - 0.60) ÷ (1.40 - 0.60)” = 0.5375.

– Step 5: Backward Induction - Node at Time 1 — Compute the option value at each node at time 1:
—- At S+ = 56: “P+ = [π × P++ + (1 - π) × P+-] ÷ (1 + r)”.
—— “P+ = [0.5375 × 0 + (1 - 0.5375) × 8.40] ÷ 1.03” = 3.77.
—- At S- = 24: Calculate both holding and exercise values.
—— Holding value: “P- = [π × P+- + (1 - π) × P–] ÷ (1 + r)”.
—— “P- = [0.5375 × 8.40 + (1 - 0.5375) × 27.60] ÷ 1.03” = 16.78.
—— Exercise value: “X - S-“ = 42 - 24 = 18.
—— Since 18 > 16.78, replace P- with 18.

– Step 6: Backward Induction - Initial Node — Compute the option value at the initial node:
—- Formula: “P = [π × P+ + (1 - π) × P-] ÷ (1 + r)”.
—- “P = [0.5375 × 3.77 + (1 - 0.5375) × 18] ÷ 1.03” = 10.05.

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73
Q

Example: Valuing a Two-Year European Put Option on Interest Rates

1- Overview of the Exercise
This example calculates the value of a two-year European-style put option on a one-year spot interest rate, with a notional principal of 1,000,000 and an exercise rate of 3.25%, using a binomial model. Probability of an up move at each node is 50%

2- Calculation Steps

– Step 1: Determine the payoff at the final nodes (Year 2)
— At node p−−: The interest rate is 2.2593%, which is below the exercise rate of 3.25%. The payoff is calculated as:
“p−− = (Exercise rate − Spot rate at p−−) × Notional amount”
“p−− = (3.25% − 2.2593%) × 1,000,000 = 9,907”.
— At node p++, the rate is above the exercise rate, so “p++ = 0”. Similarly, at node p+−, “p+ = 0”.

– Step 2: Backward induction to find the value at earlier nodes
— At node p− (Year 1, down):
The value is the discounted expected value of the payoffs from the next period:
“p− = [π × p+ + (1 − π) × p−−] ÷ (1 + r)”
Substitute the values:
“p− = [0.5 × 0 + (1 − 0.5) × 9,907] ÷ 1.026034 = 4,828”.

— At node p+ (Year 1, up):
The interest rate (3.9084%) exceeds the exercise rate, so “p+ = 0”.

– Step 3: Calculate the value at the initial node (Year 0)
The value at the initial node is the discounted expected value of the payoffs from Year 1:
“p0 = [π × p+ + (1 − π) × p−] ÷ (1 + r)”
Substitute the values:
“p0 = [0.5 × 0 + (1 − 0.5) × 4,828] ÷ 1.030454 = 2,343”.

3- Key Formula Summary

– Payoff at final nodes:
“Payoff = max(Exercise rate − Spot rate, 0) × Notional amount”.

– Backward induction formula:
“p_node = [π × p_up + (1 − π) × p_down] ÷ (1 + r)”.

– Risk-neutral probability:
“π = (1 + r − d) ÷ (u − d)”.

A

Key Takeaways
– At each step in the binomial model, the put option’s value is derived by considering the expected payoff at future nodes, discounted at the risk-free rate.
– The final value at the root node (2,343) represents the present value of the put option.

74
Q

Multiperiod Model
The multiperiod binomial model allows each time period to get smaller. This results in more ending values, which is a more realistic measure of the real world. It naturally leads to a derivation of the Black-Scholes-Merton valuation model.

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75
Q

Assumptions of the Black-Scholes-Merton (BSM) Model

1- Overview of the Concept
The BSM model is a mathematical framework used to value options. It relies on specific assumptions to ensure the model’s accuracy and applicability in pricing options, particularly European-style options.

2- Assumptions

– Underlying Price Dynamics
— The price of the underlying follows a geometric Brownian motion, leading to a geometric lognormal distribution.
— The continuous percentage change in price is normally distributed.

– Price Behavior
— Prices change continuously with no sudden jumps.

– Liquidity and Market Features
— The underlying asset is liquid, enabling frequent trading.
— Continuous trading is available without transaction costs or taxes.
— Short selling of the underlying is permitted.

– No Arbitrage
— The model assumes no arbitrage opportunities exist in the market.

– Option Characteristics
— Options are European-style, meaning they can only be exercised at maturity.

– Risk-Free Rate and Volatility
— The continuous risk-free interest rate is known and remains constant over the option’s life.
— The volatility of the underlying’s return is also known and constant.

– Dividend Yields
— Yields on the underlying (e.g., dividends) are known and paid continuously.

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76
Q

Black-Scholes-Merton (BSM) Model

1- Overview of the Concept
The Black-Scholes-Merton model is a continuous-time approach used to value European-style options. It calculates option prices using the present value of expected payoffs under a no-arbitrage framework.

2- Formula for Option Pricing

– Call Option Price (c):
— Formula: c = SN(d1) - e^(-rT)XN(d2)

– Put Option Price (p):
— Formula: p = e^(-rT)XN(-d2) - SN(-d1)

– Key Variables (d1 and d2):
— d1 = [ln(S/X) + (r + (σ²/2))T] ÷ (σ√T)
— d2 = d1 - σ√T

3- Explanation of Variables

– S: Price of the underlying asset.
– X: Strike price of the option.
– r: Continuous risk-free interest rate.
– T: Time to expiration in years.
– σ: Volatility of the underlying asset.
– N(x): Cumulative standard normal distribution function, which represents the probability of a value less than x in a standard normal distribution.

4- Insights from the Model

– Risk-Neutral Probabilities:
— N(d2) gives the probability that the call option expires in the money.
— 1 - N(d2) gives the probability that the put option expires in the money.

– Portfolio Replication:
— The BSM model assumes a portfolio of a stock and a zero-coupon bond can replicate the payoff of a call or put option.
— Replicating strategy: nsS + nBB, where ns represents the stock component and nB the bond component.
— For calls: ns = N(d1) > 0, nB = -N(d2) < 0.
— For puts: ns = -N(-d1) < 0, nB = N(-d2) > 0.

– Stock and Bond Components:
— Call options are replicated by leveraging a stock position, while put options are replicated by buying bonds.

5- Applications

– Risk-Neutral Pricing:
The expected payoff is discounted at the risk-free rate, reflecting risk-neutral probabilities.

– Volatility’s Role:
Higher volatility increases the value of both call and put options due to higher uncertainty in outcomes.

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77
Q

Black-Scholes-Merton Model: Pricing Options through Replication

1- Overview of the Concept
The Black-Scholes-Merton (BSM) model determines option prices as the present value of expected payoffs under the no-arbitrage principle. This is achieved by replicating the option using a combination of stocks and bonds.

2- Formula for Call Option Pricing
The expected payoff for a call option is calculated as:
c = SN(d1) - e^(-rT)XN(d2)

3- Explanation of Replicating Strategy

– A replicating portfolio matches the payoff of an option and is created by dynamically managing stock and bond positions.
— Replicating strategy cost: nsS + nBB
— For a call option:
— ns = N(d1), which is positive.
— nB = -N(d2), which is negative.
— For a put option:
— ns = -N(-d1), which is negative.
— nB = N(-d2), which is positive.

– The bond component (B) is calculated as:
B = Xe^(-rT)

4- Hedge Ratio (h)
The hedge ratio (h), equivalent to ns, represents the number of stock units required to hedge the option.

5- Probability Interpretations of N(d2)

– N(d2) represents the probability of a call option expiring in the money.
– 1 - N(d2) represents the probability of a put option expiring in the money.
– These probabilities are risk-neutral and not subjective estimations.

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78
Q

Black-Scholes-Merton Model with Adjustments for Carry Benefits

1- Overview of the Adjusted BSM Model
The BSM model can incorporate carry benefits (e.g., dividends for stock options, foreign interest rates for currency options, or coupon payments for bond options). These carry benefits are represented as a continuous yield, denoted by γ or δ, depending on the context.

2- Adjusted Option Pricing Formulas

– Call option: “c = Se^(-γT)N(d1) - e^(-rT)XN(d2).”
– Put option: “p = e^(-rT)XN(-d2) - Se^(-γT)N(-d1).”

Where:

— d1 = [(ln(Se^(-γT)/X) + (r + (σ^2 ÷ 2))T] ÷ (σ√T)”
— d2 = d1 - σ√T.
— S: Current price of the underlying asset.
— X: Strike price.
— r: Continuous risk-free rate.
— γ or δ: Continuous yield from dividends or carry benefits.
— T: Time to expiration in years.
— σ: Volatility of the underlying asset.
— N(d): Cumulative standard normal distribution function for d.

3- Impact of Carry Benefits on Option Prices

– Carry benefits (γ):
— Decrease the expected future value of the underlying.
— Reduce the value of a call option.
— Increase the value of a put option.

– Mathematical Effect:
— Lower γ reduces d1 and d2, which decreases N(d2) and increases 1 - N(d2).
— Result: Lower probability of a call option expiring in the money and higher probability of a put option expiring in the money.

4- Dividend Yield as Carry Benefit

– When the carry benefit is the continuously compounded dividend yield (δ):
— For call options: ns = e^(-δT)N(d1).
— For put options: ns = -e^(-δT)N(-d1).

– Explanation:
— Dividend yield reduces the number of shares needed for call replication (fewer shares are required to replicate future dividends).
— Dividend yield increases the number of shares that must be sold for put replication.

5- Foreign Exchange Options

– For currency options, the carry benefit is the foreign risk-free rate (γ = rf).
– Call Option Components:
— Foreign exchange component: Se^(-rT)N(d1).
— Bond component: Xe^(-rT)N(d2).

– Explanation:
— Foreign interest rates act as the carry benefit for currencies. Higher rf decreases the value of the domestic currency-denominated call option, as the foreign currency becomes relatively more valuable.

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79
Q

Understanding the Cumulative Normal Distribution

1- Overview of the Cumulative Normal Distribution
The cumulative normal distribution represents the probability of selecting a value less than x from a standard normal distribution. This probability is expressed as N(x), which is the area under the curve to the left of x.

2- Key Symmetry Property
Due to the symmetry of the normal distribution, the relationship between N(x) and its negative counterpart is expressed as:
– “N(x) = 1 - N(-x).”

3- Explanation of the Property
– Symmetry of the normal distribution implies that the probability of selecting a value less than x (N(x)) is equal to one minus the probability of selecting a value less than -x (N(-x)).
– Graphically, N(x) is the area under the curve to the left of x, while N(-x) is the area under the curve to the left of -x.

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80
Q

European Options on Futures

1- Overview of the Black Model for Futures
In 1976, Fisher Black adapted the BSM model to apply to options on futures and forward contracts. The Black model is similar to the BSM model but is tailored for instruments with zero cost of carry, such as equity index futures or forward contracts. Instead of using the spot price (S), the futures price at Time 0, denoted as F0(T), is used.

2- Black Model Pricing Formulas
– Call option: “c = e^(-rT)[F0(T)N(d1) - XN(d2)].”
– Put option: “p = e^(-rT)[XN(-d2) - F0(T)N(-d1)].”

Where:
— d1 = [ln(F0(T)/X) + [r + (σ^2)/2]T] ÷ [σ√T].
— d2 = d1 - σ√T.

3- Components of the Black Model
The Black model separates the price into two components for both call and put options:
– Futures component.
– Bond component.

For each option type:
– Call option:
— Futures component = “F0(T)e^(-rT)N(d1).”
— Bond component = “e^(-rT)XN(d2).”
– Put option:
— Futures component = “F0(T)e^(-rT)N(-d1).”
— Bond component = “e^(-rT)XN(-d2).”

4- Explanation of Option Pricing
– For calls, the value is determined by the futures component minus the bond component.
– For puts, the value is calculated as the bond component minus the futures component.

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Key Takeaways
– The Black model adjusts the BSM approach to suit options on futures and forward contracts by using the futures price F0(T).
– Pricing formulas break down into futures and bond components, reflecting the unique structure of options on futures.

81
Q

Interest Rate Options and the BSM Model

1- Overview of Interest Rate Options
Interest rate options are based on a reference interest rate, such as the six-month LIBOR, and typically use a forward rate agreement (FRA) as the underlying. Payments for these options are settled in arrears. The accrual period for FRAs is typically calculated on a 30/360 basis, while the actual period for options depends on the ACT/ACT convention.

2- Key Inputs for the BSM Model in Interest Rate Options
– FRA(0, tj-1, tm): The fixed rate on an FRA at Time 0 that expires at Time tj-1, with the underlying maturing at time tj-1 + tm.
– RX: The strike rate expressed annually.
– AP: The accrual period in years.

3- Pricing Formulas for Interest Rate Options
– Call option:
“c = (AP)e^(-r(tj-1+tm)) * [FRA(0, tj-1, tm)N(d1) - RXN(d2)].”
– Put option:
“p = (AP)e^(-r(tj-1+tm)) * [RXN(-d2) - FRA(0, tj-1, tm)N(-d1)].”

Where:
— d1 = [ln(FRA(0, tj-1, tm)/RX) + [(σ^2)/2]tj-1] ÷ [σ√tj-1].
— d2 = d1 - σ√tj-1.

4- Differences Between the Black Model and the Interest Rate Option Model
– Adjustments are made for the accrual period (AP).
– The discount period is the maturity date of the FRA, not the option’s expiration.
– The underlying is an interest rate, not a futures price.

5- Interest Rate Caps and Floors
– An interest rate cap consists of a portfolio of interest rate call options.
– An interest rate floor consists of a portfolio of interest rate put options.
– Combining a long cap with a short floor at the same strike rate results in a receive-floating, pay-fixed interest rate swap.
– Combining a short cap with a long floor creates a receive-fixed, pay-floating interest rate swap.

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82
Q

An interest rate cap is simply a portfolio of interest rate call options, and an interest rate floor is a portfolio of interest rate put options. A long cap plus a short floor at the same exercise rate is a receive-floating, pay-fixed interest rate swap. A short cap plus a long floor is a receive-fixed, pay-floating interest rate swap. If the exercise rate is the swap rate, then the prices of the cap and floor must be equal because the value of the swap is zero.

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83
Q

Interest Rate Caps and Floors

1- Overview of Interest Rate Caps and Floors

– Interest Rate Cap:
— Protects against high interest rates.
— Functions as a series of call options on interest rates, providing payments when interest rates exceed the cap’s exercise rate.

– Interest Rate Floor:
— Protects against low interest rates.
— Functions as a series of put options on interest rates, providing payments when interest rates fall below the floor’s exercise rate.

2- Linking Caps, Floors, and Swaps

– Long Cap + Short Floor: Creates a “Receive-Floating, Pay-Fixed Swap.”
— A cap protects against rising rates (receive floating payments), and the short floor offsets benefits from falling rates (pay fixed).

– Short Cap + Long Floor: Creates a “Receive-Fixed, Pay-Floating Swap.”
— A short cap removes protection against rising rates, while the floor provides protection if rates fall (receive fixed payments).

3- Caps, Floors, and the Swap Rate

– Swap Rate:
— The fixed rate at which the value of an interest rate swap is zero at the start of the contract.

– When the Exercise Rate Equals the Swap Rate:
— The price of the cap equals the price of the floor because the cap and floor payments cancel out, leaving a swap with no initial value.

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84
Q

Swaption Valuation

1- Overview of Swaptions
A swaption is an option on a swap, granting the holder the right to enter into a swap with specified terms, including a fixed rate (RX).
– A payer swaption gives the right to enter a pay-fixed, receive-floating swap.
– A receiver swaption gives the right to enter a pay-floating, receive-fixed swap.
The valuation focuses on the fixed swap rate. Payments are advanced set and settled in arrears, with the present value of the annuity denoted as PVA.

2- Swaption Valuation Models

– Payer swaption: “PAY_swaption = (AP)PVA[RFIXN(d1) - RXN(d2)].”
– Receiver swaption: “REC_swaption = (AP)PVA[RXN(-d2) - RFIXN(-d1)].”

Where:
— d1 = [ln(RFIX/RX) + [(σ^2)/2]T] ÷ [σ√T].
— d2 = d1 - σ√T.

3- Key Features and Differences Compared to the Black Model

– The discount factor is embedded in the PVA factor, which discounts all payments back to Time 0.
– The underlying is a fixed rate on a forward interest rate swap.

4- Relationships Between Swaptions and Other Instruments

– A long receiver swaption and a short payer swaption with the same exercise rate equal a receive-fixed, pay-floating forward swap.
– A long callable fixed-rate bond equals a long straight fixed-rate bond and a short receiver swaption.
— The receiver swaption will be exercised if interest rates decrease, aligning with when the bond would be called.

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Key Takeaways

– Swaptions provide optionality for entering into interest rate swaps with flexibility on fixed and floating rates.
– Their valuation depends on the present value of expected payoffs, often split into a swap component and a bond component.
– Relationships between swaptions and other instruments, like bonds and forward swaps, enable hedging and pricing strategies.]

85
Q

A long receiver swaption and a short payer swaption with the same exercise rate equals a receive-fixed, pay-floating forward swap. It will be an at-market forward swap if the receiver and payer swaptions have the same value.

A

A long callable fixed-rate bond is equivalent to a long straight fixed-rate bond and a short receiver swaption. The receiver swaption will be exercised if interest rates decrease, coinciding with when a bond would be called.

86
Q

Receiver and Payer Swaptions

1- Definition of Receiver and Payer Swaptions

– Receiver Swaption:
— Gives the holder the right to receive fixed payments and pay floating in an interest rate swap.

– Payer Swaption:
— Gives the holder the right to pay fixed payments and receive floating in an interest rate swap.

2- Combining a Receiver Swaption and a Payer Swaption

– Long Receiver Swaption + Short Payer Swaption:
— If both have the same exercise rate, their optionality cancels out.
— The result is a forward swap where the holder is locked into receiving fixed payments and paying floating.

– Key Point:
— If the receiver and payer swaptions are of equal value, the forward swap is “at-market,” meaning its fixed rate matches current market conditions, and it has no initial value.

3- Callable Fixed-Rate Bond and Receiver Swaption

– Callable Fixed-Rate Bond:
— A bond that allows the issuer to repay (call) the bond early if interest rates drop to refinance at a lower interest rate.

– Equivalence to a Receiver Swaption:
— Owning a normal fixed-rate bond and selling a receiver swaption is equivalent to a callable bond.
— Why? If interest rates decrease, the receiver swaption gets exercised, mirroring the issuer’s decision to call the bond.

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87
Q

Impact of Interest Rate Changes on Swaptions

1- Payer Swaption:

– Value increases when interest rates rise.
— Why? The swaption allows the holder to pay fixed payments, which become advantageous as floating rates rise (resulting in higher received payments).

– Key Effect:
— Rising interest rates lead to higher floating payments received, increasing the swaption’s value.

2- Receiver Swaption:

– Value decreases when interest rates rise.
— Why? The swaption allows the holder to receive fixed payments, which become less valuable as floating rates rise (resulting in higher payments that could have been received instead).

– Key Effect:
— Rising interest rates result in lower relative value since the holder pays lower floating payments.

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Key Takeaways

– Payer swaption values increase with rising interest rates due to higher floating payments received.
– Receiver swaption values decrease with rising interest rates because fixed payments received become less advantageous.
– Understanding the directional impact of rate changes on swaption values helps eliminate incorrect answer choices in exams.

88
Q

Impact of Interest Rate Changes on Swaptions

1- Payer Swaption: Value Increases When Rates Rise

– A payer swaption gives the holder the right to pay fixed and receive floating in a swap.

– When interest rates rise:
— Floating rates increase, resulting in higher floating payments received.
— Paying fixed becomes advantageous because the fixed payment remains constant while floating payments rise.

– Key Idea: Rising interest rates increase the value of a payer swaption since the larger floating payments make the swap more favorable.

2- Receiver Swaption: Value Decreases When Rates Rise

– A receiver swaption gives the holder the right to receive fixed and pay floating in a swap.

– When interest rates rise:
— Floating rates increase, making paying floating more expensive.
— Receiving fixed becomes less favorable because it offers smaller payments compared to rising floating rates.

– Key Idea: Rising interest rates decrease the value of a receiver swaption since the fixed payments become less attractive in comparison to higher floating rates.

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89
Q

Delta and Its Role in Option Pricing and Hedging
1- Overview of Delta
Delta measures the sensitivity of an option’s price to a change in the underlying asset’s price.
– For stocks owned directly: Delta = 1.0.
– For short sales: Delta = -1.0.
– In the BSM model:
— Call option delta: “Delta_c = e^(-δT)N(d1).”
— Put option delta: “Delta_p = -e^(-δT)N(-d1).”
— Where N(d1) is the cumulative probability from the standard normal distribution.

2- Behavior of Delta
– For calls: Delta lies between 0 and e^(-δT) and approaches 1 as the stock price increases.
– For puts: Delta lies between -e^(-δT) and 0 and approaches 0 as the stock price increases.

3- Delta Hedging
Delta hedging reduces portfolio exposure to changes in the underlying stock.
– The number of hedging units is calculated as:
“NH = -(Portfolio delta ÷ Hedge delta).”
— A negative NH indicates shorting the hedge instrument.
— A positive NH indicates going long on the hedge instrument.

4- Delta Approximation for Option Prices
Changes in call and put prices can be approximated using delta:
– For calls: “ĉ ≈ c + Delta_c(S’ - S).”
– For puts: “p̂ ≈ p + Delta_p(S’ - S).”

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Key Takeaways
– Delta quantifies the price sensitivity of options to changes in the underlying stock price.
– It plays a critical role in delta hedging, which offsets portfolio risks due to underlying stock price movements.
– The formulas provided allow estimation of option price changes for small movements in the stock price.

90
Q

Gamma and Its Role in Option Pricing and Risk
Management

1- Overview of Gamma
Gamma measures the rate of change in delta for a small change in the underlying stock price.
– Gamma for stocks is zero because their delta does not change.
– Gamma for calls and puts is identical for the same underlying and expiration date.
– Formula: “Gamma_c = Gamma_p = [e^(-δT) ÷ (Sσ√T)] n(d1).”
— Where n(d1) is the standard normal probability density function.

2- Key Properties of Gamma
– Gamma is always nonnegative.
– It is highest when the option is near the money and decreases as the option moves in or out of the money.
– Gamma also increases as the option approaches expiration.

3- Gamma in Pricing and Risk Management
– Delta provides a linear approximation of option price changes, but gamma improves this by accounting for non-linear effects.
– Second-order approximations using gamma are calculated as follows:
— For calls: “ĉ ≈ c + Delta_c(S’ - S) + Gamma_c ÷ 2^2.”
— For puts: “p̂ ≈ p + Delta_p(S’ - S) + Gamma_p ÷ 2^2.”
– Gamma risk, or convexity risk, occurs when stock prices make large jumps rather than small continuous movements.

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Key Takeaways
– Gamma measures how quickly delta changes, capturing the curvature in the option price relative to the underlying.
– It plays a crucial role in improving option price forecasts beyond linear approximations.
– Managing gamma is essential for portfolios exposed to sudden changes in the underlying stock price.

91
Q

Theta and Its Role in Option Pricing

1- Overview of Theta
Theta measures the change in an option’s value due to the passage of time.
– It represents time decay, or how the option’s value decreases as it nears expiration.
– Unlike delta and gamma, theta applies to the calendar rather than changes in the underlying.
– Stocks do not have a theta since they do not expire.

2- Key Characteristics of Theta
– Option theta is negative for both call and put options because time decay erodes their value.
– Time decay accelerates as expiration approaches, especially for at-the-money options.
– Observations:
— Call option theta is typically more negative than put theta due to the higher extrinsic value of calls.
— The call option value cannot be smaller than the put value under put-call parity when S = X.

3- Graphical Insights
– The graph shows the downward-sloping value of calls and puts over time.
– The slope represents theta, becoming steeper closer to expiration as time decay increases.

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Key Takeaways
– Theta measures the erosion of an option’s value over time due to expiration.
– The rate of time decay is faster for options that are at-the-money and near expiration.
– Understanding theta is critical for managing option portfolios exposed to time decay.

92
Q

Vega and Its Impact on Option Pricing

1- Overview of Vega
Vega measures the sensitivity of an option’s value to changes in volatility.
– A higher vega implies that the option’s value is more affected by changes in volatility.
– Both calls and puts have positive vega because increased volatility raises the value of both.

2- Key Characteristics of Vega
– Vega is highest for at-the-money options and decreases as the option moves deeper in or out of the money.
– Vega is also more significant for options with longer time to expiration, as there is more uncertainty in the underlying price movement.
– Observations:
— Vega is identical for calls and puts when all other variables are constant, as implied by put-call parity.

3- Graphical Insights
– The graph illustrates the positive relationship between option value and volatility.
– Both call and put curves share the same slope (i.e., vega_c = vega_p).
– The call and put value difference is consistent with put-call parity when S = X.

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Key Takeaways
– Vega represents the effect of volatility changes on option value.
– It is more impactful for at-the-money options with longer expirations.
– Understanding vega is crucial for strategies involving volatility, such as volatility arbitrage.

93
Q

Rho and Its Effect on Option Pricing

1- Overview of Rho
Rho measures the sensitivity of an option’s price to changes in the risk-free interest rate.
– For calls, rho is positive because higher interest rates increase the benefit of deferring payment for the asset.
– For puts, rho is negative because higher interest rates reduce the value of the deferred exercise opportunity.

2- Key Observations About Rho
– Rho has a smaller impact on option pricing compared to delta and vega, except in scenarios where interest rate changes are significant (e.g., interest rate options).
– At r = 0, the call and put values are equal for at-the-money options due to put-call parity.
– The difference between call and put option values widens as the risk-free rate increases.

3- Graphical Insights
– The graph depicts rho’s effect on option pricing:
— Call options exhibit an upward-sloping curve, reflecting positive rho.
— Put options have a downward-sloping curve, reflecting negative rho.
– The slope of the curve illustrates the change in option value for a change in interest rates.

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Key Takeaways
– Rho’s influence is primarily relevant for interest rate-sensitive strategies or when risk-free rates experience significant changes.
– Calls benefit from rising rates, while puts lose value.
– Understanding rho is essential for evaluating the impact of interest rate changes on option portfolios.

94
Q

Implied Volatility

1- Overview of Implied Volatility
Implied volatility reflects the market’s expectations of future price uncertainty and the demand for options. It is derived from current option prices rather than observed directly.

– Historical volatility measures past price fluctuations but may not accurately predict future movements.
– Implied volatility is critical because it incorporates forward-looking market sentiment.

2- Applications and Key Concepts
– Term Structure of Volatility: Implied volatility changes over time, reflecting variations in expected uncertainty at different maturities.
– Volatility Smile or Skew: Describes how implied volatility varies with the option’s exercise price.
– Volatility Surface: A three-dimensional representation showing implied volatility across combinations of exercise prices and time to expiration.

3- Calculating Implied Volatility
– Using the BSM model, implied volatility is calculated when the option price is known and the volatility parameter is the only unknown.
– Options are often quoted in terms of implied volatility rather than price, provided market participants use the same model assumptions.

4- Additional Observations
– Volatility changes over calendar time and reflects the collective investor perception of future risks.
– The VIX index serves as a benchmark measure of implied volatility for the S&P 500 index, representing expected market volatility over the next 30 days.

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Key Takeaways
– Implied volatility provides valuable insights into market expectations and investor sentiment.
– The term structure, volatility smile, and surface help analyze how expectations vary across time, strike prices, and expirations.
– Tools like the BSM model and indices like VIX make implied volatility a practical and widely used measure in the options market.

95
Q

Delta for Options Under the BSM Model
1- Overview of Delta
Delta measures the sensitivity of an option’s price to small changes in the price of the underlying stock.

– For call options (Deltac): Delta is positive and falls between 0 and e^(-δT).
– For put options (Deltap): Delta is negative and lies between -e^(-δT) and 0.

2- Behavior of Delta as Stock Price Changes

– When the stock price increases:
— Deltac approaches e^(-δT).
— N(d1), the cumulative probability, approaches 1.
— Deltap approaches 0.

– When the stock price decreases:
— Deltac approaches 0.
— N(d1) approaches 0.
— Deltap approaches -e^(-δT).

3- Key Formulae for Delta

– Call option delta: “Deltac = e^(-δT)N(d1).”
– Put option delta: “Deltap = -e^(-δT)N(-d1).”

Where:
– N(d1): The cumulative standard normal distribution function at d1.
– δ: The continuous dividend yield.
– T: Time to expiration.

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96
Q

An investor can still be exposed to risk even with a Delta-Gamma hedge position because of Gamma Risk.

A

This occurs if a stock price jumps rather than move continuously. It leaves the position suddenly unhedged

97
Q

Relationship Between the Underlying Stock and the Option

1- First-Order Approximation (Delta)
The first-order approximation assumes a linear relationship between the underlying stock price and the option price. It is used to estimate small changes in the option price relative to changes in the underlying.

– Formula for call options: “c_hat ≈ c + Deltac(S_hat - S).”
– Formula for put options: “p_hat ≈ p + Deltap(S_hat - S).”
– Where:
— c_hat and p_hat: Estimated call and put prices.
— S_hat: New underlying stock price.
— S: Initial underlying stock price.
— Deltac and Deltap: Delta of the call and put options, respectively.

2- Limitations of the Linear Relationship
– This approximation works only for small changes in the underlying stock price.
– For larger changes, the assumption of linearity becomes less accurate.

3- Delta Adjustments and Non-Linearity
– Delta changes continuously as the price of the underlying asset changes.
– Hedging using delta requires constant rebalancing to remain delta-neutral.

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98
Q

Option Risks and Hedging Challenges

1- Delta Risk: Price Sensitivity to Underlying Changes
Delta measures how much an option’s price changes relative to changes in the underlying stock price.

– Key Risk: Sudden and large stock price movements can disrupt hedges.
— Example: A stock jumps from $50 to $70 overnight, changing the delta instantaneously and leaving the hedge unbalanced.

2- Gamma Risk: Delta’s Rate of Change
Gamma reflects how quickly delta changes as the stock price moves.

– Key Risk: Rapid stock price jumps cause significant delta changes, making delta hedging inaccurate.
— Example: Daily hedging for a stock at $50 becomes ineffective if the stock price jumps suddenly to $60 before adjustments.

3- Vega Risk: Sensitivity to Volatility Changes
Vega measures how an option’s price reacts to changes in implied volatility.

– Key Risk: Unexpected spikes in volatility leave the position underhedged.
— Example: Selling options before an earnings announcement leads to losses if implied volatility spikes.

4- Theta Risk: Sensitivity to Time Decay
Theta measures the impact of time decay on an option’s price.

– Key Risk: Changes in market conditions can alter the expected time decay rate.
— Example: Options sold expecting steady decay hold more value if volatility rises unexpectedly.

5- Rho Risk: Sensitivity to Interest Rate Changes
Rho measures the effect of changes in interest rates on an option’s price.

– Key Risk: Unexpected or rapid interest rate changes disrupt the hedge.
— Example: A central bank unexpectedly raises rates, affecting the value of call options due to changes in carrying costs.

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Key Takeaways
– Delta Risk: Stock price jumps make delta hedging ineffective.
– Gamma Risk: Sudden movements lead to significant delta changes, disrupting hedges.
– Vega Risk: Volatility spikes cause large valuation changes in options, leaving positions underhedged.
– Theta Risk: Changes in decay patterns during volatility impact expected option pricing.
– Rho Risk: Unanticipated interest rate shifts affect option valuation and disrupt hedges.

By understanding these risks, traders can better prepare for scenarios where hedging strategies may fail.

99
Q

Understanding the Greeks for Options

1- Delta: Sensitivity to Stock Price Changes
Delta measures how an option’s price reacts to changes in the underlying stock price.

– Importance: Delta is the most critical Greek due to frequent stock price movements that significantly impact option pricing.
– Certainty: Delta is observable because stock prices are readily available, and delta is straightforward to calculate.
– Delta for a Stock:
— Delta = 1 for a long stock position (price moves 1:1).
— Delta = -1 for a short stock position.
– Call vs. Put Dynamics:
— Call Option: Positive delta (0 to +1), as call value increases when stock price rises.
— Put Option: Negative delta (0 to -1), as put value increases when stock price falls.

2- Gamma: Rate of Change in Delta
Gamma measures how quickly delta changes with stock price movements.

– Importance: Critical for managing positions because sudden price jumps can drastically alter delta, requiring frequent adjustments.
– Certainty: Uncertain because gamma depends on delta, which reacts to unpredictable price changes.
– Gamma for a Stock:
— Gamma = 0, as stock delta (1 or -1) does not change regardless of price movement.
– Call vs. Put Dynamics:
— Both calls and puts have positive gamma. At-the-money options have the highest gamma as delta changes most rapidly near the strike price.

3- Theta: Sensitivity to Time Decay
Theta measures how an option’s price decreases as expiration approaches.

– Importance: Significant for options since value decreases with time, especially for out-of-the-money options.
– Certainty: Predictable because time decay happens at a constant rate.
– Theta for a Stock:
— Theta = 0, as stocks do not experience time decay.
– Call vs. Put Dynamics:
— Call and Put Options: Both have negative theta because value decreases over time.
— Near-the-money options decay faster than deep in- or out-of-the-money options.

4- Vega: Sensitivity to Volatility Changes
Vega measures how an option’s price reacts to changes in implied volatility.

– Importance: Critical due to the unpredictable nature of volatility, which can spike and dramatically increase option values.
– Certainty: Uncertain because implied volatility is an estimate and cannot be directly observed.
– Vega for a Stock:
— Vega = 0, as stocks are not directly affected by implied volatility.
– Call vs. Put Dynamics:
— Both calls and puts have positive vega, as higher volatility increases the chance of large price movements, benefiting option holders.
— At-the-money options and those near expiration have the highest vega.

5- Rho: Sensitivity to Interest Rate Changes
Rho measures how an option’s price reacts to changes in interest rates.

– Importance: Less significant than other Greeks since interest rate changes generally have a smaller impact.
– Certainty: Predictable because interest rates are observable and rho can be accurately calculated.
– Rho for a Stock:
— Rho = 0, as stocks are not influenced by interest rates.
– Call vs. Put Dynamics:
— Call Option: Positive rho, as higher rates increase call value (holding cash becomes less favorable).
— Put Option: Negative rho, as higher rates decrease put value (holding cash becomes more favorable).

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Key Takeaways

– Delta: Measures sensitivity to price changes. Most significant due to frequent stock movements.
– Gamma: Tracks the rate of change in delta. High gamma at the money requires constant rebalancing.
– Theta: Quantifies time decay, predictable but critical for managing expiring options.
– Vega: Measures sensitivity to implied volatility. Uncertain but vital due to unpredictable market changes.
– Rho: Reflects sensitivity to interest rates. Less impactful but predictable.

Understanding the Greeks ensures effective option pricing, risk management, and hedging strategies.

100
Q

Replicating a Long Call Option Position

1- Overview of the Concept
– A long call option can be replicated using a portfolio of the underlying stock and borrowing funds. This process ensures that the portfolio mimics the cash flows of the option under no-arbitrage conditions.

2- Steps to Calculate the Borrowing Amount
– Step 1: Identify the optimal hedging ratio (∆).
— In this case, the optimal hedging ratio is 0.717647.

– Step 2: Calculate the present value of the underlying stock in the event of a down move.
— Price of the stock in the down move = $30.60.
— Present value = “30.60 × 0.717647 ÷ 1.04”.
— Result: $21.1154.

– Step 3: Confirm the no-arbitrage approach.
— Funds borrowed are consistent with the net cash flow required for the replicating portfolio.
— Borrowing amount after adjusting = $21.96 (closest match).

3- Explanation of the Replicating Portfolio
– The replicating portfolio involves:
— 1- Buying stock worth “34 × 0.717647 = 24.40”.
— 2- Borrowing $21.96 to finance this purchase.

– Final payoff matches the long call option for both up and down scenarios:
— Up Move: “39.10 × 0.717647 - 21.96 = 6.10”.
— Down Move: “30.60 × 0.717647 - 21.96 = 0”.

A

Key Takeaways
– The amount that must be borrowed is $21.96.
– The replicating portfolio ensures consistency with the call option’s payoff, maintaining no-arbitrage pricing.

101
Q

Impact of Dividends on Option Replication

1- Overview of the Concept
– For a dividend-paying stock, the number of shares required to replicate a call option is adjusted to account for the dividend yield (γ).

2- Adjusted Replication Formula
– Formula: “e^(-γT) × N(d1)”
— e^(-γT): Discount factor based on the dividend yield (γ) and time to maturity (T).
— N(d1): Cumulative probability from the Black-Scholes-Merton model.

3- Explanation of Dividend Impact
– A higher dividend yield (γ) decreases the value of d1.
– This reduces the value of “e^(-γT) × N(d1)”, leading to a lower number of shares required to replicate the option’s performance.

A

Key Takeaways
– If PNT stock pays a dividend, the number of shares required for replication would most likely be lower.
– Dividends reduce the expected future price of the stock, thereby decreasing the hedge ratio used for replication.

102
Q

Understanding Vega and Its Relationship to the Underlying Price

1- Overview of Vega
– Vega measures an option’s sensitivity to changes in the volatility of the underlying asset.
– It represents the change in the option’s price for a 1% change in implied volatility.

2- Behavior of Vega
– Vega is highest when the underlying price is at or near the exercise price (the option is “at the money”).
– Options that are deep in the money or out of the money are relatively less sensitive to changes in volatility, leading to lower vega values.

3- Explanation
– At-the-money options have the greatest uncertainty about whether they will expire in the money, making their value more sensitive to volatility changes.
– For in-the-money or out-of-the-money options, the intrinsic or negligible value reduces sensitivity to volatility.

Understanding Vega and Its Relationship to the Underlying Price

1- Overview of Vega
– Vega measures an option’s sensitivity to changes in the volatility of the underlying asset.
– It represents the change in the option’s price for a 1% change in implied volatility.

2- Behavior of Vega
– Vega is highest when the underlying price is at or near the exercise price (the option is “at the money”).
– Options that are deep in the money or out of the money are relatively less sensitive to changes in volatility, leading to lower vega values.

3- Explanation
– At-the-money options have the greatest uncertainty about whether they will expire in the money, making their value more sensitive to volatility changes.
– For in-the-money or out-of-the-money options, the intrinsic or negligible value reduces sensitivity to volatility.

A

Key Takeaways
– Vega is maximized when the underlying price is close to the exercise price, as the option’s value is most affected by volatility in this range.
– Deep in-the-money or out-of-the-money options exhibit lower vega due to reduced dependence on volatility changes.