Dental Anomalies 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different cateogories of dental anomalies?

A
  • Congenital:– Genetically inherited
  • Developmental:– Anomalies occur during tooth formation
  • Acquired:– Anomalies occur after teeth formation
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2
Q

What are the different types of developmental dental abnormalities?

A
  1. Number of teeth:
    -Supernumerary teeth
    -Missing teeth
  2. Size of teeth
    -Macrodontia
    -Microdontia
  3. Eruption of teeth
    -Transposition
  4. Enamel pearl or Enameloma
  5. Altered morphology
    -Fusion
    -Gemination
    -Concrescence
    -Taurodontism
    -Dilaceration
    -Supernumerary roots
    -Dens invaginatus & dens in dente
    -Dense evaginatus and talon cusp
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3
Q

What are acquired abnormalities?

A

1) Attrition
2) Abrasion
3) Erosion

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4
Q

What is the definition of supernumerary teeth?

A

Presence of extra erupted or unerupted teeth
- also called hyperdontia

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5
Q

What is the 2nd most common dental anomaly?

A

supernumerary teeth

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6
Q

_____% of the population has supernumerary teeth

A

1-4%

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7
Q

What is a mesiodens?

A

Supernumerary tooth in maxillary incisor region

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8
Q

What is a distodens?

A

4th molar

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9
Q

Most common single supernumerary tooth is…

A

mesiodens or distodens

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10
Q

Multiple supernumerary teeth most commonly found in _______________ region

A

mandibular premolar

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11
Q

How do you view multiple unerupted supernumerary teeth on a radiograph?

A

CBCT

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12
Q

How do you view an isolated supernumerary tooth on a radiograph?

A

Periapical or panoramic images

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13
Q
A

mesiodens
- supernumerary tooth

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14
Q
A

distodens
- supernumerary tooth

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15
Q
A

supernumerary teeth

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16
Q
A

supernumerary teeth

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17
Q

Is the tooth lingual or buccal to #8/#9?

A

Tube was moved to the distal
Mesiodens followed the same direction

SLOB
- mesiodens is lingual

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18
Q

What are the top differential diagnoses for supernumerary teeth?

A
  • Cleidocranial dysplasia
  • Gardner syndrome
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19
Q

What are the symptoms of cleidocranial dysplasia?

A
  • Absent or hypoplastic clavicles
  • High palate, cleft palate
  • Open cranial sutures
  • Hypoplastic paranasal sinuses
  • Mandibular prognathism
  • Multiple unerupted supernumerary teeth
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20
Q

What do radiographs of people with cleidocranial dysplasia?

A
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21
Q

What is this showing?

A

hypoplastic clavicles
- cleidocranial dysplasia

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22
Q

What is this showing?

A
  • Open cranial sutures
  • Hypoplastic paranasal sinuses
  • cleidocranial dysplasia
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23
Q

What is this showing?

A
  • Mandibular prognathism
  • Open cranial sutures
  • Supernumerary teeth in mandible
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24
Q

What are the symptoms of gardner syndrome?

A
  • Osteomas
  • Epidermoid cysts of skin
  • Multiple supernumerary teeth
  • Colorectal polyps with malignant potential
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25
Q
A

osteoma
- benign tumor of bone

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26
Q

What is the treatment of supernumerary teeth?

A

Conservative or removal of supernumerary teeth to reduce likelihood of complications, such as:
- Resorption of adjacent teeth
- Periodontal problems
- Crowding, malocclusion
- Development of pathology (e.g., dentigerous cyst)

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27
Q

What is missing teeth/hypodontia?

A

Absence of erupted tooth or dental follicle without history of extraction

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28
Q

Most commonly missing teeth are…

A

third molars > mandibular second premolars > maxillary lateral and mandibular central incisors

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29
Q

Excluding third molars absence, hypodontia it affects ______% of the population

A

3-10%

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30
Q

What is anodontia definition?

A

Total lack of development of teeth

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31
Q

What is hypodontia definition?

A

Lack of development of 1 or more teeth

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32
Q

What is oligodontia definition?

A

Lack of development of 6 or more teeth (excluding third molars)

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33
Q

What is the etiology of hypodontia?

A
  • Absenceof dental lamina
  • Environmental factors that may damage dental lamina prior to tooth formation
    – Trauma
    – Infection
    – Radiation, chemotherapy, combo
  • Genetics
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34
Q

What is the top differential diagnosis for hypodontia?

A

ectodermal dysplasia

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35
Q

What is ectodermal dysplasia?

A
  • Decreased number of sweat glands
  • Sparse hair, eyelashes, eyebrows
  • Dystrophic or malformed nails
  • Hypodontia with abnormal crown shape in teeth that are present
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36
Q

What is shown here? (no extractions)

A

ectodermal dysplasia
- hypodontia

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37
Q

What syndome is this?

A

ectodermal dysplasia

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38
Q

What is macrodontia?

A
  • Larger than normal tooth, seeing clinically or radiographically
  • Often affects a single tooth
  • May be associated with crowding and malocclusion
  • The shape of the tooth is usually normal
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39
Q

What tooth has macrodontia?

A
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40
Q

What is microdontia?

A
  • Smaller than normal tooth, seeing clinically or radiographically.
  • Might involve all teeth, single tooth or a group of teeth
41
Q

What teeth are usually affected by microdontia?

A

third molars and maxillary lateral incisors

42
Q

What is the treatment for microdontia?

A

restorative if needed

43
Q

What does this show?

A

microdontia
- peg lateral

44
Q

What does this show?

A

microdontia

45
Q

What is transposition?

A

condition in which two typically adjacent teeth have exchanged positions in the dental arch

46
Q

What are the most frequently transposed teeth?

A

permanent canine and the first premolar

47
Q

True/False: transposition in the primary dentition is impossible

A

False, however Transposition in the primary dentition has not been reported

48
Q

What teeth have been transpositioned?

49
Q

What is an enamel pearl?

A

Is a small formation of enamel 1 to 3 mm in diameter that occurs on the roots of molars

50
Q

Enamel pearls are found in about __% of the population

51
Q

What is shown here?

A

enamel pearl

52
Q

Most enamel pearls form ________ to the gingival crest, and are not detected during aclinical examination

53
Q

Where do enamel pearls typically form?

A

furcal areas of molar teeth, often lying at or just apical to the cementoenamel junction

54
Q

What is the problem with enamel pearls?

A

May predispose to formation of a periodontal pocket and subsequent periodontal disease

55
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for enamel pearls?

56
Q

How do you manage enamel pearls?

A

Removal if it is a risk factor to periodontal disease. The possibility must always be considered that it may contain a pulp horn.

57
Q

What is fusion?

A

the union of adjacent tooth germs of developing teeth

58
Q

Fusion results in a _________ number of teeth in thearch

59
Q

Is fusion more common in the deciduous dentition or permanent dentition?

A

more common in deciduous

60
Q

Is fusion more common in the anterior or posterior?

61
Q

What is the differential interpretation for fusion?

A

gemination

62
Q

What is the difference between fusion and gemination?

A

fusion may be differentiated from
gemination when the number of teeth is reduced by one

63
Q

What is the managment for fusion?

A
  • Conservative
  • RCT + restorative
64
Q
65
Q
A

gemination

66
Q

What is gemination?

A

Arises when a single tooth bud attempts to divide. The result may be an invagination of the crown with partial clefting.

67
Q

What type of teeth are more likely to have gemination?

A

May occur in both the deciduous and the permanent dentitions. Primary teeth are more often affected, usually in the incisor region.

68
Q

What does the pulp look like of a tooth with gemination?

A

The pulp chamber is usually single and enlarged, and may be partially divided

69
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for gemination?

A

– Macrodontia
– Fusion

70
Q

How do you manage gemination?

A

– Restorative
—The cleft is a carious susceptible site
– Extraction only when needed

71
Q
A

gemination

72
Q

What is concrescence?

A

Occurs when the roots of two or more primary or permanent teeth are fused through cementum.

73
Q

What are the teeth most likely to have concrescence?

A

Maxillary molars are the teeth mostly affected, especially a third molar and a supernumerary tooth.

74
Q

What is the cause of concrescence?

A

Cause is unknown → space restriction during development, local trauma, excessive occlusal force, or local infection after development.

75
Q

An imaging examination may not always reveal concrescence because…

A

teeth may be in close contact or are simply superimposed → small FOV CBCT

76
Q

What is taurodontism?

A

Elongation of pulp chamber in multirooted tooth with apical displacement of pulpal floor

  • Affects primary or permanent dentitions
  • Single or multiple teeth may show
  • Cannot be detected clinically, only radiographically.
77
Q

What does taurodontism look like radiographically?

A
  • elongated pulp chamber
  • more apically positioned furcation
  • Short roots
78
Q

What does this show?

A

taurodontism

79
Q

What is dilaceration?

A

sharp bend or curve in the tooth anywhere in the crown or the root

80
Q

What tooth is most often affected by dilaceration?

A

maxillary premolars

81
Q

What does this show?

A

dilaceration

82
Q

What are supernumerary roots?

A

Increased number of roots compared to usual anatomic number

83
Q

Presence of supernumerary roots may affect treatment of…

A
  • Orthodontics, endodontics, extractions.
  • GREAT prosthodontic abutments
84
Q

Radix entomolaris is extra _______ root on mandibular molars

85
Q

Radix paramolaris is extra _______ root on mandibularmolars

86
Q

What does this show?

A

supernumerary roots

87
Q

What is dens invaginatus and dens in dente?

A

Represent varying degrees of invagination or infolding of the enamel surface into the interior of tooth.

88
Q

What tooth is most commonly affected by dens invaginatus and dens in dente?

A

Maxillary lateral incisor

89
Q

What teeth is dens invaginatus and dens in dente rare in?

A

deciduous dentition and mandibular teeth

90
Q

What does this show?

A

dens invaginatus and dens in dente

91
Q

What is the issue with dens invaginatus and dens in dente?

A

High risk of caries → prophylactic restoration

92
Q

What does this show?

A

dens invaginatus and dens in dente

93
Q

What are the differen types dens invaginatus and dens in dente?

94
Q

What is dens evaginatus and talon cusp?

A

the result of an evagination or outpouching of the enamel organ

95
Q

Where does dens evaginatus and talon cusp usually occur?

A

resultant enamel-covered tubercle usually occurs in or near the middle of the occlusal or incisal surface of tooth

96
Q

What is the core of a dens evaginatus and talon cusp made of?

A

The tubercle often has a dentin core, and a very slender pulp horn frequently extends into the evagination.

97
Q

What does this show?

A

dens evaginatus and talon cusp

98
Q

If the tubercle (talon cusp) causes any ________________ or shows evidence of marked abrasion, it probably should be removed under aseptic conditions

A

occlusal interference