Denture Pros Exam Flashcards

1
Q

what is kennedy class 1?

A

bilateral free end saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is kennedy class 2?

A

unilateral free end saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is kennedy class 3?

A

bound saddle not crossing midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is kennedy class 4?

A

bound saddle crossing midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why is reciprocation required?

A

to prevent tooth movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what should a clasp be when seated?

A

passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what dimensions are required for a mid palatal bar?

A

7-12mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what materials should be used for a gingivally approaching clasp?

A

cobalt chrome or stainless steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

give a benefit of an I bar

A

puts less stress on the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

name other types of clasp deisgn

A

ring clasp
occlusally approaching clasp
3 arm clasp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what crown height is required for a dental bar?

A

9mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the bar width and gingival/incisal clearance for a dental bar?

A

5mm bar width
2mm clearance from gingival margin
2mm clearance from incisal tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

give a benefit of a dental bar design over a plate design?

A

more hygenic than plate design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when should a dental bar not be used?

A

when there’s spacing between teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a distinctive feature of the lingual bar? what do these do?

A

cummer arms - they provide indirect retention to prevent a posterior uplift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what sulcus depth is required for a lingual bar? how much clearance from the gingival margin should the lingual bar have?

A

7mm sulcus depth required
lingual bar should be 3.5mm away from gingival margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is the use of a lingual bar advantageous?

A

when the pt has anterior spacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what undercut depth would Co/Cr clasps be used for?

A

0.25mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what undercut depth would SS clasps be used for?

A

0.5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what undercut depth would gold clasps be used for?

A

0.75mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what clasp material is the least and most flexible?

A

Co/Cr is least flexible
Gold is most flexible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how is undercut gauge used and what does it determine?

A

undercut gauge drawn up against the tooth
where the gauge touches the tooth is the point where the clasp should terminate (where terminal 1/3rd of clasp engages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how does finishing point of SS clasp compare to finishing point of Co/Cr?

A

SS clasp finishes further down tooth further away from the survey line - as more flexible and engages a deeper undecrut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

name 3 types of articulator

A
  1. plane line
  2. average value
  3. semi adjustable w/ facebow - has measurements written on it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what incisal angle and condyle width is average value set to?

A

incisal angle of 10 degrees
average condyle width = 25mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does a facebow record?

A

to record the relationship between the maxilla and TMJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

list 4 advantages of injection moulding over dough packing

A
  1. no flash in injection moulding which minimises the risk of an open bite when fitting the dentures
  2. no trial pack
  3. less handling of material required
  4. less pressure when injecting material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

list 5 disadvantages of injection moulding over dough packing

A
  1. need to add sprue
  2. extra training required
  3. expensive
  4. difficult to de-flask - as you have the sprue to contend with as well
  5. technique sensitive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how does flash thickness affect denture thickness?

A

inc flash thickness increases denture thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how does an open bite present on the articulator?

A

pin will not touch the table

31
Q

what method increases the risk of an open bite/pin not touching the table? why?

A

dough packing - due to inc flash thickness

32
Q

what 2 errors can cause contraction porosity?

A

not enough pressure on the mould
not enough material to fill the mould

33
Q

what 2 things can cause gaseous porosity?

A

wrong curing cycle
heating too rapidly - causing the MMA monomer to boil

34
Q

where in denture does gaseous porosity occur?

A

in the thickest part of the denture

35
Q

what can occur if alginate impression is left in the disinfectant solution for too long?

A

Imbibition - absorption of one substance by another

36
Q

what can occur when the alginate impression is not kept in a sealed bag with damp napkins?

A

Syneresis - alginate expulses liquid causing shrinking of impression

37
Q

where is the hamular notch found?

A

behind the tuberosities of the maxilla

38
Q

where is the raphe found?

A

running down midline of the palate

39
Q

what does the willis gauge record?

A

the OVD

40
Q

what does the Fox’s Guide Plane measure?

A

the level of the occlusal plane

41
Q

when are flat cusped teeth used?

A

when the patient’s bite is non reproduceable

42
Q

what material is used for soft linings?

A

molloplast

43
Q

is it better to have a thinner or thicker soft lining? why?

A

better to have thinner soft lining
a thicker soft lining would mean less acrylic on the denture which would weaken the denture

44
Q

when is a denture rebase required? (2)

A

when the denture is loose fitting
when teeth are worn or loose

45
Q

what should be done to the denture prior to taking a wash impression?

A

remove undercuts

46
Q

when is a closed bite technique used?

A

to avoid occlusal errors such as an open bite

47
Q

how is closed bite technique used?

A

wash placed over fitting surface of denture and placed into mouth - pt bits down

48
Q

what indicates that the mould is full during injection moulding?

A

resin exits the mould as the clamp handle is turned and piston pushes resin into the mould

49
Q

what type of clasps is undercut gauge used to select material for?

A

occlusally approaching

50
Q

what term is used to describe the change in length of a specimen?

A

ductility - a materials ability to be stretched/pulled

51
Q

what term is used to describe an elongated specimen?

A

tensile specimen

52
Q

what force is required to flatten a specimen?

A

compressive force

53
Q

what term is used to describe the hardness of a material?

A

modulus = stiffness of material

54
Q

what force is applied to a mid beam to fracture it?

A

3 point flexural strength

55
Q

label the medial pterygoid

A

runs vertically

56
Q

label the buccinator

A

underneath masseter - runs from mouth posterior to medial pterygoid

57
Q

label the condyle

A

posterior to coronoid

58
Q

label the obicularis oris

A

around mouth

59
Q

label the nasalis

A

over nose

60
Q

label the masseter

A

superficial to buccinator
exits zygoma and inserts into angle of mandible

61
Q

label the zygomaticus major

A

runs from zygoma down to orbicularis oris

62
Q

label the temporalis

A

flat on lateral of skull - inserts down into zygoma

63
Q

label the coronoid process

A

anterior to condyle

64
Q

label the mental nerve

A

runs down onto chin

65
Q

what is dental gypsum used for?

A

impression plaster, dental plaster and dental stone - study casts

66
Q

list 3 non elastic impression materials

A

impression plaster
impression compound
zinc oxide eugenol

cannot record undercuts so only use in edentulous areas

67
Q

what is alginate used and not used for?

A

used for - study models, removable partial dentures, for temporary crown/bridges, creation of special trays, mouth guards, bleaching trays

not used for crown and bridge definitive restorations as bad detail

68
Q

name 4 non-aqueous elastomeric impression materials (hydrophobic)

A

polysulfides - good for big undercuts (inlays, crowns, bridges)
polyethers - avoid in big undercuts (crowns, bridges, partial dentures and implants)
condensation silicones
addition silicones

69
Q

what is zinc oxide eugenol impression material used for?

A

secondary impressions for complete dentures

70
Q

what is alginate used for?

A

primary impressions for dentures
opposing arch impressions for crowns/bridge models

71
Q

what are polysulphides used for?

A

complete dentures - long working time required

72
Q

what are polyether used for?

A

final impressions for crowns, bridges, partial dentures and implants
avoid in deep undercuts and bridges

73
Q

what is addition and condensation silicone used for?

A

crowns, bridges, partial dentures and implants

74
Q

name 2 aqueous elastomeric impression materials (hydrophillic)

A

alginate and agar