Dentistry NEW (120) Flashcards

1
Q

FOG - 1
The role of the dental prosthesis except:
A) restore the masticatory ability
B) restore the voice projection caused by tooth loss
C) provide proper support for the lips
D) to provide the ability for the patient to nail-biting
E) provide proper face height

A

ANSWER D) to provide the ability for the patient to nail-biting
EXPLANATION
The role of the dental prosthesis is the aesthetic, functional, voice projection rehabilitation of the teeth. The nail biting is better to avoid due to hygienic reasons and the overload of the masticatory system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

FOG - 2
Not true for medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw:
A) more common on the lower jaw
B) more common in the molar region
C) occurs more often if the patient has diabetes mellitus
D) more common if the bisphosphonate is dosed per os rather than intravenous
E) Not always, but most of the cases are developed after an oral surgery procedure.

A

D) more common if the bisphosphonate is dosed per os rather than intravenous
EXPLANATION
All the answers are correct, except D. The use of intravenous bisphosphonates is more likely to cause MRONJ than per os bisphosphonates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

FOG - 3The aesthetic requirements of dental prostheses:
A) appropriate for the sex and age of the patient
B) appropriate for the race
C) fulfill the expectations of the patient
D) fit to the remaining teeth in color and shape
E) all the answers are correct

A

ANSWER E) all the answers are correct
EXPLANATIONAll the listed points are important aesthetic requirements when making dental prostheses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

FOG - 4Most often causes allergy among the dental materials:
A) amalgam
B) precious metal alloys
C) non-precious metal alloys
D) glass ionomer cement
E) titanium

A

ANSWER C) non-precious metal alloys
EXPLANATION
The frequency of nickel allergy can be as high as 10% in some populations. Therefore in the case of non-precious metal alloys, it is becoming very important to strive to be nickel-free.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

FOG - 5The most informative imaging test in the case of temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
A) MRI
B) CBCT examination of cheekbones and jaws
C) orthopantomogram
D) lateral skull CT
E) skull CT

A

A) MRI

EXPLANATIONThe MRI is a gold standard imaging test when joints are tested. The articular disc of the TMJ has a key role in the joint’s function. The articular disc is a fibrous connective tissue that is not visible on the X-ray. The MRI is imaging of the soft tissue and is capable of testing the TMJ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FOG - 6Medication groups induce medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw:
1) aminobisphosphonate
2) denosumab
3) VEGF antibody
4) non-aminobisphosphonate

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

E) All of the answers are correct
EXPLANATIONAll of the listed medication groups can induce medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

FOG - 7You notice an unconscious person, lying on the street. During airway management the …… has to be removed from the mouth:
1) porcelain fused to metal removable partial denture cemented on the teeth
2) complete denture in the lower jaw
3) screw-retained implant crown
4) clasp retained removable partial denture

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

C) Answers 2 and 4 are correctEXPLANATIONThe removable dentures need to be removed because they can cause airway obstruction if the patient is unconscious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FOG - 8What kind of dental prosthesis can be made to replace the lower missing first molar?
1) solo crown on a solo implant
2) porcelain fused to metal fixed partial denture retained on the two neighbor teeth (“bridge”)
3) porcelain fused to zirconium-dioxide fixed partial denture retained on the two neighbor teeth (“bridge”)
4) complete denture

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correctEXPLANATIONIn the case of single tooth loss the best choice is the implant replacement if it is possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FOG - 9Major symptom(s) of the temporomandibular disorder (TMD):
1) facial pain related to jaw movements
2) limitation of mouth opening
3) clicking, popping, or grinding when moving the jaw
4) excessive tooth wear

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATIONBased on the definition the major symptoms of TMD are: pain, clicking, popping or grinding, and limitation in the mouth opening related to the jaw movements. The tooth wear is only a minor symptom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FOG - 10Aetiology of the TMD can be:
1) stress
2) occlusal discrepancy related to inadequate prosthetic or orthodontic treatment
3) macro- or micro-trauma in the temporomandibular joints
4) inadequate root canal treatment

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATIONMicro-trauma is when continuous blows are transmitted to the temporomandibular joints due to insufficient contact between the upper and lower teeth. This effect is increased by grinding the teeth because of stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FOG-11-14Match the following.
A) the temporomandibular joints
B) the masticatory muscles
C) both of them
D) none of them

FOG - 11 - It can be the origin of the pain due to temporomandibular disorder (TMD)
FOG - 12 - If this is affected, the limited active mouth opening can be passively open an additional 3-5 mm.
FOG - 13 - Their dysfunction can be the result of occlusal problem/discrepancy
FOG - 14 - The limited active mouth opening can not be further opened passively

A

ANSWER
FOG - 11 - It can be the origin of the pain due to temporomandibular disorder (TMD) - C)
FOG - 12 - If this is affected, the limited active mouth opening can be passively open an additional 3-5 mm. - B)
FOG - 13 - Their dysfunction can be the result of occlusal problem/discrepancy - C)
FOG - 14 - The limited active mouth opening can not be further opened passively - A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FOG-15-18Match the following.
A) removable denture
B) fixed partial denture
C) both of them
D) none of them
FOG - 15 - It does not occupy greater space than the natural teeth
FOG - 16 - In this case, the hygienic aspect is more favorable, easier to keep it clean
FOG - 17 - It can be fabricated with the digital labor technique
FOG - 18 - The patients prefer this type of dental prosthesis

A

FOG - 15 - It does not occupy greater space than the natural teeth - B)
FOG - 16 - In this case, the hygienic aspect is more favorable, easier to keep it clean - A)
FOG - 17 - It can be fabricated with the digital labor technique - C)
FOG - 18 - The patients prefer this type of dental prosthesis - B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FOG - 19The MRONJ is a multifactorial disease and the most important etiology is the local radiotherapy in the affected area.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
EXPLANATIONLocal and systematic factors also play roles in MRONJ. Osteonecrosis of the jaw caused by radiotherapy is called osteoradionecrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FOG - 20If possible, we try to replace a single tooth loss, because the neighbor tooth can be migrated as a consequence of tooth loss.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

ANSWER
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
EXPLANATIONThe replacement of tooth loss has several local, systematic, and financial contraindications. If there are no contraindications we try to replace the tooth loss. The tooth loss has several negative consequences, one of the most important is tooth migration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FOG - 21The patients prefer the removable dentures because it is easier to keep them clean than the fox partial dentures.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself

EXPLANATIONThe cleaning of removable dentures is easier than fixed partial dentures, but most patients prefer fixed dentures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FOG - 22
The incidence ratio of temporomandibular disorder (TMD) between men and women is 1:2 because parafunctional activities (tooth clenching, grinding) are important etiological factors in TMD.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
EXPLANATIONTMD is twice as common among women and parafunctional activities are one of the most important etiological factors, but the two statements are not related to each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FOG - 23Treatment of a permanent tooth’s crown fracture with small-size pulp exposition, if not too much time passed since the accident:
A) pulpectomy
B) pulpotomy
C) indirect pulp capping
D) direct pulp capping
E) Root canal treatment in one session

A

ANSWERD) direct pulp cappingEXPLANATIONIn these circumstances, it can be claimed that the pulp tissue is not infected and the vitality can be preserved with medicational pulp capping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

FOG - 24Type of luxatio partialis dentis permanentis:
A) extrusion
B) lateral luxation
C) subluxation
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

A

D) all of the aboveEXPLANATIONAll three listed injuries are the type of partial luxation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FOG - 25Which form of primary tooth injury most often causes malformation in permanent teeth?
A) crown fracture
B) root fracture
C) intrusion
D) partial luxation
E) total luxation

A

C) intrusion
EXPLANATION
The intrusion (tooth press inside the alveolus) can cause most often mechanical injury in the homologous germ of the permanent tooth in the case of primary tooth accidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

FOG - 26 Which contagious childhood disease can be a complication of orchitis and consecutive sterility?
A) chicken-pox
B) scarlatina
C) morbilli
D) epidemic parotitis
E) herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

D) epidemic parotitis
EXPLANATIONThe epidemic parotitis (mumps) is caused by a virus that infects children. It is transmitted by airborne, and forms long-term immunity, the complications are otitis media, meningitis, and orchitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

FOG - 27Koplik spot is a symptom of which childhood disease?
A) chicken-pox
B) scarlatina
C) morbilli
D) epidemic parotitis
E) gingivostomatitis herpetica

A

C) morbilli
EXPLANATION
The morbilli starts with whooping cough and on the second day of the disease small blueish-white spots (Koplik spots) appear in the hyperemic mucosa most often buccaly in the high of occlusal plane against the 5 and 6 teeth. The diagnosis of Koplik spots means the diagnosis of morbilli. The spots disappear after 2-3 days when exanthemas appear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

FOG - 28Which disease’s characteristic symptoms are the large number of impacted tooth germs blocked from breaking through?
A) ectodermal dysplasia
B) epidermolysis bullosa
C) cleidocranial dysostosis
D) Papillon Lefevre syndrome
E) Down syndrome

A

C) cleidocranial dysostosis
EXPLANATIONThe symptoms of dysostosis cleidocranialis are: missing or hypoplastic clavicle, prolonged ossification of the cranial bones, large number (normal and supernumerary) of impacted tooth germs in the jaws blocked from breaking through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

FOG - 29What can cause Turner’s tooth?
A) inheritance
B) viral infection
C) fluoride overdose
D) inflammation around the root of the primary tooth
E) none of them

A

D) inflammation around the root of the primary tooth
EXPLANATIONWhat can cause Turner’s tooth? The inflammation around the root of the primary tooth due to trauma or caries can cause serious developing disorders in the mineralization of the homologous permanent tooth. This hypo-mineralized and brownish-discolored tooth is the Turner tooth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FOG - 30The consequences of baby bottle syndrome:
A) caries (decay) on upper and lower primary incisors
B) gingivitis
C) periodontitis
D) circular caries (decay) on the upper four primary incisors
E) all of them

A

D) circular caries (decay) on the upper four primary incisors
EXPLANATION
The sugar-coated pacifier, sugar-sweetened beverages like tea from baby bottles and syrups cause circular caries in typical localization. The lesion of the upper primary incisors is first brownish discoloration around the tooth neck then progress into tooth decay, if neglected can cause tooth fracture as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

FOG - 31Which bad habit can not cause an open bite?
A) thumb sucking
B) tongue thrust swallowing
C) pursed-lip swallowing
D) night grinding
E) chewing objects

A

D) night grinding
EXPLANATIONEvery bad habit can cause an open bite when something (object or anatomical parts regularly. The grinding is not like that.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

FOG - 32 Oral symptoms of leukemia:
1) bleeding tendency
2) fungal infections due to therapy
3) petechias on the oral mucosa
4) ulcers on the oral mucosa, especially on the gingiva

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER E) All of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
All the 4 are correct. During leukemia, the bleeding tendency and the number of petechias are increased. Fungal, bacterial, and viral infections can occur due to the disease and its therapy and characteristic deep ulcers appear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FOG - 33Which disease(s) is/are caused by viruses?
1) chicken-pox
2) morbilli
3) herpangina
4) scarlatina

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATIONThe scarlatina is caused by bacteria the other diseases are caused by viruses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

FOG - 34The characteristics of amelogenesis imperfecta
1) it can affect all teeth
2) the enamel is thinned
3) the worn off teeth are turn brownish
4) recessive inheritance disorder

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATIONThis disease is inherited dominantly. The other statements (1,2,3) are true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

FOG - 35It is not a condition of the undisturbed replacement of the primary teeth:
1) enough space for the permanent tooth
2) optimal location of the permanent tooth germ
3) physiological root resorption of a primary tooth
4) primary tooth extraction as soon as possible

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

D) Only answer 4 is correct
EXPLANATION
The eruption of the permanent teeth can be disturbed because of the tilting and migration of neighbor teeth due to early primary tooth extraction(impaction). The 4 is the correct answer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

FOG - 36When is tetracycline medication can not be given?
1) under 10 years old
2) at pregnancy
3) under 12 years old
4) under 8 years old

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
EXPLANATIONTetracyclin medications (e.g. Doxycyclin, Huma-Doxylin) can not be given to pregnant women and children under age 8 because of their tooth-damaging effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

FOG - 37 Characteristic oral symptoms of Down syndrome:
1) salivation
2) microglossia
3) small teeth
4) wide upper dental arch

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATION
The 1 and 3 are correct. Down syndrome is a chromosome-related disease. The general symptoms go together with characteristic facial character too. The main symptoms are macroglossia, small teeth, and 95% malocclusion like cross and open bite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

FOG - 38What are the treatment options for decay in primary teeth?
1) filling
2) removing the caries and impregnation
3) use of preformed metal crown
4) vital amputation (pulpotomy)

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

E) All of the answers are correctEXPLANATIONAll of the above. It depends on the circumstances all the listed treatments can be used to treat decay in the primary tooth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

FOG - 39In the case of total luxation the primary incisor is not placed back in the alveolus, because the homologous permanent tooth can be damaged.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

ANSWERA) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them

EXPLANATIONBoth statements are correct, there is a cause-and-effect relation between them. The replanted root of the primary tooth can cause damage to the root of the permanent tooth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

FOG - 40 Juvenile periodontitis can cause serious periodontal disease even in an early stage, so a careful clinical examination is enough for the diagnosis.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
EXPLANATION
The first statement is correct and the second is incorrect. The disease forms without inflammation, plaque, and calculus, gingivitis is not visible. The teeth have no caries. The vertical bone loss appears in the order of eruption of the permanent teeth, first on one side then on both sides of the molars and incisors. A foetor ex ore (bad breath) is a very uncomfortable symptom, careful clinical examination is needed. To make the diagnosis and determine the extent of the bone loss an x-ray is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

FOG - 41The calcification of the primary teeth happens in the intrauterine life, therefore anomalies in the primary tooth number do not occur.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
EXPLANATION
Anomalies in tooth number can occur in the primary teeth as well but are not caused by calcification. The first statement is correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

FOG - 42The mesiodens develop in the midline, therefore it causes diastema in every case.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
EXPLANATIONThe first statement is correct the second is not. The mesiodens beside the diastema medianum can cause an abnormal eruption and position of the incisors. Only the first statement is true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

FOG - 43Childhood periodontal diseases can be influenced because they are caused by local factors.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
EXPLANATIONThe first statement is correct the second is not. Periodontal diseases in childhood often have general etiology, but local factors can induce the symptoms as well. The treatment result of the disease is influenced by the underlying disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

FOG - 44The immediate replantation of the totally luxated permanent tooth is needed because the time is crucial for future stability.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

ANSWER A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
EXPLANATIONBoth statements are correct, there is a cause-and-effect relation between them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

FOG-45-48Match the following.
A) dental dilaceration
B) dens invaginatus
C) both of them
D) none of them
FOG - 45 - numerical abnormality of the teeth
FOG - 46 - an be the consequences of primary tooth accidents
FOG - 47 - morphological abnormality of tooth
FOG - 48 - another name is dens in dente

A

FOG - 45 - numerical abnormality of the teeth - D)
Both are morphological abnormalities. Primary tooth trauma can cause dilaceration. In the case of invagination (or dens in dente), the development of one part of the tooth is lagged and the other parts grow around. These teeth are bulky shaped.
FOG - 46 - an be the consequences of primary tooth accidents - A)
Both are morphological abnormalities. Primary tooth trauma can cause dilaceration. In the case of invagination (or dens in dente), the development of one part of the tooth is lagged and the other parts grow around. These teeth are bulky shaped.
FOG - 47 - morphological abnormality of tooth - C)
Both are morphological abnormalities. Primary tooth trauma can cause dilaceration. In the case of invagination (or dens in dente), the development of one part of the tooth is lagged and the other parts grow around. These teeth are bulky shaped.
FOG - 48 - another name is dens in dente - B)
Both are morphological abnormalities. Primary tooth trauma can cause dilaceration. In the case of invagination (or dens in dente), the development of one part of the tooth is lagged and the other parts grow around. These teeth are bulky shaped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

FOG-49-52Match the following.
A) dental sealant
B) filling
C) both of them
D) none of them
FOG - 49 - treatment of tooth disease
FOG - 50 - carried out with adhesive technique
FOG - 51 - the aim is caries prevention
FOG - 52 - it can be done at any age

A

FOG - 49 - treatment of tooth disease - B)
The aim of dental sealing is caries prevention, carried out with an adhesive technique and optimally done shortly after the breakthrough of the tooth.
FOG - 50 - carried out with adhesive technique - C)
The aim of dental sealing is caries prevention, carried out with an adhesive technique and optimally done shortly after the breakthrough of the tooth.
FOG - 51 - the aim is caries prevention - A)
The aim of dental sealing is caries prevention, carried out with an adhesive technique and optimally done shortly after the breakthrough of the tooth.
FOG - 52 - it can be done at any age - D)
The aim of dental sealing is caries prevention, carried out with an adhesive technique and optimally done shortly after the breakthrough of the tooth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

FOG - 53 For high-risk patients, the antibiotic prophylaxis is carried out this way before bloody procedures:
A) 60 minutes before the procedure, 2000 mg Amoxicillin per os
B) 30 minutes before the procedure, 1600 mg Clindamycin i.v.
C) 30 minutes before the procedure, 1g Amoxicillin per os
D) 60 minutes before the procedure, 2000 mg Tetracyclin i.m.
E) 120 minutes before the procedure, 2000 mg Amoxicillin per os

A

ANSWER A) 60 minutes before the procedure, 2000 mg Amoxicillin per os
EXPLANATION
In dentistry treatment with bleeding is carried out in antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients: The protocol is the following: 60 minutes before the procedure the patient takes 2000 mg amoxicillin per os.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

FOG - 54 Which one is caused by a dental focal infection?
A) Alopecia aerate
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Preterm birth
D) Melanoma
E) Psoriasis

A

D) Melanoma
EXPLANATION
Dental focal diseases/infections are spot boldness, psoriasis, and erythema nodosum, but have no role in the form of melanoma. The focal diseases are related to the high risk of infective endocarditis and other heart issues. Bad oral hygiene (periopathogenic bacterias and toxins) and focal infections like teeth with chronic periapical inflammation can cause preterm uterus contraction through elevated prostaglandin and inflammation factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

FOG - 55What is true for the form of secondary caries?

A) Decay under the filling in the bottom of the cavity
B) Primary tooth decay on the tooth surface
C) Only can form on the tooth neck
D) Decay next to the previous filling or restoration
E) most common on the canines

A

D) Decay next to the previous filling or restoration
EXPLANATIONThe decay under the filling in the bottom of the cavity can be the result of insufficient caries removal. This is called residual caries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

FOG - 56What is true for the remineralized enamel?
A) The demineralized enamel takes up less F¬ ion than the healthy enamel, so it cannot be F- reservoir
B) If it once remineralized it can not be demineralized again
C) The composition of the remineralized enamel is not the same as the original enamel. It is more compact and has higher resistance to the acids
D) The remineralized enamel is less resistant to the acids.
E) Further mineral dissolution from the demineralized areas of the erupted tooth.

A

C) The composition of the remineralized enamel is not the same as the original enamel. It is more compact and has higher resistance to the acids

EXPLANATIONRemineralization in the demineralized areas of the erupted tooth. Ca2+, (PO4)3– and F– ions from supersaturated saliva or synthetic materials are deposited in the demineralized tissues and form apatite. The remineralization is the growth of the remained apatite crystals rather than forming a new one. The F- fastens the apatite deposition, forming fluorapatite helping the crystal growth. The demineralized enamel takes up more F- ion than the healthy enamel and works as an F- reservoir. ) The composition of the remineralized enamel is not the same as the original enamel. It is more compact and has higher resistance to the acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

FOG - 57 Which dental disease does not require root canal treatment therapy?
A) Pulp necrosis
B) Caries media
C) Irreversibile pulpitis
D) Internal resorption
E) Chronic apical periodontitis

A

B) Caries media
EXPLANATIONIn the case of caries media the right therapy is filling or inlay/onlay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

FOG - 58Which dental disease’s typical symptom the biting sensitivity?
A) Caries media
B) Caries superficialis
C) Acute apical periodontitis
D) Internal resorption
E) Secondary caries

A

C) Acute apical periodontitis
EXPLANATIONIn the case of acute apical periodontitis the inflammation of the pulp is spread to the periapical tissues which causes oedema. The patient feels that their aching tooth is longer and the tooth is sensitive to biting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

FOG - 59Primary selected medication in endocarditis prophylaxis:
A) Acetylsalicylic acid
B) Propranolol
C) Amoxicillin
D) Clopidogrel
E) Metronidazole

A

C) Amoxicillin
EXPLANATIONWhen there is a high risk for infective endocarditis (for example the patient has an artificial heart valve) antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended which reduces the risk. The first used antibiotic is amoxicillin in these cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

FOG - 60In this case, the typical symptom is the biting sensitivity:
A) Acute apical periodontitis
B) Caries incipient
C) Reversible pulpitis
D) Irreversible pulpitis
E) Hyperplastic pulpitis

A

A) Acute apical periodontitis
EXPLANATIONIn the case of acute apical periodontitis pain can be triggered with biting or axial percussion because the inflammation reached the periodontal tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

FOG - 61Which of the following tooth/teeth can be a dental focal infection?
1) living tooth covered with zirconium dioxide crown
2) necrotic teeth with periapical lesions showed on the X-ray
3) living tooth treated with inlay/onlay
4) every root canal-treated tooth can be a potential dental focal infection

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
EXPLANATION
Every infected, necrotic tooth or tooth with periapical lesion is counted as a dental focal infection. Every root canal-treated tooth (with or without periapical lesion) is a potential dental focal infection. Moreover, dental focal infections are periodontal inflammations (periodontitis), and impacted or retained teeth.

50
Q

FOG - 62Giving antibiotic prophylaxis is required for high-risk dental patients with the following dental treatments:
1) tooth extraction
2) root canal treatment
3) sub-and supra gingival cleaning
4) making composite filling

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATIONGiving antibiotic prophylaxis is required for high-risk dental patients before treatment with bleeding where bacteremia may develop.

51
Q

FOG - 63What are the pillars of caries prevention?
1) healthy nutrition
2) appropriate oral hygiene
3) fluoride prevention
4) regular dental check-up

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

E) All of the answers are correct
EXPLANATIONCaries is a multifactorial disease and the microorganisms, nutritional habits, and time between the cariogen attacks have a high role in development. Prevention and regular dental check-ups are very important to screening, instructing, and motivating patients.

52
Q

FOG - 64Which factors can play a role in the development of dental caries?
1) predilection sites
2) bacterias
3) substrates
4) amount of sleeping

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATIONThe primary factors in the development of dental caries are: tooth surface and microorganisms which can cause demineralization with their acidic metabolic products. The microorganisms break down the nutrition (substrates and carbohydrates) for this, time is needed and the frequency of this process also plays a role. Secondary factors can affect the development of dental caries like social background, environmental factors, amount of saliva, buffer capacity, etc.

53
Q

FOG - 65Typical symptoms of irreversible pulpitis:
1) the pain can be worsened in lying position
2) swelling next to the tooth
3) intense tooth reaction to cold stimulus
4) the therapy is always tooth extraction

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATIONIn the case of irreversible pulpitis the patient complains of strong pain from cold stimulus. The pain also can be strong, spontaneous, or radiating pain which worsens in lying position. The treatment options for irreversible pulpitis are pulpotomy (pulp amputation, removal of the coronal pulp only)or pulpectomy (root canal treatment, removal of the coronal and radicular pulp) or extraction

54
Q

FOG - 66It is true for chair-side CAD/CAM systems:
1) the equipment is cheap
2) the dentist can save time with this system
3) there is no learning curve
4) can be used for making crown

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
EXPLANATIONThe chair-side CAD/CAM systems are expensive equipment that accelerates the time of producing some dental restorations. Learning every new technology has a learning curve.

55
Q

FOG - 67Pathological changes of the pulp:
1) Acute apical periodontitis
2) Chronic apical periodontitis
3) Acute apical abscess
4) Irreversible pulpitis

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

D) Only answer 4 is correct
EXPLANATIONAcute periapical periodontitis, chronic apical periodontitis, and acute apical abscess are pathological changes of the periapical space/area.

56
Q

FOG - 68Which are the following requires emergency dental care?
1) Irreversible pulpitis
2) Acute apical periodontitis
3) Acure apical abscess
4) Postextraction bleeding

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

E) All of the answers are correctEXPLANATIONThe pain, bleeding, and acute inflammations require immediate dental intervention so these belong to emergency dental care.

57
Q

FOG-69-72Match the following.
A) patient with a pacemaker
B) spot baldness
C) both of them
D) none of them
FOG - 69 - Root canal treatment should be considered
FOG - 70 - Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended one hour before tooth extraction
FOG - 71 - Can be focal disease
FOG - 72 - An ultrasonic scaler can not be used

A

FOG - 69 - Root canal treatment should be considered - B)
FOG - 70 - Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended one hour before tooth extraction - D)
FOG - 71 - Can be focal disease - B)
FOG - 72 - An ultrasonic scaler can not be used - A)

58
Q

FOG-73-76
Match the following.
A) enamel
B) dentin
C) both of them
D) none of them
FOG - 73 - Unable for reparation.
FOG - 74 - Contains hidroxyapatit.
FOG - 75 - Tubular structured tissue shows a vital reaction.
FOG - 76 - Produced by Odontoblasts.

A

FOG - 73 - Unable for reparation. - A)
FOG - 74 - Contains hidroxyapatit. - C)
FOG - 75 - Tubular structured tissue shows a vital reaction. - B)
FOG - 76 - Produced by Odontoblasts. - B)

59
Q

FOG - 77
Macroscopic material shortages form in the enamel in the case of superficial caries, thus as a result of the microorganism penetration into the dental tubules the demineralization is reduced.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
EXPLANATIONThe demineralization is increased due to the cavity in the enamel.

60
Q

FOG - 78
Dental focal infections have to be eradicated before organ transplantation because every dental caries is a potential dental focal infection.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
EXPLANATIONBefore organ transplantation, the patient has to be dental focal infection-free. The caries that have not reached the pulp (and located supragingival) is not a dental focal infection

61
Q

FOG - 79
The dentist can save time with chair-side CAD/CAM systems because the systems do not have a learning curve

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong

EXPLANATION
The chair-side CAD/CAM systems are expensive equipment that accelerates the time of producing some dental restorations. Learning every new technology has a learning curve.

62
Q

FOG - 80
Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for every patient before endodontic treatment because the risk of infective endocarditis can be reduced this way.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself

EXPLANATION
Antibiotic prophylaxis is needed only if there is a high risk for infective endocarditis (for example artificial heart valve).

63
Q

FOG - 81
Examination before endodontic treatment bitewing X-rays are done because with these X-rays it can be examined the approximal surfaces.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself

EXPLANATION
Periapical X-rays are done related to endodontic treatments because we need information about the condition of the roots and the surrounding tissues. With bitewing X-rays, the approximal caries can be examined.

64
Q

FOG - 82
In the prodromal phase, of this disease upper respiratory infection (catarrh) appears before the development of oral symptoms
A) Gingivostomatitis herpetica
B) Necrotizing gingivitis
C) Streptococcal gingivitis
D) Mikulicz aphthae
E) Allergic stomatitis

A

A) Gingivostomatitis herpetica
EXPLANATION
The primer gingivostomatitis herpetica is typical in 2-6-year-old children and comes with blisters that burst in 24 hours leaving painful erosions and ulcers. The parents report that before the oral symptoms, the child went through upper respiratory catarrh.

65
Q

FOG - 83
The Nikolsky’s sign is positive in this case:
A) Lichenoid reaction
B) Pemphigus vulgaris
C) Bullous pemphigoid
D) Leukoplakia simplex
E) Naevus vulgaris

A

B) Pemphigus vulgaris
EXPLANATION
The Nikolsky’s sign on the skin is an important factor in the differential diagnosis in the case of Pemphigus vulgaris and Bullous pemphigoid. In the case of Pemphigus vulgaris and benign mucous pemphigoid are positive.

66
Q

FOG - 84
Desquamative gingivitis can be the part of the following disease(s):
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Lichen planus
C) Bullous pemphigoid
D) Erythema multiforme
E) All of them

A

E) All of them

EXPLANATION
In 75% desquamative gingivitis is the oral manifestation of skin disease in the case of. 84% of these diseases are patients with Lichen planus and Pemphigoid.

67
Q

FOG - 85
Not typical for herpes simplex virus infection:
A) accompanied by a high fever
B) small vesiculas may appear intraorally
C) herpes zoster may develop upon a second infection with the virus
D) painful
E) sometimes cause lesions in the genitals

A

ANSWER
C) herpes zoster may develop upon a second infection with the virus

EXPLANATION
The herpes zoster (part of the herpes viruses) develops in patients with previous varicella infection when they contact with the virus again.

68
Q

FOG - 86
The differential diagnosis of this lesion: applying pressure on the affected area with a glass sheet because the lesion is pale for the pressure:
A) naevus
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) amalgam tattoo
D) haemangioma
E) melanoma

A

D) haemangioma
EXPLANATION
The haemangioma is pale for pressure because from the veins that form the tumor the blood is pressed out.

69
Q

FOG - 87
Not specific for necrotizing sialometaplasia:
A) the clinical manifestation is similar to a malignant tumor, it can destroy the palate
B) the histology mimics a malignant tumor, necrosis of the salivary glands, and squamous metaplasia on the ductus are visible.
C) the lesion needs to be removed
D) it is not painful
E) may relapse

A

C) the lesion needs to be removed

EXPLANATION
The necrotizing sialometaplasia mimics the histology and clinical manifestation of malignant tumors. It is an ulcerated lesion that can destroy the palate but is not painful, the removal is not needed because under 10-12 weeks it heals itself. It can relapse.

70
Q

FOG - 88
Oral symptoms related to Crohn’s disease
1) Pyostomatitis vegetans
2) Stomatitis gangrenosa (Noma)
3) Cobblestonening of the oral mucosa
4) Vesiculas on one side due to Varicella zoster virus

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

ANSWER
A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATION
In Crohn’s disease patients have oral symptoms in 10-20%. The buccal mucosa is affected with oedematous and hypertrophic or granulomatous lesions with or without ulcers. The first three answers are correct.

71
Q

FOG - 89
It is true for the etiology of atherosclerosis:
1) The incidence of atherosclerosis is twice as high in patients with chronic periodontitis.
2) There is no relation between the oral inflammations and atherosclerosis
3) The Porphyromonas gingivalis has an important role in endothel damage in vessels.
4) Only focal infections play a role in the development of atherosclerosis.

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATION
The inflammation is an independent risk factor of atherosclerosis. There are several mechanisms when the bacteria of the dental plaque initiates or worsens atherosclerosis like congenital immune activity, dental treatment, or everyday activities (brushing, chewing, etc.) through bacteremia, the effect of mediators, cytokine, and heat shock protein activated by antigens of the dental plaque.

72
Q

FOG - 90
Oral manifestation of oral pemphigus vulgaris
1) Blisters appear on the bucca, tongue, palate, and gingiva
2) Solitery ulcers on the vestibular oral mucosa
3) Long-lasting ulcers with remaining depapilled area after healing on the back of the tongue.
4) Hairy tongue

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATION
In 70% of the cases the disease starts on the oral mucosa, and the whole area is affected. The blisters burst and spread quickly, leaving behind painful erosions.

73
Q

FOG - 91
Which oral mucosal changes are caused by the oncogenic human papillomavirus?1) Verruca
2) Kaposi sarcoma
3) Papilloma
4) Fibroma

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
EXPLANATION

Explanation:The human papillomavirus can cause papilloma, verruca and condyloma on the oral mucosa. The condyloma appears mainly on the genitals. The Kaposi sarcoma is caused by the herpes virus and the fibroma is not related to infections.

74
Q

Belong(s) to the potential malignant diseases:
1) Oral submucous fibrosis
2) Lichen ruber planus
3) Candidal leukoplakia
4) Erythematous candidiasis

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATION
Explanations: Oral submucous fibrosis is a progressive disease with inflammation, the chance of carcinogen transformation is 10-15%.Hyperplastic candidiasis or candida leukoplakia causes epithelial dysplasia and the autoimmune-related lichen ruber planus are premalignant diseases. Az erythematous candidiasis is not a malignant disease.

75
Q

FOG - 93
True for actinic cheilitis:
1) Caused by chronic herpes infection
2) The affected patients have to use UV protection cream in winter as well.
3) Only an aesthetic problem
4) It is associated with dry and cracked lips

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct

EXPLANATION
The actinic cheilitis is a chronic inflammation mainly caused by UV radiation. It is associated with dryness and enhanced keratosis, it is a premalignant lesion. The lips have to be protected from UV radiation, so the affected patients have to use sun cream in winter as well.

76
Q

FOG-94-97Match the following.
A) necrotizing gingivitis
B) acute leukemia
C) both of them
D) none of them

FOG - 94 - Ulcers on the gingiva are spread to the deeper layers
FOG - 95 - The ulcers are always surrounded by an inflammatory border
FOG - 96 - The main symptoms are ulcers, bleeding, and gingival hyperplasia
FOG - 97 - Viral origin disease

A

FOG - 94 - Ulcers on the gingiva are spread to the deeper layers - B)
In the case of necrotizing gingivitis the spreading of the ulcers is superficial, but in acute leukemia, the ulcers appear on the marginal gingiva and reach deeper layers.
FOG - 95 - The ulcers are always surrounded by an inflammatory border - A)
In the case of necrotizing gingivitis the ulcers are surrounded by red borders, in acute leukemia this is not typical due to the white blood cell deficiency.
FOG - 96 - The main symptoms are ulcers, bleeding, and gingival hyperplasia - B)
The symptoms of necrotizing gingivitis are ulcers covered with grayish-white pseudomembrane on the gingival margin and papilla destruction on the buccal side of front and molar teeth, while in acute leukemia mostly gingival hyperplasia due to cellular infiltration, bleeding, petechias, ulcers are observable.
FOG - 97 - Viral origin disease - D)
None of them. The necrotizing gingivitis has a bacterial origin, mostly Fusobacterias periodontal pathogen bacterias are in the plaque. Easily mistake it with the gingivostomatitis herpetica which has viral origin.

77
Q

FOG-100-99Match the following.

A) typical for an oral lichen planus (lichen ruber planus)
B) typical for the lichenoid reaction of the oral mucosa
C) both of them
D) none of them

FOG - 98 - here are whiteish, lacy spots with or without inflammatory areas on the oral mucosa.
FOG - 99 - Systematic autoimmune disease is the background of the illness.
FOG - 100 - Premalignant lesion
FOG - 101 - It is treated with acidic solutions (depicter) which dissolve the hyperkeratotic layer.

A

FOG - 98 - here are whiteish, lacy spots with or without inflammatory areas on the oral mucosa. - C)
In both cases hyperkeratosis is formed due to the chronic inflammation in the subepithelium that provocates the epithelium.

FOG - 99 - Systematic autoimmune disease is the background of the illness. - A)
The oral lichen planus is the symptom of an autoimmune disease, it is a T cell-mediated immune response. The lichenoid reaction is caused by local irritative factors, galvanism, allergy, drug side effects, etc.

FOG - 100 - Premalignant lesion - A)
Sometimes the oral lichen planus can go through a malignant transformation due to the lack of defensiveness of the mucosa against carcinogeneic factors. The lichenoid reaction is not a typical premalignant lesion, but long-term chronic irritation can increase the risk of malignant transformation.

FOG - 101 - It is treated with acidic solutions (depicter) which dissolve the hyperkeratotic layer. - D)
This type of drug is not used in the treatment. In both cases the improvement of oral hygiene is important. Local steroids have a good effect on oral lichen planus. In the case of lichenoid reaction exploring and treating the origin of the lesion is the most important.

78
Q

FOG - 102
The benzodiazepines are contraindicated in Sjörgren-syndrome, because the long-term usage of benzodiazepines decreases saliva secretion.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

ANSWER
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself

EXPLANATION
The benzodiazepines are not absolute contraindications in Sjörgren-syndrome, but long-term usage indeed reduces the saliva secretion.

79
Q

FOG - 103
The iron absorption is disturbed in the inflammatory bowel disease, so these patients may have atrophic glossitis, burning mouth syndrome, angular cheilitis, and ulcers as a result of iron deficiency anemia.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them

EXPLANATION
The absorption of iron, folic acid, and B-12 vitamin is decreased so this symptom can appear due to the developing iron deficiency anemia.

80
Q

FOG - 104
In the most common form of oral candida whiteish plaques are shown that can often be wiped off, because there are local and systematic immune deficiencies in the background of oral candida infection.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself

EXPLANATION
The oral candida is mainly chronic progress and shows erythemic and atrophic mucosa, not white plaque. The Candida microorganisms are opportunist yeasts and can appear in the oral cavity if some local factor, inflammation, steroid usage, radiotherapy, or improper denture worsen the defensiveness of the oral mucosa or in the case of systematic immune deficiency.

81
Q

FOG - 105
The proliferative verrucous leukoplakia has developed an increasingly large area, polimorf, and has high malignant transformation potential, because the main reason for the disease is the high concentration of the carcinogen irritative substances in the oral cavity due to heavy smoking.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong

EXPLANATION
The proliferative verrucous leukoplakia is spread progressively in a large area on oral mucosa with inhomogenous, Verrucosus areas and erythroplakia. The potential of the malignant transformation is very high, nearly 100%. It is not the most common in the leukoplakia risk groups. It has been described most commonly among elderly, non-smoking women.

82
Q

FOG - 106
The aphtha is a disease of young and middle-aged patients, therefore if it develops in elders especially multiple times, in recurrent form an underlying systematic disease can be considered.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them

EXPLANATION
The aphtha is developing in young, non-smoking patients on the non-keratinized, non-movable oral mucosa. If it develops in elders especially multiple times, in recurrent form an underlying systematic disease can be considered like ulcerative colitis.

83
Q

FOG - 107
What is the reason for the gingival hyperplasia in leukemia?
A) tumor cell infiltration
B) reactive fibrosis
C) haemangioma
D) capillary rigidity
E) none of them

A

A) tumor cell infiltration

EXPLANATION
The early sign of leukemia is papilla enlargement, the papilla bleeding easily for touching. It is caused by tumor cell infiltration

84
Q

FOG - 108
Treatment of pregnancy gingivitis:
A) gingival plastic surgery
B) local Klion (metronidazole) treatment
C) broad-spectrum antibiotic treatment
D) keeping enhanced oral hygiene
E) none of them

A

D) keeping enhanced oral hygiene

EXPLANATION
In pregnancy, due to hormonal changes gingivitis appears physiologically, and completely resolves after lactation. Treatment with medication is impractical, the surgery is disadvantageous. With enhanced oral hygiene further infections can be prevented, and this state can be kept in balance.

85
Q

FOG - 109
In infective endocarditis the A. actinomycetemcomitans cause infection rather than the S. sanguis. Which features of the bacteria can cause endothel damage and what can prove the presence of it?
A) it can attach to any kind of tissue in no specific way
B) penetrate in the epithelial and endothelial cells
C) it can form a colony on the damaged endocardium
D) the anti-A-A antibody titer is higher in patients with cardiovascular disease
E) all the four statements are true

A

E) all the four statements are true

EXPLANATION
AA. can attach to any kind of tissue in a non-specific way, penetrate the epithelial and endothelial cells, and form a colony on the damaged endocardium surface. AA is evincible in the intima of the carotid artery and the anti-AA antibody titer is higher in patients with oronary sclerosis.

86
Q

FOG - 110
What does it mean that the bacterial plaque is a real biofilm?
A) it covers the teeth in a thin layer supra and subgingivally like a film
B) only a strong water jet can remove it
C) this is formed by aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
D) microbiome forms on non-renewable surfaces in a wet environment
E) bacterial aggregation on the exfoliated epithelial cell which always renews and the surface is covered by periodontal pathogenic bacteria

A

D) microbiome forms on non-renewable surfaces in a wet environment

EXPLANATION
Bacterial biofilm only forms on non-renewable surfaces. On intact epithelial surfaces, biofilm is not formed because the ongoing desquamation inhibits the process. On non-renewable surfaces in a wet environment bacterial community with symbiosis can be formed which is very resistant to antibiotics and disinfactants. Physiologically in the body, only the tooth surface is this kind of surface. The iatrogenic surfaces like restorations, dental implants, artificial valves, and endoprostheses can be named here. Microbiomes that are very resistant to antibiotics and disinfectants and can be only damaged/removed mechanically.

87
Q

FOG - 111
What are the common risk factors in stage III/IV periodontitis, preterm birth, and cardiovascular diseases?
A) social situation
B) genetic and familial background
C) diabetes
D) smoking
E) all of them

A

E) all of them

EXPLANATION

Stage III/IV periodontitis, preterm birth, and cardiovascular diseases are multifactorial diseases with a lot of common risk factors like smoking, bad social situations, uncontrolled DM II, and genetically determined susceptive.

88
Q

FOG - 112
The aim of periodontal maintenance therapy (tertiary prevention):
A) control of patients with previous periodontitis
B) provide regular control and mechanical professional plaque control and periodontal status records for patients with previous periodontitis
C) periodic dental instruction
D) periodic record of the periodontal status and indexes
E) none of them

A

B) provide regular control and mechanical professional plaque control and periodontal status records for patients with previous periodontitis

EXPLANATION
The aim is the regular control and mechanical professional plaque control, periodontal status records, instruction, and restoration quality check for patients with previous periodontal treatments healed from periodontitis.

89
Q

FOG - 113
The following medication(s) can cause gingival hyperplasia:
1) major tranquilizers
2) penicillin derivations
3) minor tranquilizers
4) Ca- antagonists

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

D) Only answer 4 is correct

EXPLANATION
Nowadays some drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia: ca-antagonists, cyclosporin, long long-term use of hydantoin derivations that are used in the treatment of epilepsy. Today the hydantoin derivations are less used. More and more patients who went through organ transplantation get cyclosporin derivations, but the number of ca-antagonist users is higher, so the number of gingival hyperplasia has increased as well.

90
Q

FOG - 114
What evidence proves that juvenile periodontitis is genetically related?
1) according to family tree examinations severe juvenile periodontitis is only 1-2% of the average population when in some families can reach 50%
2) according to twin studies the extent of manifestation is genetically related in the case of 50%
3) some inherited diseases come with very aggressive juvenile periodontitis
4) some ethnicities like white Asians are more susceptive than Afro-Americans.

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATION
More family tree and twin studies have confirmed the family accumulation of severe juvenile periodontitis and the genetic background plays a big role according to these studies. Based on USA twin studies in the manifestation of chronic periodontitis the genetic background plays a role in 50% even in twins who were raised far from each other. The prevalence of juvenile periodontitis is between 0.16-2.4 % but in some families reached 40-50% according to an American study from 1994. In the black population is ten times more common than among white people. Very early aggressive periodontitis is an important symptom in inherited mainly white cell diseases.

91
Q

FOG - 115
What is the effect of smoking on the periodontium and postoperative wound healing?
1) decreased marginal gingivitis
2) increased attachment loss and lack of healing ability
3) the success of the implantation surgery is not predictable
4) the lifespan of dental implants is shorter and the incidence of peri-implant complications is higher

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

E) All of the answers are correct

EXPLANATION
In heavy smokers the marginal gingivitis is decreased, and the chance for ulcers is increased due to the bad circulation. The extent of attachment loss is increased. After periodontal surgeries, the healing and the regenerative ability are worse, and the complication and survival rates of dental implants are higher.

92
Q

FOG - 116
What is the result of systematic antibiotic therapy in chronic periodontitis?

1) the mechanical plaque control and the mechanical plaque control combined with antibiotic therapy give the same outcome
2) only the mechanical plaque control is effective, this is the gold standard
3) the mechanical cleaning has to precede the antibiotic therapy, or it can be applied together, but the antibiotic is not indicated
4) it is proved that systematic antibiotic therapy as monotherapy is effective in the treatment of periodontitis

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATION
The mechanical cleaning has to precede the antibiotic therapy, or it can be applied together, but the antibiotic is not always indicated. It is proved that mechanical plaque control and mechanical plaque control combined with antibiotic therapy give the same outcome. There is no evidence that systematic antibiotic therapy as monotherapy is effective in the treatment of periodontitis. Nowadays mechanical plaque control is the gold standard in periodontitis treatment.

93
Q

FOG - 117
What is true for the acute gingivostomatitis herpetica?
1) contagious in an early childhood
2) life-long immunity is not always form
3) comes with high fever and agony
4) on the gingiva, a bucca, lips, and the tongue intraepithelial vesicles appear

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

E) All of the answers are correct

EXPLANATION
The acute gingivostomatitis herpetica is a vesiculobullous disease in early childhood mainly before 6 years old. Contagious in the children’s community, comes with high fever, agony, and enlargement of the submandibular lymph nodes. Life-long immunity is not always formed, in the case of recidivation as intraoral, labial, or perioral herpes can be formed.

94
Q

FOG - 118
Predisposing factors of acute necrotizing gingivitis (acute gingivitis ulcerosa)?
1) stress
2) poor general health
3) smoking
4) inherited family background

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATION
Acute necrotizing gingivitis is caused by the accumulated dental plaque the flora contains mainly fusospirochetal bacteria, but other factors can play an important role as well like poor general health, smoking, and stress. Family or genetic predisposition is not detected, this acute inflammation is related to the lifestyle.

95
Q

FOG-119-122Match the following.
A) pregnancy gingivitis
B) acute necrotizing gingivitis (acute gingivitis ulcerosa)
C) both of them
D) none of them

FOG - 119 - reestablish the oral hygiene can cure this disease
FOG - 120 - theoretically can form without the presence of dental plaque
FOG - 121 - the microembolization in the gingival vessels plays a role in the progress
FOG - 122 - if it is not treated in time, healing with remaining tissue necrosis, defect

A

FOG - 119 - reestablish the oral hygiene can cure this disease - C)
The pregnancy hormones with the presence of dental plaque can increase the gingivitis intensity because the estrogen-progesterone level increases the capillary permeability and the gingival inflammation tendency. Acute necrotizing gingivitis is related to dental plaque, in the patomechanism the immune complex reaction plays an important role which is responsible for the marginal gingiva necrosis. The marginal gingival precapillary arterioles are end arterioles without collateral circulation during the immune complex reaction microthrombus closes the arterioles which leads to necrosis. If this is not treated then it can lead to irreversible gingiva necrosis. Both can be curable with plaque control started on time.

FOG - 120 - theoretically can form without the presence of dental plaque - D)
The pregnancy hormones with the presence of dental plaque can increase the gingivitis intensity because the estrogen-progesterone level increases the capillary permeability and the gingival inflammation tendency. Acute necrotizing gingivitis is related to dental plaque, in the patomechanism the immune complex reaction plays an important role which is responsible for the marginal gingiva necrosis. The marginal gingival precapillary arterioles are end arterioles without collateral circulation during the immune complex reaction microthrombus closes the arterioles which leads to necrosis. If this is not treated then it can lead to irreversible gingiva necrosis. Both can be curable with plaque control started on time.

FOG - 121 - the microembolization in the gingival vessels plays a role in the progress - B)
The pregnancy hormones with the presence of dental plaque can increase the gingivitis intensity because the estrogen-progesterone level increases the capillary permeability and the gingival inflammation tendency. Acute necrotizing gingivitis is related to dental plaque, in the patomechanism the immune complex reaction plays an important role which is responsible for the marginal gingiva necrosis. The marginal gingival precapillary arterioles are end arterioles without collateral circulation during the immune complex reaction microthrombus closes the arterioles which leads to necrosis. If this is not treated then it can lead to irreversible gingiva necrosis. Both can be curable with plaque control started on time.

FOG - 122 - if it is not treated in time, healing with remaining tissue necrosis, defect - B)
The pregnancy hormones with the presence of dental plaque can increase the gingivitis intensity because the estrogen-progesterone level increases the capillary permeability and the gingival inflammation tendency. Acute necrotizing gingivitis is related to dental plaque, in the patomechanism the immune complex reaction plays an important role which is responsible for the marginal gingiva necrosis. The marginal gingival precapillary arterioles are end arterioles without collateral circulation during the immune complex reaction microthrombus closes the arterioles which leads to necrosis. If this is not treated then it can lead to irreversible gingiva necrosis. Both can be curable with plaque control started on time

96
Q

FOG-123-126Match the following.
A) plaque-induced gingivitis
B) chronic periodontitis
C) both of them
D) none of them

FOG - 123 - The diagnosis-based treatment plan is always used.
FOG - 124 - Surgical treatment of the periodontal pockets is part of the treatment plan.
FOG - 125 - Patient cooperation is important in the therapy.
FOG - 126 - Removal of the subkingival calculus is not indicated in the treatment.

A

FOG - 123 - The diagnosis-based treatment plan is always used. - C)
Not every patient needs all the possible therapy, but eliminating the dental biofilm is essential. The diagnosis-related treatment plan is always made. In gingivitis, the I. therapy phase is enough. In the case of chronic periodontitis from the II. surgical phase regenerative or mucogingival surgery is not needed in most cases. In serious cases, the patients have to go through all the possible periodontal treatments for the satisfying and long-lasting results. The cooperation of the patient is essential.

FOG - 124 - Surgical treatment of the periodontal pockets is part of the treatment plan. - B)
Not every patient needs all the possible therapy, but eliminating the dental biofilm is essential. The diagnosis-related treatment plan is always made. In gingivitis, the I. therapy phase is enough. In the case of chronic periodontitis from the II. surgical phase regenerative or mucogingival surgery is not needed in most cases. In serious cases, the patients have to go through all the possible periodontal treatments for the satisfying and long-lasting results. The cooperation of the patient is essential.

FOG - 125 - Patient cooperation is important in the therapy. - C)
Not every patient needs all the possible therapy, but eliminating the dental biofilm is essential. The diagnosis-related treatment plan is always made. In gingivitis, the I. therapy phase is enough. In the case of chronic periodontitis from the II. surgical phase regenerative or mucogingival surgery is not needed in most cases. In serious cases, the patients have to go through all the possible periodontal treatments for the satisfying and long-lasting results. The cooperation of the patient is essential.

FOG - 126 - Removal of the subkingival calculus is not indicated in the treatment. - D)
Not every patient needs all the possible therapy, but eliminating the dental biofilm is essential. The diagnosis-related treatment plan is always made. In gingivitis, the I. therapy phase is enough. In the case of chronic periodontitis from the II. surgical phase regenerative or mucogingival surgery is not needed in most cases. In serious cases, the patients have to go through all the possible periodontal treatments for the satisfying and long-lasting results. The cooperation of the patient is essential.

97
Q

FOG - 127
Regular and effective plaque control is the most important step in periodontal treatment BECAUSE the removal of the dental plaque can prevent the form of the mature biofilm.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

ANSWER
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
EXPLANATION
The reason for the inflammatory periodontal diseases is the mature, well-organized dental biofilm thus regular and effective plaque control is the most important step in periodontal treatment. The regular removal of dental plaque can prevent the dental plaque reach that thickness which can form biofilm with independent life characteristics. This is why the cause-effect relation is between the two statements.

98
Q

FOG - 128
The deep periodontal pocket contains pathogenic anaerobic bacteria, THUS periodontitis is a -more or less scientifically proven- risk factor for atherosclerosis and atherosclerosis-related diseases like heart attack and stroke.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
EXPLANATION
It is proven that in severe destructive periodontitis and local and generalized periodontitis, there are real bacterial invasions. From the gingiva bacteria and bacterial metabolic products can enter the bloodstream directly which can provoke vessel-endothelial inflammatory response far from the focus point causing atherosclerosis which might lead to embolic diseases.

99
Q

FOG - 129
The reason for non-inflammatory deep gingiva ulceration and periodontal necrosis associated with agranulocytosis is the missing or decreased number of functioning PMN leukocytes, so this process is plaque-related necrosis and can be treated with plaque removal or local/systematic antibiotic treatment.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them

EXPLANATION
The marginal periodontium is defenseless against the plaque bacteria if the functioning PMN leukocytes are missing. These conditions are agranulocytosis or sometimes acute paramyeloblastic leukemia. The necrosis is caused by the dental plaque bacteria through their proteolytic enzymes so plaque removal, local therapy, or systematic antibiotics can help the local condition, but real treatment is controlling the underlying disease.

100
Q

FOG - 130
Periodontitis is an infective type of chronic inflammation caused by plaque bacteria, so all the classic Koch’s postulates are true for periodontitis as well.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong

EXPLANATION
Periodontitis is an infective type, of chronic inflammation caused by plaque bacteria but the development of the disease is caused by the normal oral bacterial flora. External pathogen infection is just involved in the progress in a few cases and proportion. Periodontitis is an opportunist infection, not all the Koch’s postulates are true obviously on periodontitis.

101
Q

FOG - 131The defensive mechanisms of the PMN leukocytes in the gingiva’s connective tissue come with lysosomal enzyme release that directly damages the gingiva’s connective tissue, so the inhibition of the PMN leukocyta functions (neutropenia) have protective roles in the gingiva.

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong

EXPLANATION
The defensive mechanisms of the PMN leukocytes in the gingiva’s connective tissue come with lysosomal enzyme release that directly damages the gingiva’s connective tissue. However, the leukocyte function inhibition (granulopenia) is not protective at all. If the defensiveness is missing gingival necrosis and very serious periodontal symptoms can occur through the bacterial invasion. Very serious periodontal symptoms can be seen in patients with PMN leukocyte deficiencies (agranulocytosis, cyclic agranulocytosis, leukemia, Costman syndrome, LAD I, etc.).

102
Q

FOG - 132The action of the local anesthetics is not dependent on:
A) the extent of the anesthetic’s protein binding
B) the concentration of the local anesthetic
C) the anesthetic’s effect on the blood vessel
D) the lipid solubility of the local anesthetic
E) all the answers are true

A

D) the lipid solubility of the local anesthetic

EXPLANATIONThe action of the local anesthetics depends on the extent of the protein binding, concentration, and the effects on the blood vessels. The potency depends on the lipid solubility and the dissociation constant. The latency times depend on the lipid solubility, the dissociation constant, and the technique of the anesthesia. The toxicity depends on the rate of degradation (metabolization).

103
Q

FOG - 133What is the immediate intervention in the case of hyperventilation syndrome?
A) Giving oxygen
B) Calm the patient, encouraging for slow breathing
C) Call for an ambulance car
D) Starting of cardiopulmonary resuscitation
E) All of the answers are true

A

B) Calm the patient, encouraging for slow breathing

EXPLANATION
The hyperventilation syndrome is a self-reinforcing process related to emotional impact. Not only the distress but also the symptoms triggered fear and shock leading to hyperventilation. The first thing to do is to calm the patient, provide a calm environment, and eliminate the trigger of the onset. Sit or lay down the patient, and encourage them to steady breathing they can breathe with their hands in front of their mouth.

104
Q

FOG - 134Which statement is true?
A) Hemophilia is a dominantly inherited disease, that manifests in boys.
B) Hemophilia is a dominantly inherited disease, that manifests in girls.
C) Haemophilia is a recessively inherited disease, that manifests in boys.
D) Haemophilia is a recessively inherited disease, that manifests in girls
E) None of them are true

A

C) Haemophilia is a recessively inherited disease, that manifests in boys.

EXPLANATION
Magyarázat: The women are carriers, which disease manifests in men are recessively inherited.

105
Q

FOG - 135What is not true for venous thrombosis?

A) It is caused by coagulation factor deficiency
B) Improper circulation, stasis sets in, and the composition of the blood changes.
C) Treated with platelet aggregating inhibitor (PAI).
D) The most common symptom is the pulmonary embolia.
E) It the treatment the proper nutrition is very important.

A

C) Treated with platelet aggregating inhibitor (PAI).
EXPLANATION
No, these patients have anticoagulant therapy. General practitioners (family doctors) are mistaken about this regularly.

106
Q

FOG - 136It can be true for phlegmon (cellulitis) which starts from upper teeth:
A) spread towards the skull
B) spreads below the temporal muscle
C) spreads in the parapharyngeal region
D) spreads in the mediastinuma mediastinumba történő terjedés
E) all of them are true

A

E) all of them are true

EXPLANATION
The phlegmon (cellulitis) starts from the upper teeth and can spread to the skull toward the retrotuberal area, below the temporal muscle, and to the mediastinum between the medial pterygoid and pharyngeal muscles.

107
Q

FOG - 137Important diagnostic tool to detect the inflammation of the neck-head region:
A) clinical examination
B) X-ray
C) CT
D) Ultrasound
E) All of them

A

E) All of them
EXPLANATION
In the diagnosis of the inflammation of the neck-head area the clinical examination, X-ray, CT, and Ultrasound examination are important.

108
Q

FOG - 138What are the symptoms of the hypertensive crisis?
1) Strong headache
2) Angina pectoris
3) Tinnitus
4) Consciousness disturbance

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

E) All of the answers are correct

EXPLANATION
The symptoms of the hypertensive crisis are strong headache, dizziness, flushed face, visual disturbance, tinnitus, tachycardia, dyspnoea, angina pectoris, heart attack, acute left cardiac insufficiency, oliguria, haematuria, proteinuria.

109
Q

FOG - 139Which one is false in the case of phlegmon (cellulitis)?
1) it spreads in the spatiums
2) life-threatening condition
3) it comes with septic fever
4) hospitalization is not necessary

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

D) Only answer 4 is correct
EXPLANATION
Phlegmon (cellulitis) is a life-threatening condition where the inflammation is spread in the spatiums. Hospitalization is always needed. The affected spatiums are excavated with multiple wide incisions and drained and IV antibiotic therapy is started. The symptoms are septic fever, extensive edema, pain, trismus, and enervation.

110
Q

FOG - 140Secondary focal diseases are:
1) endocarditis lenta
2) alopecia areata (spot baldness)
3) iridocyclitis
4) glomerulonephritis

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

E) All of the answers are correct
EXPLANATION
The tonsils, sinuses, adnexa, prostate, and dental focal infections (necrotized tooth, tooth with periapical lesion) are primary focal diseases that can cause secondary focal diseases like internal diseases (carditis, nephritis), rheumatological diseases (polyarthritis), eye diseases (uveitis, iridocyclitis) skin diseases (alopecia areata, eczema), neurological diseases (neuritis).

111
Q

FOG - 141What is true for heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?
1) it can be used effectively and safely
2) regular laboratory examination is not necessary
3) can be used in fix dose
4) the effect can be checked with the determination of the prothrombin time (PT).

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATIONThe effect of the heparin and LMWH can be checked with APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) and thrombin time (TT) but not with prothrombin time (PT), because the PT can be used for coumarine derivates.

112
Q

FOG - 142True for the treatment of the soft tissue injury on the face:
1) the layered wound closure is important (mucosa, muscle, skin)
2) include the wound toilette
3) if possible strive for the primary wound closure
4) dissolvable stitches are never used

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

EXPLANATION
If possible in the case of soft tissue injury in the head and neck are primary, layered wound closures are applicable due to functional and esthetic reasons. Drainage is needed if the wound is contaminated, The first step in the treatment is the wound toilet, tetanus prophylaxis if needed then wound closure. Giving antibiotics is necessary.

113
Q

FOG - 143True for lower jaw (mandibula) fractures:
1) it can cause eye movement disturbance
2) disturbance in the occlusal plain may occur
3) comes with only a little pain
4) For proper diagnosis X-ray or CT is required

A) Answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) Answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) Only answer 4 is correct
E) All of the answers are correct

A

C) Answers 2 and 4 are correct

EXPLANATION
The fracture of the lower jaw does not affect eye movements and comes with moderate or strong pain. The fracture of the lower jaw can cause occlusal discrepancy which can be the main diagnostic sign. The proper diagnosis X-ray or CT is required.

114
Q

FOG - 144The wisdom tooth is not always visible in the dental arch in middle-aged patients, because the wisdom tooth is the last in eruption (breakthrough).

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them

EXPLANATIONThe wisdom tooth is not always visible in the dental arch in middle-aged patients, the eruption ends in young adulthood. The missing wisdom tooth above 30 years old can be the reason for tooth extraction.

115
Q

FOG - 145During pregnancy and lactation the NOAC treatment is not recommended, for thrombosis prophylaxis or in the case of deep vein thrombosis LMWH is recommended instead.

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
EXPLANATION
The NOAC can transfer the placenta in pregnancy which can cause bleeding, and potential embryotoxicity so switching to LMWH is necessary.

116
Q

FOG - 146Smoking increases the risk of oral cancer, so after a time every smoker will suffer from cancer

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
EXPLANATION
Smoking and alcohol consumption are the main risk factors for oral cancers, but cancer does not always form in smokers.

117
Q

FOG - 147Osteonecrosis of the jaw can form due to antiresorptive drugs, thus before these drugs are prescribed dental rehabilitation is very important.
A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them

EXPLANATION
The drug-related osteonecrosis of the jaw is a common complication in patients who did not go through oral rehabilitation before the drug was prescribed. Very hard to treat this disease so prevention (examination, rehabilitation) is very important.

118
Q

FOG - 148If the patient is treated with A NOAC minimalinvasive treatment is recommended, thus dissolvable stitches and primary wound closure are essential.

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them
B) both are correct, but there is no causal relationship between them
C) the first is correct in itself, but the second is wrong
D) the first is wrong, the second is correct in itself
E) both are wrong

A

A) both are correct, there is a causal relationship between them

EXPLANATION
The bleeding tendency is lower if the patient is treated with NOAC than TAI or coumarin derivative, but the chance of post-treatment bleeding needs to be minimalized.

119
Q

FOG-149-152Match the following.
A) Abscessus buccae (buccal abcess)
B) Phlegmone (cellulitis) colli
C) all of them
D) none of them

FOG - 149 - localized inflammation with a surrounded border
FOG - 150 - Serious, life-threatening inflammation disease
FOG - 151 - Ultrasound or CT is required for the diagnosis
FOG - 152 - Surgical intervention is required

A

ANSWER

FOG - 149 - localized inflammation with a surrounded border - A)
FOG - 150 - Serious, life-threatening inflammation disease - B)
FOG - 151 - Ultrasound or CT is required for the diagnosis - C)
FOG - 152 - Surgical intervention is required - C)

120
Q

FOG-153-156Match the following.
A) NR value is set between 2-2.5 for medium thrombosis risk patients
B) INR value is set between 2.5-3 for high thrombosis risk patients
C) The INR does not need to set
D) none of them

FOG - 153 - Deep venous thrombosis
FOG - 154 - Patients with artificial valve
FOG - 155 - Patients treated with NOAC
FOG - 156 - In the case of athletes

A

FOG - 153 - Deep venous thrombosis - A)
FOG - 154 - Patients with artificial valve - B)
FOG - 155 - Patients treated with NOAC - C)
FOG - 156 - In the case of athletes - D)