Dept Procedures 1 Flashcards

1
Q

1.01 - DEPARTMENT DIRECTIVES

How long is a department order good for?

A

It is a written directive requiring compliance by all members of the department for a period of two years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1.01 - DEPARTMENT DIRECTIVES

Who and How often are department procedures reviewed and revised?

A

The originating division every three years, or as necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1.01 - DEPARTMENT DIRECTIVES

All department members must access and read their department emails weekly, except when?

A

While on approved leave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

A police vehicle shall not be used in a pursuit unless the vehicle is equipped with what?

A

Emergency lights and siren sounding as reasonably necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

Officers engaged in a pursuit have a duty to drive with what?

A

Due regard for the safety of all persons using the highway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

Officers with prisoners or non-law enforcement passengers should not engage in a pursuit unless the offender poses an immediate Life threatening risk to public safety. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

If a field supervisor orders a pursuit to be terminated, the pursuing officers shall do what?

A

Shall audibly acknowledge the directive over the radio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

Driving on the wrong side of a divided roadway is generally prohibited, except in the most grievous circumstances when imminent danger to life exists. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

Can the pursuing vehicle drive on the wrong way on freeways?

A

No, it is strictly prohibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

Due to the extreme hazards and potential risks for serious injury, police vehicles, generally, may not be used to “box in”, “ram,” or “bum” suspect vehicles in any pursuit situation. True or False?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

When can a police vehicle be used to perform a pursuit intervention technique maneuver, commonly known as the PIT maneuver?

A

Shall not under any circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

Can officers continue to trail or follow the suspect after being ordered to terminate the pursuit?

A

Officers shall not. Officers will return to their assigned service area while obeying all traffic laws.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

In order to terminate the pursuit safely before crossing the border, the pursuit should be terminated where?

A

1- Siempre Viva for I-905

2- Camino De La Plaza for I-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

Barricading a roadway must be considered a use of force likely to result in death or serious bodily injury. True or False?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

In a police pursuit report form, the reporting officer shall list up to how many violations for which the suspect driver was arrested or cited for?

A

Five violations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

The supervisor should forward the pursuit report form to his commanding officer for approval and signature within how many days of the incident?

A

Three days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

Barricading a roadway is strictly prohibited unless approved by a field supervisor, field Lieut., or watch commanders office. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

The driver officer’s name and ID number shall be included in the pursuit report form. True or false?

A

False only the ID number is required. Officers’ names shall not be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

The fleet safety Sgt. has how many days to mail the pursuit report form to the California highway patrol?

A

Within 30 days of the pursuit occurrence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

SDPD traffic unit shall conduct the collision investigation of record on all injury, and noninjury traffic collisions resulting from pursuits that occur within the city of San Diego. This includes pursuits initiated by other law enforcement agencies. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1.03 - PURSUIT PROCEDURES

California vehicle code mandates vehicle pursuit training for all sworn employees, how often?

A

ANNUALLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

What Penal Code section authorizes the use of force?

A

835a PC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

What US Supreme Court case acknowledged that the “reasonableness” test in analyzing the use of force is “not capable of precise definition or mechanical application?”

A

Graham v. Connor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

Behaviors that consists of a refusal to comply with verbal command and conveys a physical threat to the officer describes what type of resistance?

A

Active resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

Verbal threats directed at the officers can be considered as assaultive behavior. True or false?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE
Aggressive physical opposition to being physically controlled and conveys a threat of injury to the officer describes what type of behavior?

A

Assaultive behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

What does the force matrix illustrate?

A

The relationship between a subject’s actions and the officer’s response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

The force matrix is broken down into how many levels?

A

FIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

The use of a safety control chair is considered use of force, therefore, it must be reported. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

Is the use of a restraint car seat consider force?

A

Yes, therefore it must be reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

Is pointing a firearm at a person to gain compliance consider a use of force?

A

Yes, and it must be reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

Officers who use a force option shall personally prepare the appropriate reports documenting their use of force. What is the exception to that?

A

If an investigator interviews the officer and his statements are documented in the investigator’s report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

1.04 - USE OF FORCE

In the event SDPD officers are involved in a situation with outside agency, the involved SDPD Officer must document any use of reportable force by personnel of outside agency. True or false?

A

FALSE, the SDPD officer responsible for writing the report shall request documentation from the officers/deputies of the outside agency who deployed force options, describing their use of force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

Which officer loads the shotgun at the beginning of the shift?

A

The officer to whom the shotgun is issued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

Upon conclusion of an incident in which a shotgun round has been chambered, which officer shall unload and reload the shotgun in the currently prescribed manner?

A

The officer to whom the shotgun is issue to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

Which unit issues department handguns?

A

Operational support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

High capacity magazines must be surrendered to the department upon termination of employment with the city. What are the exceptions?

A

A service or medical retirement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

When the firearms training unit is closed, malfunctioning firearms shall be placed where?

A

In they swat armory until the firearms training unit is open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

Who shall schedule training and firearms proficiency shoots?

A

The Range Master

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

Who shall be notified if an officer failed the original shoot and the 4 “re-tests?”

A
  1. The in-service training lieutenant,
  2. Assistant chief of neighborhood policing, and
  3. The officers chain of command.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

Officers who planned any type of firearms training for their units shall receive prior approval of the training program from whom?

A

The Range Master

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

An extended absence is defined as an absence from duty for reasons other than Medical for a period of how long?

A

120 days or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

When can an officer no longer carry a firearm on or off duty?

A

Absent from full duty and have not been qualified in the department proficiency shoot for More than one year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

1.05 - FIREARMS PROCEDURES

Officers returning to full duty from any medical restrictions shall obtain written authorization from which unit to permit their participation in a proficiency shoot?

A

Medical assistance unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

When can OC be used on a person?

A

Active resistance, assaultive behavior, or life-threatening behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

Generally, OC should not be used to disperse a crowd without the approval of the on-scene field supervisor or incident commander. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

In a crowd control situation where OC is being used, it is imperative that officers do what?

A

Respond in a coordinated manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

What is the effectiveness range for Def-Tec Mark - 4 (3 oz. canister)?

A

Three (3) to Twelve (12) feet in Calm still Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

The effectiveness of OC generally lasts how long?

A

20 to 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

The OC is mixed with a liquid carrier and deployed from a gas canister. True or false?

A

False. It’s from a pressurized container

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

Generally, OC should not be sprayed in the subjects face from a distance of less then how many feet?

A

3 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

When a suspect has been OC’d, first aide should be rendered within how long?

A

Within 30 minutes of applying the OC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

Aside from the type of first aide render for a subject who has been OC’d, what else needs to be documented?

A

The time first aide was rendered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

Is a commanding officers approval necessary for an officer to get a new replacement for his OC?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

Who is responsible for quarterly inspection of issued safety equipment (OC)?

A

Commanding officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

1.06 - USE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL AGENT

As required by law, serial numbers and other marks of identification must remain on liquid chemical agent canisters. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

The Taser is an electronic conducted energy device that affects what part of the person?

A

A person’s sensory and motor nervous systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

How many volts of electricity pass between the Taser’s probes affecting a person’s sensory and motor nervous system?

A

1,200 Volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

A subject is to be considered “tasered” when electricity from the Taser, however slight, is delivered into their person via probes or drive stun. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

A full cycle of Taser deployment is how long?

A

Five seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

The international Air Taser model number 34000 is powered by what?

A

9 V battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

The international model X–26 Taser is powered by what?

A

A digital power magazine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

Both Taser models use a yellow and black striped cartridge or a silver cartridge. True or false?

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

what is the effective range for both Taser cartridges?

A

Zero to 21 feet, with the optimal range been 7 to 15 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

When is a drive stun more effective?

A

After deploying the probes onto a subject.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

if the officer is unable to gain and maintain control of the subject after how many cycles before having to consider other force options?

A

Two cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

Can officers make contact with the subject while the Taser is activated?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

Can the Taser be used on a handcuffed subject?

A

Shall not unless the subject displays life – threatening behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

Which part of the body is most effective and should be targeted when available?

A

The entire Back, or LOWER Center mass in the front.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

The spark from a Taser can ignite flammable liquids, vapors, or sensitive explosives. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

Can the Taser ignite standard solids or black gunpowder?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

The Taser will normally immobilize a subject within how long?

A

2 to 3 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

Tasered subjects, whether by probes or drive stun, shall be transported to a contract hospital for medical examination prior to booking or final disposition. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

Can a tasered subject be transported to the hospital by police vehicle?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

When does a tasered subject be required to be transported to the hospital by paramedics?

A

If the subject was tasered more than once.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

Officers shall document the circumstances surrounding the use of Taser, and send a copy of that report to which unit?

A

Operational support administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

What division is responsible for all aspects of Taser training and certification?

A

The training division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

1.08 - CAROTID RESTRAINT

The carotid restraint may be used on subjects who are actively resisting. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

1.08 - CAROTID RESTRAINT

Whenever possible, the carotid restraint should be applied as a two officer technique. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

1.08 - CAROTID RESTRAINT
Absent exigent circumstances, the carotid restraint hold should not be applied more than how many times within a 24 hour period?

A

Two times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

1.08 - CAROTID RESTRAINT

A subject who has been rendered unconscious through the use of carotid restraint Shall be transported to a contract hospital prior to booking. True or false?

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

1.08 - CAROTID RESTRAINT

Any subject who has been rendered unconscious by means of a carotid restraint shall be transported by two officers or by paramedics. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

1.09 - FLYING ARMED

Who require officers to attend a two hour training course prior to being allowed to fly armed?

A

Federal aviation administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

1.08 - CAROTID RESTRAINT

Officers shall keep a subject who has been rendered unconscious under constant observation for at least how long?

A

Two hours, or until final disposition of the subject after medical clearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

category-I complaint covers what type of complaints?

A
  1. Arrest,
  2. criminal conduct,
  3. discrimination,
  4. force,
  5. slur.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

1.09 - FLYING ARMED

The officer who is flying armed must notify a responsible representative of the airline at least how long in advance of departure time?

A

At least one hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

category-II complaints covers what?

A

Service, courtesy, procedure, conduct, or other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

An investigation will not be started until Internal Affairs assigns what?

A

A case number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

The “inquiry only” box on the CCF form will only be checked by whom?

A

The investigating supervisor’s commanding officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

When a citizen calls Communications expressing concerns regarding the actions of an officer or the service delivered by the Department, Communications personnel will format what type of call?

A

Will format the call as a Citizen Complaint. A field supervisor will make contact with the citizen and determine if an explanation or clarification of a policy will resolve the citizen’s concerns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

If a signed letter is not returned to Internal Affairs, the CCF will be filed chronologically in the internal affairs office as hold pending and will be destroyed after how many years?

A

After five years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

A signed letter will not be required for internal investigations or for Citizen complaints that include an allegation of criminal conduct. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

Depending on the nature of the allegations, internal investigations may be conducted by the subject members command or by the internal affairs unit. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

Category two investigations shall be completed within how many calendar days?

A

60 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

If an allegation is not clear and cannot be clarified, and there is insufficient information to conduct an investigation, it will be filed in Internal Affairs in the miscellaneous file for how long?

A

FIVE years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

Category one complaints shall be completed within how many days?

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

If interviewees do not wish to be tape-recorded, the handwritten notes of the interview must be included with the completed investigation. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

1.10 - CITIZEN COMPLAINTS

If the responding supervisor can satisfy the citizen’s concerns as an “Inquiry Only”, the supervisor will do what?

A

complete a CCF form and write a memorandum to his CO routed through the chain-of-command. The memorandum will include sufficient detail to document the citizen’s concern(s) and resolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

Subpoenas issued by criminal defense attorneys shall be handled in the same manner as subpoenas issued by the prosecution. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

Is a telegraphic or faxed copy of a subpoena for witness in a criminal proceeding is as effectual as the original subpoena?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

The service of a civil subpoena to a member of the San Diego Police Department must include what?

A

a $ $275.00 witness fee deposit check, pursuant to Government Code sections 68096.01 (non-sworn) and 68097.2 (sworn).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

Members who are sick, or for any other reasons, cannot appear in court on the day of the trial are responsible for contacting which unit?

A

The court liaison unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

After attending court or a deposition appearance, the member will complete what form to turn in to what Department?

A

Cost Recovery Form must be received by Fiscal Management within 5 working days of scheduled appearance, continuation or call-off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

Can members receive overtime for pretrial interview, and if so, how long?

A

Yes, and up to 30 minutes of overtime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

As part of the out of County criminal subpoena requirement, the place of the trial must be within how many miles of the officers place of residence?

A

150 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

What is the only limitation to the civil subpoena service?

A

The witness must be a resident within the state of California at the time of service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

Will out of County DMV subpoena be honored by the department?

A

Will not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

A supervisor subpoena to testify about department policy and procedures must send a copy of the subpoena to whom?

A

Police legal advisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

An answer must be filed in court on a civil rights action in federal court within how many days?

A

20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

An answer must be filed in courts within how many days if it is an action brought in state court?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

Members of the department are required to accept personal service of summons on themselves in civil cases related to the performance of their duties. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

Who shall receive service of summons directed to any members of the department in civil actions related to the performance of their duties?

A

Internal Affairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

1.11 - COURT PROCEDURES & SUBPOENA

Are personnel required to accept nonjob related civil summons or assist with the service?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

In emergency situations, permission for use of pastel or undercover vehicles may be obtained from whom?

A

Watch Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

Officers wishing to use area command vehicles for special events must obtain permission from whom?

A

A supervisor from that division prior to taking the vehicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

Who shall periodically conduct inspections to assure compliance with the department procedures in regards to vehicle operations?

A

Commanding Officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

What is a conventional spare tire?

A

A tire that is identical to the other four tires mounted on the vehicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

Speed rated tires or pursuit tires are rated for what speed?

A

120 MPH, or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

Any police vehicle, which has been jump started, should be driven to a police repair facility for examination by a service technician. True or false?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

Should an officer become involved in a police equipment accident, what is his or her first duty?

A

Notify the radio dispatcher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

If involved in a police vehicle collision, the officer involved must fill out an employee vehicle accidents/industrial incident damage report form (RM-1551) within how many hours of the collision?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

The “on scene” supervisor investigating the collision must fill out a supervisors vehicle accident/industrial incident investigation reports form (RM – 1555) within how many hours of the incident?

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES

Department vehicles displaying what color placard may park in spaces designated as headquarters pool?

A

Dark blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

1.13 - EMERGENCY VEHICLE OPERATION

How many units are allowed to drive code 3 in a 1088 cover now request?

A

Only two, unless a supervisor specifically authorizes additional units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

1.13 - EMERGENCY VEHICLE OPERATION

The effect of 21056 CVC is to establish that emergency vehicle operators are not protected when their unreasonable or negligent acts of driving imperil others. True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

1.13 - EMERGENCY VEHICLE OPERATION

All sworn supervisors have the responsibility to do what during code 3 vehicle operation, particularly in pursuits, when safety risks or lack of urgency warranted?

A

Terminate the pursuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

Officers involved in a vehicle accident must fill out form RM1555 and the sergeant must fill out form RM1551. These two forms should be forwarded to the fleet safety Sgt. within how many hours of the collision?

A

48 hours of the collision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

An accident that occurred because of misjudgment of clearance, or failure to drive defensively describes what category of accident?

A

Category ONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

An accident that occurred because the employee was negligent and/or violated city or department rules, policies and procedures, or violated any section of the CVC describes which category accident?

A

Category TWO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

An accident that occurred because the employee was under the influence of alcohol and/or illegal drugs to any degree, or who flagrantly, willfully, or deliberately disregarded safety describes what category?

A

Category THREE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

Who determines the category of accident?

A

The fleet safety Sgt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

If the employee disagrees with the initial finding, he/she shall submit a written appeal to the designated traffic division lieutenant within how many days?

A

15 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

The traffic division lieutenant will respond to the employee’s appeal within how many days?

A

Within 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

Who makes the final determination on whether an accident was preventable or non-preventable, the category of the accident and whether or not it was properly reported?

A

Accident review committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

if the accident involves a civilian employee, who will determine whether it was preventable, non-preventable, and what type of category?

A

The fleet safety Sgt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

1.14 - POLICE EQUIPMENT ACCIDENT

Disciplinary guidelines; any employee required to attend training class as a result of disciplinary action must complete the class within how many days from the date the employee was notified of the accident results?

A

Within 60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

1.15 - COFINDENTIALITY OF SECURITY PROCEDURES

Department policies and procedures and general staffing levels are considered security procedures. True or false?

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

1.15 - COFINDENTIALITY OF SECURITY PROCEDURES

Government code section 6254 (F) authorizes what?

A

Keep department security procedures confidential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

1.16 - TAKE HOME VEHICLES

The department authorizes how many types of take-home vehicle use and what are they?

A

Four types:

  1. Administrative call back
  2. Emergency call back
  3. Investigative call back
  4. Maintenance use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

1.16 - TAKE HOME VEHICLES

If a member of the department is suspected of having driven a department vehicle while under the influence, what shall be conducted incidental to an arrest?

A

Implied consent chemical testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

1.17 - DEPT. CORRESPONDENCE

What is a written correspondence designed for both intern – and intra-– departmental communications?

A

Memorandum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

1.17 - DEPT. CORRESPONDENCE

What is a written communication of an informal nature not requiring compliance?

A

Department announcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

1.17 - DEPT. CORRESPONDENCE

Who can make recommendations for department announcements?

A

Any member of the department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

1.18 - PAYROLL PROECEDURES

Bereavement leave can be taken up to how many days and must be taken how long after the death?

A

Up to FIVE days and must be taken within TEN calendar days after the death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

1.18 - PAYROLL PROECEDURES

What is the limit for bereavement leave?

A

One eligible death per fiscal year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

1.20 - OVERTIME COMPENSATION

An officer’s permanent work shift hours may be adjusted with at least how many hour notice without the necessity of paying premium overtime?

A

At least 72 hour notice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

1.20 - OVERTIME COMPENSATION

Overtime is not allowed while on leave of absence unless for court appearances. True or false?

A

TRUE

148
Q

1.20 - OVERTIME COMPENSATION

Is overtime allowed for an employee who is on military leave?

A

No overtime will be allowed.

149
Q

1.20 - OVERTIME COMPENSATION

Overtime authorization request form are to be completed by all personnel requesting overtime and submitted within how many days for approval?

A

Within three calendar days of the overtime worked.

150
Q

1.22 - PETTY CASH FUND

Who is responsible to whom for any shortage or overage in the petty cash fund?

A

The chief of police is responsible to the mayor.

151
Q

1.22 - PETTY CASH FUND

For purposes of petty cash reimbursement, “supervisor” refers to whom?

A
  1. Capt. and above
  2. Civilian commanding officer and above
  3. Lieut. only when there is no captain and a direct chain of command
152
Q

1.23 – EQUIPMENT ACCOUNTABILITY

What is included in high control items?

A

Weapons and items which are relatively high in monetary value.

153
Q

1.23 – EQUIPMENT ACCOUNTABILITY

Can personnel retain their department issued badges when they retire?

A

Yes, under certain circumstances.

154
Q

1.24 – CITY COUNCIL

Members of the department communicating with city council members must notify whom of the nature and content of the communication?

A

The commanding officer,

or the chiefs office administrative sergeant

155
Q

1.24 – CITY COUNCIL

When can recommendations for policy or change in policy be discussed with a city Council member or their staff?

A

Under no circumstances.

156
Q

1.25 – INSPECTION & AUDIT PROTOCOL

Which office establishes minimum inspection standards for investigation, patrol, and administrative divisions?

A

Office of neighborhood policing

157
Q

1.25 – INSPECTION & AUDIT PROTOCOL

How often are operations manual updated and when?

A

Every 12 months, due on August 31st.

158
Q

1.26 – ACCESS/RELEASE OF CRIMINAL RECORDS

A statewide system, which includes, but is not limited to, state criminal history, DMV records, missing persons, stolen vehicle, and stolen property files; Is what type of system?

A

California law enforcement telecommunications system (CLETS)

159
Q

1.26 – ACCESS/RELEASE OF CRIMINAL RECORDS

which unit is authorized to release crime reports to victims?

A

Domestic Violence Units can release it to DV victims

160
Q

1.26– ACCESS/RELEASE OF CRIMINAL RECORDS

To whom may arrest reports be released?

A
  1. The individual who is the subject of the arrest.

2. Any other member of the public, if the date of the arrest was within the past 60-day period.

161
Q

1.26 – ACCESS/RELEASE OF CRIMINAL RECORDS

The prevention, detection, and control of crime; the identification, location, and apprehension of criminals; the protection of secured facilities such as headquarters and area stations, or as required or permitted by statute is the definition of what?

A

Law Enforcement Purposes

162
Q

1.28 – TELETYPE MESSAGES

Will telephone requests for teletypes be accepted by records division/teletype?

A

Will not, except in emergencies. These requests must be followed up in writing and forwarded to Teletype by the end of the shift.

163
Q

1.28 – TELETYPE MESSAGES

Records division/teletype keeps a copy of all incoming and outgoing teletype messages for how long?

A

TWO YEARS

164
Q

1.30 – MEDIA RELATIONS

Who should be designated to respond to media inquiries and to conduct any media briefings?

A

The ranking department member most acquainted with the facts of the crime.

165
Q

1.30 – MEDIA RELATIONS

Command personnel may respond to criticism of their particular command or of the activities of members of their command, except when?

A

If there’s an active internal affairs investigation or other litigation

166
Q

1.30 – MEDIA RELATIONS

Whose responsibility to disseminate information and available news releases to authorize news media regarding all major incidents?

A

Watch Commander’s office

167
Q

1.30 – MEDIA RELATIONS

Who is responsible for all news releases involving fatal collisions?

A

The commanding officer of traffic division, or his designee.

168
Q

1.30 – MEDIA RELATIONS

California government code 6254 (F) mandates that local law enforcement agencies make public what information regards to crime reports?

A
  1. Time and date of report
  2. Time, date, & location of the crime.
  3. Name, age, and current address of victim.
169
Q

1.31 – PRESS ID CARDS

Media identification cards will be issued for a period of how long?

A

Two years or until the card is revoked by the chief of police, Or the relationship of the holder of the news organization that requested issuance of the card is terminated.

170
Q

1.31 – PRESS ID CARDS

The chief of police reserves the right to deny a media ID card to any person who has been convicted of a felony within how many years?

A

Within the past 10 years

171
Q

1.31 – PRESS ID CARDS

what color vehicle ID placard will permit the media to gain access through outer police and/or fire perimeter lines?

A

Orange placards

172
Q

1.31 – PRESS ID CARDS

What color placards are issued to TV and radio stations to permit them to park in the yellow zone, white zone, time zone, or at parking meters while engaged in life broadcasting?

A

Green placards

173
Q

1.31 – PRESS ID CARDS

Can a media ID card be revoked if the holder refuses to obey an order given by a peace officer at an incident under control of the police or fire department?

A

YES

174
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

There are how many levels of police reserves as defined by POST?

A

THREE

175
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Which level has full police powers while on duty; may work alone?

A

Level one

176
Q

1.32 - DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Which level has limited police powers while on duty; nonenforcement, technical support services?

A

Level III

177
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Which level has full police powers while on duty, but must work with regular officer supervision?

A

Level II

178
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Retired senior volunteer patrol applicant must be how old?

A

50 or older

179
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Volunteers will generally be required to work a minimum of how many hours a month?

A

12 hours a month

180
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Reserve officers are required to work a minimum of how many hours a month?

A

20 hours monthly

181
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Can reserve officers be utilized to augment sworn personnel staffing within the full range of patrol or traffic enforcement duties, in lieu of a full-time sworn police officer?

A

NO

182
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Are we reserve officers authorized to carry a concealed firearm?

A

Yes, if they maintain a minimum 240 hours of department service per year.

183
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Are reserve officers required to carry their badge and/or ID card off duty?

A

No, unless they are carrying a concealed firearm that has been authorized.

184
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Are volunteers eligible for workers comp benefits in the event of a work-related injury?

A

YES

185
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Is there a formal evaluation or discipline of volunteers within the department?

A

No

186
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS

Who has the final decision as to retention of any volunteer?

A

The Lieutenant of training and volunteer services.

187
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Precludes handcuffing, arrest, or detention in any form and forbids US authorities from entering the residence, automobiles, or other property of the protected persons is known as what?

A

Personal invioliability

188
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Which category of diplomats enjoy the highest degree of immunity?

A

Diplomatic agents

189
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Do family members of diplomatic agents enjoy the same immunity as diplomatic agents?

A

YES

190
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Family members of diplomatic agents are defined as who?

A
  1. Spouses
  2. children until under 21, or
  3. they are full-time students at an institution of higher learning until the age of 23.
191
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Do administrative and technical staff of diplomatic agents enjoy the same immunity as they are?

A

YES

192
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Diplomatic agents family members who are US nationals or legal permanent residents; do they enjoy diplomatic immunity?

A

No

193
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Do consular officers have the same status as diplomats?

A

No they don’t

194
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

What is the function of diplomatic agents at embassies in capitals?

A

Providing communication between two countries.

195
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Who are honorary consuls?

A

They are US citizens or permanent resident aliens who perform consular services on a part-time basis.

196
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

How many types of identification cards are there and what are they?

A
  1. Diplomatic – blue border
  2. Official – green border
  3. Consular – red border
197
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Who shall maintain a current manual from the US Department of State outlining the rights, immunities, and responsibilities of those asserting diplomatic immunity?

A

The watch commander’s office

198
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

upon contact, who will decide whether a “mandatory notification” statement will be read to the foreig national or a suggested notification system will be read?

A

The watch commander’s office

199
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Which unit is the liaison to the United States Department of State for nonemergency issues of diplomatic immunity and criminal investigations?

A

Criminal intelligence unit (CIU)

200
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

When a foreign national is arrested and booked, he must be advised of his rights to have his consulate notified within how many hours?

A

Two hours

201
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Can parking and moving traffic citations be issued without regard to the status of individuals or vehicles?

A

YES

202
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY

Is the signature on the moving traffic citation required for those who excerpt diplomatic immunity?

A

NO

203
Q

1.34 – SEIZED ASSET VEHICLE POOL

Vehicles and other tangible property are equitably shared with state and local agencies where the intent is to place them into official law-enforcement use for a period of how long?

A

Two years

204
Q

1.34 – SEIZED ASSET VEHICLE POOL (07/18/2014)

The fair market value of the vehicle to be seized must be greater than how much?

A

$5,000

205
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS (11/12/2014)

A donation designated at donor request for a particular City department, location, or purpose is called what type of donation?

A

RESTRICTED DONATION

206
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS (11/12/2014)

Only who can accept real property donations to the city?

A

City Council

207
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS

What kind of donation require review process prior to formal acceptance?

A
  1. $5000 for more In initial city expenditure.
  2. $5000 or more in annual maintenance.
  3. Donations that materially affect or change any aspect of city operations.
208
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS (05/17/2013)

Unconventional munitions used during high-risk situations describe what type of munitions?

A

Specialty munitions

209
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS (05/17/2013)

Who can use specialty munitions?

A

SWAT officers

210
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS (05/17/2013)

What do specialty munitions include?

A
  1. Chemical agents
  2. Diversionary devices
  3. Extended range impact munitions
  4. Frangible slugs
  5. Pepper ball
  6. Sting ball munitions
211
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS

Can specialty munitions be used on an active or passive resistive subject reasonably believed to possess or have immediate access to a deadly weapon?

A

Yes

212
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS

Patrol sergeants may request the use of all specialty munitions and may authorize the use of extended range impact weapons and pepper balls. True or false?

A

TRUE

213
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS

An individual who has been struck by a specialty round shall be examined by paramedics, excluding the pepper ball munitions, unless an unintended injury occurred. True or false?

A

TRUE

214
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS

SWAT incident reports shall be retained by the SWAT unit for a minimum of how long?

A

Two years

215
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE

What prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in state and local government services, programs, and employment?

A

Title II of the American disability act

216
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE

Which two agencies are currently contract with the department to supply qualified interpreters for translations in sign language?

A
  1. Deaf community services (DCS) of San Diego.

2. Network interpreting services (NIS).

217
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE

A certified bilingual in American sign language interpreter is someone who has passed what test?

A
  1. National Association of the deaf (NAD), and/or

2. Registry of interpreters for the deaf (RID)

218
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE

Someone who is certified bilingual in American sign language alone is enough to be used by the department to interpret for the deaf?

A

False, unless the person is also retained by either DCS or NIS.

219
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE

Certified bilingual in sign Language Department members should only be used in emergencies and for basic information translations only?

A

TRUE

220
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE

All written questions and responses between officers and individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing must be treated as what?

A

Evidence and handled accordingly.

221
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE

What symbol or letter represents emergency for the deaf and blind community, And where should it be drawn?

A

“X” across the person’s back.

222
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

What is a 40 mm ammunition?

A

It is a sponge baton cartridge.

223
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

What are 40 mm rounds classified as?

A

Destructive devices

224
Q

1.38 - EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

Officers generally should not fire either extended range impact weapons from a distance of less than how far?

A

Less than 10 feet.

225
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

Which is the critical factor in determining the extent of any injury caused by either projectile; shot placement or deployment range?

A

Shot placement

226
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

Target area from any distance should be where?

A

Lower abdominal region and below.

227
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON (8/15/2014)

In a two-person unit, at the beginning of the shift, who shall ensure the beanbag shotgun is unloaded, safety on, hammer down on an empty chamber, and empty magazine tube?

A

The DRIVER

228
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

At the conclusion of an incident in which a beanbag shotgun round was chambered, who shall unload and reload the beanbag shotgun in the prescribed manner?

A

The officer who chambered the round.

229
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

In the event a person is struck by an ERIW projectile, the arresting officer shall ensure the subject is taken to a medical facility for treatment prior to being booked. True or false?

A

TRUE

230
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

The ERIW should be reported the same as the use of a firearm. True or False?

A

FALSE

231
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

The accidental discharge of an ERIW shall be treated the same as a firearm. True or False?

A

TRUE

232
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON

In all incidents where and ERIW has been fired, the officers’ report should include what?

A
  1. Distance from suspect when fired
    2 Point of aim/point of impact
  2. Injuries or property damage
233
Q

1.10 – CITIZENS’ COMPLAINTS

Internal affairs unit will consider what type of complaints for mediation?

A

All category II

234
Q

1.10 – CITIZENS’ COMPLAINTS

Can members be afforded overtime for mediation if it occurred outside of the members working hours?

A

Yes

235
Q

1.10 – CITIZENS’ COMPLAINTS

Resolution to mediation will be categorized as what?

A
  1. Agreements;
  2. Non-agreements; or,
  3. Partial agreement.
236
Q

1.10 – CITIZENS’ COMPLAINTS

Mediation files will be maintained in internal affairs unit for a period of how long?

A

Two years

237
Q

1.40 – GRANTS PROCEDURES

The vast majority of grants are from what agencies?

A

States and federal government agencies, with some from private foundations and corporations.

238
Q

1.40 – GRANTS PROCEDURES

Where are most grant advisers located?

A

Sacramento or Washington DC.

239
Q

1.40 – GRANTS PROCEDURES

Who is the primary person responsible for locating, reviewing, and preparing summaries of potential grants for review and approval?

A

Grants manager

240
Q

1.40 – GRANTS PROCEDURES

The chief of police is NOT authorized to enter into any grant agreements on behalf of the city. True or False?

A

TRUE

241
Q

1.40 – GRANTS PROCEDURES (12/14/2012)

Only which City employees authorized to enter into and sign a grant?

A

The mayor or his designee.

242
Q

1.40 – GRANTS PROCEDURES

Who is responsible for the day to day grant operations?

A

Grant Coordinator

243
Q

1.40 – GRANTS PROCEDURES (12/14/2012)

Both federal and state granting agencies require award recipients to submit what reports?

A

Financial and program reports

244
Q

1.41 – RIFLE & PISTIOL CALIBER

What is the department approved carbine rifle?

A

Ruger PC-9, 9mm carbine with the “ghost ring” sites.

245
Q

1.41 – RIFLE & PISTIOL CALIBER

How are the Ruger PC-9 9mm carbines carried in Marked vehicles?

A

They shall be secured in the vehicle’s dual gun mounts and shall not be stored or transported in the trunk.

246
Q

1.41 – RIFLE & PISTIOL CALIBER

Is the personal carbine included in the five gun limit that officers are restricted to for personally owned weapons?

A

No

247
Q

1.41 – RIFLE & PISTIOL CALIBER

AR 15 rifles with gas piston systems are authorized. True or false?

A

False, direct impingement operating system only.

248
Q

1.42 – DEPT. PROCUREMENT CARD

What is the purpose of the procurement card (P-Card) program?

A

It is intended to provide an alternative and efficient means for making necessary department purchases utilizing a Visa card.

249
Q

1.42 – DEPT. PROCUREMENT CARD (11/07/2014)

The City’s procurement card program is administered through which department?

A

Office of the City Comptroller

250
Q

1.42 – DEPT. PROCUREMENT CARD (11/07/2014)

Who issues the visa procurement cards and provide day-to-day program support?

A

US Bank

251
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

Upon whose approval may risk management personnel be permitted to access the shooting scene to access information necessary to fulfill their responsibility?

A

Homicide Unit supervisor

252
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

If an officer discharges a firearm on-duty, but not directed any person, and did not result in death or injury, who will conduct the investigation and what type of report will be filed?

A
  1. A Field supervisor

2. Officer involved shooting report and a shooting incident report

253
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

When an officer is involved in the shooting, the officer should be isolated as soon as possible. True or False?

A

TRUE

254
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

The officer involved in a shooting incident shall not discuss the situation at the scene with anyone other than home?

A
  1. First arriving supervisor
  2. Homicide investigators
  3. Internal affairs investigators
  4. Legal representative
255
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

All inquiries concerning the involved officer’s action at a shooting scene are subject to what?

A

Police officers Bill of Rights

256
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

Only which personnel will conduct an in-depth interview with the involved shooting officer?

A
  1. Homicide

2. Internal affairs investigators

257
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

Any department member who is fired upon, whether wounded or not, shall have what type of report filed, and by whom?

A

Supervisor’s injury/assault investigation report (RM1564) completed by a field sergeant in charge of the incident.

258
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

An incident involving the discharge of an extended range impact weapon is generally exempt from the investigation and reporting requirements outlined in this procedure, except in cases resulting in death. True or False?

A

TRUE

259
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

When or at what point will the shooting review board review a shooting incident investigation?

A

After criminal and administrative investigations has been concluded and any disciplinary actions have already been determined.

260
Q

1.43 – OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING

What is the purpose of the shooting review board?

A

To determine if the tactics employed were appropriate, and to discover and advise the chief of police if any related training or equipment is needed.

261
Q

1.45 – DEPARTMENT COMPUTERS

Users may access the Internet for city business purposes only; the Internet may not be used for personal purposes. True or False?

A

TRUE

262
Q

1.45 – DEPARTMENT COMPUTERS

All email messages sent over the Department computer via personal email addresses are the property of the department. True or False?

A

TRUE

263
Q

1.45 – DEPARTMENT COMPUTERS

What is usually the time period for the automatic password-protected screensaver?

A

15 minutes

264
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

What is a Long-Range Acoustical Devise (LRAD)?

A

It is a type of loud speaker system that inmates a focused and directional beam of sound.

265
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

What is the purpose of the LRAD?

A
  1. From a low mild range to address the public.

2. A high intensity high-pitched sound designed to deter or move subjects from an area.

266
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

How many types of models are there for LRAD?

A
  1. Model 100X is a small portable device, capable of admitting 137 decibels at 765 yards
  2. Model 500 is designed to be tripod or vehicle mounted and can admit 148 dB at a range over a mile.
267
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

How many decibels is the threshold of physical pain for the human ears?

A

130 dB

268
Q

1.46 - LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

What dB causes permanent ear damage?

A

160 dB

269
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

What are the four primary law enforcement uses for the LRAD?

A
  1. Uses as a PA to issue evacuation orders
  2. Communicate w/subjects during a critical incident
  3. Give directions to a crowd in noisy environment
  4. Crowd control
270
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

Both LRD’s have a volume control with a graph that indicates intensity by color. What are the three colors?

A
  1. Red is the most intense volume
  2. Yellow is intermediate
  3. Green is a lower sound output
271
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

The LRAD-100 shall not be operated in the red zone if subjects are closer than how many yards?

A

15 yards

272
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

The LRAD-500X shall not be operated in the red zone if subjects are closer then how many yards?

A

83 yards

273
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

Is the use of LRAD to move a disruptive crowd consider a use of force?

A

Yes, and it shall be documented.

274
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE

Where is the mobile field force coordinator located?

A

SWAT Unit

275
Q

1.47 - LIMITED ENGLISH SPEAKERS (1/24/14)

Listening to a communication in one language and orally converting it to another language while retaining the same meaning is called.

A

ENTERPRETING

276
Q

1.47 - LIMITED ENGLISH SPEAKERS (1/24/14)

The replacement of written text from one language into an equivalent written text in another language (target language).

A

TRANSLATION

277
Q

1.47 - LIMITED ENGLISH SPEAKERS (1/24/14)

What Division maintain a listing of all Department Qualified Bilingual Members.

A

HUMAN RESOURCES

278
Q

1.47 - LIMITED ENGLISH SPEAKERS (1/24/14)

Department members can use family members, neighbors, friends, volunteers, bystanders or children to interpret for a LEP person.

A

SHOULD NOT unless exigent circumstances exist or a more reliable interpreter is not available.

279
Q

1.47 - LIMITED ENGLISH SPEAKERS (1/24/14)

Can a Qualified Bilingual Civilian Interpreter be used in a custodial interrogation

A

YES

280
Q

1.07 - USE OF TASERS

How are Tasered subjects who are also suspected of being under the influence of any drug shall be transported and to where?

A

To a contract hospital by Two officers with the passenger officer continually monitoring the subject’s respiration, skin tone, and level of consciousness.

281
Q

1.12 - OPERATION OF POLICE VEHICLES
The TIU Sgt and the Fleet Safety Sgt shall be notified immediately any time one of the following types of collisions occurs involving an officer or civilian PD employee/volunteer, while driving a City vehicle/equipment, or vehicle/equipment utilized by an officer, civilian employee/volunteer that is not City property, but is used in the performance of the officer’s or civilian employee/volunteer’s duties:

A
  1. Fatality or serious injury to the officer, civilian employee, volunteer or citizen;
  2. Probable felony prosecution; and
  3. A pursuit resulting in a serious injury or fatality (the officer does not have to be involved in the collision, or be the person injured or deceased).
282
Q

1.16 - TAKE HOME VEHICLES

Department members should refrain from operating a Department vehicle after having consumed alcoholic beverages. True or False

A

TRUE

283
Q

1.16 - TAKE HOME VEHICLES

Department take-home vehicles are to be left at a police facility during vacations or other periods of leave in excess of how many days?

A

SEVEN calendar days

284
Q

1.16 - TAKE HOME VEHICLES

If the involved member is suspected of having consumed alcohol, the member shall submit to what other tests?

A

Preliminary Alcohol Screening (PAS) Test and any other blood and/or breath testing procedures deemed necessary.

285
Q

1.20 - OVERTIME COMPENSATION

An officer’s schedule may be adjusted up to how many hours prior to the beginning of his/her shift to correspond to a court appearance, eliminating the need for overtime pay.

A

TWO hours

286
Q

1.20 - OVERTIME COMPENSATION
When an officer is directed to telephone a specific court or agency at a designated time during non-duty hours for the purpose of a telephonic hearing, and he does not have to place the call from a designated location, he shall receive how much time for premium pay?

A

A thirty-minute minimum of compensation for each such instance.

287
Q

1.23 – EQUIPMENT ACCOUNTABILITY

Under certain circumstances, sworn personnel may retain or purchase their Department-issued service weapon when they retire. Who are Eligible personnel?

A

Those receiving a service retirement or a disability retirement.

288
Q

1.23 – EQUIPMENT ACCOUNTABILITY

Personnel who are restricted at the time of their retirement from carrying a concealed weapon are not eligible to retain or purchase their Department-issued service weapon. True or False?

A

TRUE

289
Q

1.26 – ACCESS/RELEASE OF CRIMINAL RECORDS

A local agency shall furnish local criminal history information to persons authorized by California Penal Code section 13300. These include, but are not limited to:

A
  1. Peace officers;
  2. DA’s and prosecuting City Attorneys;
  3. Probation and parole officers; and,
  4. The subject of the criminal history/authorized representative/person authorized with power of attorney.
290
Q
  1. 26 – ACCESS/RELEASE OF CRIMINAL RECORDS
    (5) The front page of each crime report may be furnished in response to California Public Records Act requests, subject to what?
A

The restrictions in Penal Code section 841.5, and except in cases where the victim is a minor or where the victim is one specified in 6254(f)(2) of the California Government Code.

291
Q

1.26 – ACCESS/RELEASE OF CRIMINAL RECORDS

When a criminal history printout from the computer is provided to an outside agency, it shall be recorded where?

A

In the “Criminal History Records” logs.

292
Q

1.27 PETITION TO SEAL RECORDS (8/2/13)

What Penal Code provides a person who has been arrested or detained for felony or misdemeanor offenses, and is determined to be factually innocent, may petition for the sealing and destruction of the record of that arrest?

A

Penal Code Section 851.8

293
Q

1.27 PETITION TO SEAL RECORDS (8/2/13)

If the petition is granted, Records will seal the arrest record removing the report from CRMS and arrest information from the ARJIS and linking databases. The sealed record will be held for how long from the date of arrest and then destroyed?

A

THREE years

294
Q

1.27 PETITION TO SEAL RECORDS (8/2/13)
According to Penal Code section 851.8 (b), if there is no response to the petition within how many days, the petition shall be deemed to be denied?

A

Within 60 days

295
Q

1.28 CANCELLING TELETYPE MESSAGES (5/9/2014)

Cancellation of local or in-state wants for persons will be made through what Department?

A

The San Diego Sheriff’s Department.

296
Q

1.28 CANCELLING TELETYPE MESSAGES (5/9/2014)

Cancellation of other than local or in-state wants for persons will be directed to where?

A

Records Unit/Teletype so that a “locate” can be sent to the originating agency.

297
Q

1.28 CANCELLING TELETYPE MESSAGES (5/9/2014)

Incoming Teletype Messages:
Records Unit/Teletype routes all copies of direct and emergency messages to whom?

A

The Watch Commander, who will forward the information to the concerned officer or units.

298
Q

1.30 PRESS RELEASE AND MEDIA RELATIONS (8/1/12)
Statements of Department policy, official positions of the Department, official responses to criticism of the Department, comments critical of another department, agency, institution, or public official, or statements pertaining to pending or ongoing litigation involving the Department shall be made only by whom?

A

Chief of Police or an individual designated by the Chief of Police.

299
Q

1.30 PRESS RELEASE AND MEDIA RELATIONS (8/1/12)

The Watch Commander’s Office will email pertinent information and news releases to where?

A

Communications Division, area commands, and Traffic Division.

300
Q

1.30 PRESS RELEASE AND MEDIA RELATIONS (8/1/12)

Per California Vehicle Code §20012, the identity of drivers involved in vehicular collisions is protected from release, except when?

A

Except to parties to the collision or those who
have a material interest in the collision, such as parents or guardians of juveniles involved in collisions or insurance carriers of the involved parties.

301
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS (11/01/2013)

The San Diego Police Department only accepts what level of reserve officers?

A

Level I Reserve Officers

302
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS (11/01/2013)

Cadets - a volunteer program for citizens between what ages?

A

Ages of 16 and 21

303
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS (11/01/2013)

Reserve Officers are required to complete how many 160-hour phases of field training?

A

FOUR phases at a minimum of four area commands for a total of 640 hours.

304
Q

1.32 – DEPT. VOLUNTEER PROGRAMS (11/01/2013)

Are Reserve Officers subject to be called to active duty when an urgent or emergency situation requires additional personnel on short notice?

A

YES

305
Q

1.33 – DIPLOMATIC IMMUNITY (04/12/2013)

Consular employees perform administrative and technical support services for the consular post. Do they have “personal inviolability” immunity?

A

No, only “official acts” immunity, and they have immunity from the obligation to provide evidence as witnesses.

306
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS (11/12/2014)

Prior to soliciting large businesses, major community organizations, or recognized major donors, members shall submit a memorandum requesting approval to

A

Administrative Services Division Manager, via their chain of command

307
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS (11/12/2014)

Administrative Services Division’s Grant Management staff will log all donor solicitations. True or False?

A

TRUE

308
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS (11/12/2014)

Donations may be received in the form of cash, financial securities, real or personal property, and may be restricted or unrestricted. True or False?

A

TRUE

309
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS (11/12/2014)

Donations of cash/real goods with an aggregate value of $99,999 or less may be accepted by whom?

A

The Chief of Police

310
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS (11/12/2014)

Donations of cash/real goods with an aggregate value of $100,000 to $249,999 may be accepted by whom?

A

The Mayor

311
Q

1.35 – ACCEPTING DONATIONS (11/12/2014)

Donations of cash/real goods with an aggregate value of $250,000 or greater should be accepted by whom?

A

City Council

312
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS (05/17/2013)

Canisters that are designed to emit loud noise, bright light, and rubber projectiles are called what?

A

Sting Ball munitions

313
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS (05/17/2013)

An individual who has been struck by a specialty round shall be examined by paramedics, excluding what munitions, unless an unintended injury occurred?

A

The pepper ball

314
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS (05/17/2013)

Whenever a person has been struck by specialty munitions, the officer who deployed the munitions shall notify whom?

A

a SWAT supervisor, or field supervisor in the

case of 40mm, beanbag, or pepper ball.

315
Q

1.36 – USE OF SPECIALTY MUNITIONS (05/17/2013)

Who shall review the use of specialty munitions as soon as practical following each incident or operation to determine if the munitions functioned properly and were used in accordance with Department Procedure?

A

The SWAT Commanding Officer

316
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE (05/03/13)

Certified Bilingual in American Sign Language by the City of San Diego - individuals who have varying levels of proficiency in sign language and are recognized by the Americans Disabilities Act. True or False

A

FALSE

317
Q

1.37 – COMMUNICATE WITH DEAF PEOPLE (05/03/13)

Interviews prior to arresting an individual who is deaf or hard-of hearing: If written communication is ineffective and a Department certified ASL officer is available to translate, whether the translation is for a victim or suspect, they shall be utilized and a report shall be written. True or False?

A

TRUE

318
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON (8/15/2014)

All distances for ERIW systems shall be measured from where?

A

The muzzle end of the weapon’s barrel.

319
Q

1.38 – EXTENDED RANGE IMPACT WEAPON (8/15/2014)

Beanbag shotguns shall be carried unloaded OR loaded until time of deployment - safety on, hammer down on an empty chamber with four rounds in a buttstock mounted sleeve?

A

UNLOADED

320
Q

1.40 – GRANTS PROCEDURES (12/14/2012)

To deliberately reduce the amount of federal, state, or local funds appropriated to an existing program or activity because a grant has also been awarded for the same purposes.

A

SUPPLANTING

321
Q

1.41 – RIFLE & PISTIOL CALIBER (04/11/2014)

Only those officers who have successfully completed the “Rifle Caliber Carbine Basic” class or the SWAT equivalent and pass the annual qualification class are authorized to carry the carbine. True or False?

A

TRUE

322
Q

1.42 – DEPT. PROCUREMENT CARD (11/07/2014)

An individual responsible for the final step of the Department’s payment process,

A

Billing Official

323
Q

1.42 – DEPT. PROCUREMENT CARD (11/07/2014)

The Billing Official is usually the point of contact to liaison with Procurement Card Program administrators. Can he also be a Cardholder or Approver?

A

No, cannot be a Cardholder or Approver.

324
Q

1.42 – DEPT. PROCUREMENT CARD (11/07/2014)

When necessary, the P-Cardholder may be required to provide personal information for identification purposes to a merchant when using the P-Card. True or False

A

FALSE, should never give personal information to a merchant

325
Q

1.43 - OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING (09/05/2014)
Officers who discharge a firearm on-duty, except at a target range, or discharge a firearm off-duty causing potential or actual injury to a person or property damage shall immediately notify whom and how?

A

The Watch Commander directly or via Communications Division.

326
Q

1.45 – DEPARTMENT COMPUTERS (11/27/2012)

Access to criminal history information is always based
on what?

A

The need to know/right to know.

327
Q

1.46 – LONG-RANGE ACOUSTICAL DEVICE (05/30/2013)

Authority to use the LRAD must be approved by whom?

A

The Incident Commander, SWAT Commanding Officer, or their designee.

328
Q

1.48 - WIRELESS MODEMS (04/11/2014)

Generally, wireless modems are issued to specific positions, not personnel, based upon work assignment and the business need for a modem. True or False?

A

TRUE

329
Q

1.48 - WIRELESS MODEMS (04/11/2014)

What positions/ranks are automatically issued wireless modems:

A

a. All Captain positions

b. All Lieutenant positions

330
Q

1.48 - WIRELESS MODEMS (04/11/2014)

Modems not used for a period of how long will be deactivated?

A

Three (3) consecutive months

331
Q

1.49 - AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS (07/08/2015)

The use of body cameras reduces the requirement to provide thorough written documentation. True or False?

A

FALSE

332
Q

1.49 - AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS (07/08/2015)

The Body Worn Camera system operates on rechargeable battery power for up how long?

A

Up to TWELVE hours of continuous buffering and records up to TEN hours of continuous video and audio
media.

333
Q

1.49 - AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS (07/08/2015)

While on Buffering Mode or Standby Mode, the BWC is on but has not been activated to record both sound and video. The camera will do what?

A

Continuously record only video in 30 second loops.

334
Q

1.49 - AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS (07/08/2015)

What happens when the Event button on the BWC is activated?

A

The camera is recording both audio and video.

335
Q

1.49 - AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS (07/08/2015)

What is Metadata ?

A

Case numbers, Incident numbers, and other descriptors used to identify digital evidence. There are 12 searchable fields into which this metadata can be entered.

336
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officer safety and the safety of the public shall be the primary considerations when contacting citizens or conducting vehicle stops, not the ability to record an event. True or False?

A

TRUE

337
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

BWC does not apply to overtime assignments, out of class assignments and special details (11-86).

A

FALSE - All officers issued a BWC are required to wear and use their BWC while working in any uniformed assignment.

338
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Inoperable BWC equipment shall be tagged and returned to where immediately.

A

Operational Support

339
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Visual damage to the BWC shall be logged on where ?

A

The officer’s MCT (Mobile Computer Terminal) as a journal entry.

340
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officers are required to initiate or cease recording an event, situation or circumstance solely at the demand of a citizen. True or False?

A

FALSE -

341
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officers and supervisors involved in the investigation of a complaint against a member of the police department must inform complainants and complaint witnesses they are being recorded. T or F ?

A

TRUE

342
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Can officers stop recording in the event mode when the arrestee is cooperative and safely secured inside a law enforcement facility.

A

YES - If an arrestee becomes uncooperative, or if there is some evidentiary purpose, officers should resume recording in the event mode.

343
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Private citizens do not have a reasonable expectation of privacy when talking with police officers during the scope of an officer’s official duties, even when the contact is in a private residence. True or False?

A

TRUE

344
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Are officers required to give notice they are recording?

A

NO - However, if asked, officers shall advise citizens they are being recorded.

345
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Are Officers required to initiate or cease recording an event, situation or circumstance solely at the demand of a citizen?

A

NO

346
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officers and supervisors involved in the investigation of a complaint against a member of the police department have to inform complainants and complaint witnesses they are being recorded?

A

YES - must inform complainants and complaint witnesses they are being recorded.

347
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officers are strongly encouraged to inform citizens they are being recorded in an effort to de-escalate potential conflicts. True or False?

A

TRUE

348
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officers equipped with BWC will record all prisoner or passenger transports, regardless of the gender of the prisoner or passenger. The entire transport will be recorded except when it’s a two-officer unit. T or F?

A

FALSE - Two officer units will be required to record with at least one BWC during transports.

349
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officers equipped with a body worn camera may transport a female passenger and or prisoner without the required second officer if the body worn camera is recording during the entire transport. True or False?

A

TRUE

350
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

The only exception to recording a suspect interview would be if the suspect declines to make a statement due to the body worn camera being activated. T or F?

A

TRUE

351
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

BWCs shall not be used during Sex Crimes or Child Abuse investigations to include statements of victims, witnesses, and interactions with parents of victims. True or False?

A

TRUE

352
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officers shall regularly record while inside jail facilities. True or False?

A

FALSE - Shall not

353
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

When entering Metadata, absent an incident
number, what else can be used?

A

A citation number or field interview number may be used.

354
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Traffic Citations – “BWC Recording” shall be recorded where?

A

In the case umber box near the top of all citations.

355
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Non evidentiary recordings, such as inadvertent
recordings, recordings initiated for training, or recordings with no associated report shall be documented where?

A

On the officer’s journal.

356
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

By placing the BWC into a slot on the EDS and ensure it is properly seated at the end of their shift, the data is considered impounded at this point. True or False?

A

TRUE

357
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Officers shall write their reports based solely on what they viewed from the BWC recording. True or False?

A

FALSE - Officers shall write their reports to what they remember and notate any discrepancies from what the recording shows.

358
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Supervisors have discretion to show BWC recordings
to a complainant when it relates to his or her complaint, to assist in clarifying the complaint, resolving the complaint, or having the complaint withdrawn. T or F ?

A

TRUE

359
Q

1.49 AXON BODY WORN CAMERAS 7/08/15

Sergeants who have personnel assigned to them who wear a BWC are required to conduct routine inspections. True or False?

A

FALSE - Monthly Inspection

360
Q

1.50 - FACIAL RECOGNITION (06/19/2015)

After completing the request for facial recognition field identification results, the image used for comparison shall be kept on the device used to capture the image. True or False?

A

False - Shall be manually deleted from the device used to capture the image

361
Q

1.50 - FACIAL RECOGNITION (06/19/2015)

Dissemination of facial images and other personal identifying information obtained through the use of a facial recognition field identification tool is prohibited, except when?

A
  1. Public Safety
  2. Warrant
  3. Missing Person
362
Q

1.51 - LICENSE PLATE RECOGNITION (05/22/2015)

Reasonable suspicion or probable cause is not required for the operation of LPR equipment. True or False?

A

TRUE

363
Q

1.51 - LICENSE PLATE RECOGNITION (05/22/2015)

Any alert provided by an LPR system is to be considered informational and advisory in nature and does not require further verification before action. True or False?

A

FALSE - requires further verification before action

364
Q

1.51 - LICENSE PLATE RECOGNITION (05/22/2015)

LPR systems have the capacity to collect and store data relevant and necessary for authorized law enforcement purpose. SDPD does not operate its own LPR server.

A

TRUE - All data collected by San Diego Police LPR

vehicles is transferred to ARJIS LPR servers.

365
Q

1.51 - LICENSE PLATE RECOGNITION (05/22/2015)

As established by the ARJIS Chief’s and Sheriff Management Committee, LPR data will be retained for how long from the time the LPR record was captured by the LPR device?

A

One year.