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Radiographic Interpretation > Dental Anomalies Part I > Flashcards

Dental Anomalies Part I Flashcards

1
Q

what are the classifications of dental anomalies

A
  • congenital
  • developmental
  • acquired
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2
Q

what are congenital dental anomalies

A

genetically inherited anomalies

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3
Q

what are developmental anomalies

A

anomalies occur during tooth formation

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4
Q

what are acquired anomalies

A

anomalies occur after teeth formation

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5
Q

what are the types of developmental abnormalities

A
  • number of teeth
  • size of teeth
  • eruption of teeth
  • enamel pearly or enameloma
  • altered morphology
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6
Q

what are the acquired abnormalities

A
  • attrition
  • abrasion
  • erosion
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7
Q

what are supernumerary teeth and what is another name for it

A
  • presence of extra erupted or unerupted teeth
  • AKA hyperdontia
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8
Q

what is the prevalence of supernumerary teeth

A

2nd most common dental anomaly
- 1-4% of population

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9
Q

what are mesodens

A

supernumerary tooth in the maxillary incisor region

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10
Q

what are distodens or distomolar

A

supernumerary 4th molar

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11
Q

what is the most common single supernumerary tooth

A

mesiodens or distodens

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12
Q

where are mutliple supernumerary teeth most commonly found

A

in the mandibular premolar region

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13
Q

what radiographic images are taken for isolated supernumerary teeth

A

periapical or panoramic images

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14
Q

what radiographic images are needed for mulitple unerupted supernumeraries

A

CBCT

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15
Q

what are the top differential dx for supernumerary teeth

A

cleidocranial dysplasia
gardner syndrome

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16
Q

describe cleidocranial dysplasia

A
  • absent or hypoplastic clavicles
  • high palate, cleft palate
  • open cranial sutures
  • hypoplastic paranasal sinuses
  • mandibular prognathism
  • multiple unerupted supernumerary teeth
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17
Q

describe gardner syndrome

A
  • osteomas
  • epidermoid cyst of skin
  • multiple supernumerary teeth
  • colorectal polyps with malignant potential
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18
Q

what is the treatment for supernumerary teeth

A

conservative or removal of supernumerary teeth to reduce likelihood of complications such as:
-resorption of adjacent teeth
- crownding, malocclusion
- periodontal problems
- development of pathology

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19
Q

what is the definition of missing teeth or hypodontia

A

absence of erupted tooth or dental follicle without history of extraction

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20
Q

what are the most commonly missing teeth

A

third molars > mandibular second premolars > maxillary lateral and mandibular central incisors

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21
Q

excluding third molars absence what percentage of the population is affected by missing teeth or hypodontia

A

3%- 10% of the population

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22
Q

what is hypodontia

A

lack of development of 1 or more teeth

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23
Q

what is anodontia

A

total lack of development of teeth

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24
Q

what is oligodontia

A

lack of development of 6 or more teeth excluding third molars

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25
Q

what is the etiology of missing teeth

A
  • absence of dental lamina
  • environmental factors
  • genetics
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26
Q

what are the environmental factors that may damage dental lamina prior to tooth formation

A
  • trauma
  • infection
  • radiation, chemotherapy, or combined treatment
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27
Q

what is the main differential dx for missing teeth

A

ectodermal dysplasia

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28
Q

what is ectodermal dysplasia

A
  • decreased number of sweat glands
  • sparse hair, eyelashes, eyebrows
  • dystrophic or malformed nails
  • hypodontia with abnormal crown shape in teeth that are present
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29
Q

describe macrodontia

A
  • larger than normal tooth seen clinically or radiographically
  • often affects a single tooth
  • may be associated with crowding and malocclusion
  • the shape of the tooth is usually normal
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30
Q

describe microdontia and what is the tx

A
  • smaller than normal tooth seen clinically or radiographically
  • might involve all teeth, single tooth or a group of teeth
  • usually affects third molars and maxillary lateral incisors
  • treatment: restorative if neeeded
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31
Q

what is transposition

A

the condition in which two typically adjacent teeth have exchanged positions in the dental arch

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32
Q

what are the most common transposed teeth

A

the permanent canines and the first premolar

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33
Q

is there transposition in the primary dentition

A

no

34
Q

what is enameloma or an enamel pearl

A

a small formation of enamel 1-3mm in diameter that occurs on the roots of molars

35
Q

what is the occurence of enameloma or enamel pearl

A

3% of the population

36
Q

where do most enamel pearls form

A
  • apical to the gingival crest
  • typically develop in the furcal areas of molar teeth, often lying at or just apical to the CEJ
37
Q

are enamel pearls detected during a clinical exam

A

no

38
Q

what can enameloma/enamel pearl predispose to

A

formation of a periodontal pocket and subsequent periodontal disease

39
Q

what is the differential dx for enameloma or enamel pearl

A

calculus

40
Q

what is the management of enameloma/ enamel pearl

A

removal if it is a risk factor to periodontal disease. the possibility must always be considered that it may contain a pulp horn

41
Q

what is fusion

A

results from the union of adjacent tooth germs of developing teeth

42
Q

fusion results in:

A

a reduced number of teeth in the arch

43
Q

what dentition is fusion more common in

A

primary

44
Q

what area of the mouth is fusion most common

A

anterior teeth

45
Q

what is the differential interpretation of fusion and how is it differentiated

A

gemination: fusion may be differentiated from gemination when the number of teeth is reduced by one

46
Q

what is the management of fusion

A
  • conservative
  • RCT + restorative
47
Q

what is gemination

A

arises when a single tooth bud attempts to divide
- result may be an invagination of the crown with partial clefting

48
Q

what dentition does gemination occur in and which is more common

A
  • both
  • more common in primary teeth
49
Q

what part of the mouth does gemination occur

A

incisor region

50
Q

what is the imaging feature of gemination

A

the pulp chamber is usually single and enlarged and may be partially divided

51
Q

what is the differential dx for gemination

A
  • macrodontia
  • fusion
52
Q

what is the management of gemination

A
  • restorative: the clef is a carious susceptible site
  • extraction only when needed
53
Q

what is concrescence

A
  • occurs when the roots of two or more primary or permanent teeth are fused through cementum
54
Q

what are the possible causes of concrescence

A
  • space restriction during development
  • local trauma
  • excessive occlusal force
  • local infection after development
55
Q

what teeth are most affected in concrescence

A

maxillary molars- especially third molars or a supernumerary tooth

56
Q

what is the fate of teeth with concrescence

A

may fail to erupt or may erupt incompletely

57
Q

how is concrescence in teeth imaged

A
  • small FOV CBCT
58
Q

what is taurodontism

A

elongation of pulp chamber in multirooted tooth with apical displacement of pulpal floor

59
Q

what dentition is affected in taurodontism

A

both

60
Q

how many teeth can show taurodontist

A

single or multiple teeth

61
Q

how can taurodontism be detected

A

only radiographiclly, NOT clinically

62
Q

how does taurodontism appear radiographically

A

elongated pulp chamber and the more apically positioned furcation
- short roots

63
Q

what is the differential interpretation for taurodontism

A

none

64
Q

what is the management of taurodontism

A

none

65
Q

what is dilaceration

A

sharp bend or curve in the tooth anywhere in the crown or root

66
Q

where is dilaceration most commonly seen

A

maxillary premolars

67
Q

what are supernumerary roots

A

increased number of roots compared to usual anatomic number

68
Q

what is radix entomolaris

A

extra lingual root on mandibular molars

69
Q

what is radix paramolaris

A

extra buccal root on mandibular molars

70
Q

what teeth can be affected with supernumerary roots

A

any tooth

71
Q

what treatments can the presence of supernumerary roots affect

A
  • ortho
  • endo
  • extractions
  • but they are great prosth abutments
72
Q

what are dens invaginatus and dens in dente

A

represent varying degrees of invagination or infolding of the enamel surface into the interior of the tooth

73
Q

what tooth is most commonly affected by dens invaginatus and dens in dente

A

maxillary lateral incisor

74
Q

where are dens invaginatus and dens in dente rate

A

in deciduous dentition and mandibular teeth

75
Q

what are teeth with dens invaginatus and dens in dente at high risk for

A

caries so do prophylactic restoration

76
Q

what is dens evaginatus and talon cusp caused by

A

evagination or outpouching of the enamel organ

77
Q

where does the resultant enamel covered tubercle in dens evaginatus and talon cusp occur

A

in or near the middle of the occlusal or incisal surface of tooth

78
Q

what is the tubercle composed of in dens evaginatus and talon cusp

A

a dentin core and a very slender pulp horn frequently extending into the evagination

79
Q

when would dens evaginatus and talon cusp be removed

A

if the tubercle causes any occlusal interference or shows evidence of marked abrasion

80
Q
A

Radiographic Interpretation (13 decks)

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