demyelinating dz Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Be able to describe the basic subtypes of MS
A

Relapsing-Remitting (RRMS): Sporadic episodes of new or worsened symptoms (over 2-10 days), with variable improvement over 1- 6 months. Primary Progressive (PPMS): slow progression, without relapses. Secondary progressive MS: Start with relapsing course, but goes on to become progressiv. Relapsing-Progressive (RPMS): combo of relapses and progression from outset. Clinically isolated syndrome: first attack. Radiologically isolated syndrome: MS on MRI but without clinical attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which MS subtype is most common overall

A

relapsing remitting (85%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many RRMS convert to SPMS?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

tumefactive lesions

A

> 2cm, mimic tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which MS subtype is most common in young adults? Middle age?

A

The majority of young adults are diagnosed with Relapsing-Remitting MS. Primary progressive is most common in middle age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Be able to describe the basic epidemiology of MS (ie age, sex, ethnicity, geography)
A

A. Age: up to 3/4 present between ages 15-45. B. Sex: at least 2/3+ are women; increased prevalence over last several decades primarily seen in women. C. Highest incidence in Caucasians, tho recent data questions this. D. Geography: incidence increases with distance from equator; highest in UK, Iceland, Canada, Australia, USA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MS pathology

A

demyelination, perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate, Axonal loss and formation of axon bulbs in both acute and chronic lesions, gray matter lesions, brain and/or spinal lesions,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

compare immunopathology btw MS patients

A

At least four types of immunopathology in white matter have now identified. Between patients, immunopathology is variable, while within a single patient, immunopathology does not vary. Gray matter lesions are classified based on location, NOT immunology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pathogenesis of MS

A

T cell activation in blood or lymph nodes by APC with antigen > T cells activate matrix metalloproteinases > BBB becomes leaky > T cells, B cells, macrophages, complement enter through BBB > B cells present antigen and secrete Abs > cytokine release in CNS causes further BBB breakdown > myelin and oligodendrocyte damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Discuss white matter immunopathology and MS subtypes

A

All Type IV are PPMS. Types I/II correlate with encephalomyelitis. Types III/IV correlate with oligodendrocyte dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MS genetics

A

–Risk linked to HLA DR2; Link to IL-7 receptor, IL-2 receptor mutations; now >200 genes linked, most at odds ratios of about 1.1. Increased risk in family memebers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MS and environmental causes

A

Risk factors include viruses (EBV), chlamydia, pneumoniae, smoking, Vitamin D deficiency (risk of developing dz and higher risk of relapse), obesity in young women, high salt diet (risk of worse MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is MS diagnosed

A
  1. Multiple CNS lesions disseminated in space (2 separate locations in CNS) and time (RRMS – 2 or more clinical attacks 30+ days apart. PPMS - Minumum 12 months of progression of Sx) 2. Abnormal exam without other identified cause. 3. Primarily clinical diagnosis, but MRI/CSF can help define dissemination in time/space. 4. Dx afer single attack and single scan if certain MRI features seen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MS early symptoms

A

Often unifocal at first, paresthesias (numbness and tingling), monocular loss of vision (optic or retrobulbar neuritis), gait problems, weakness, diplopia (double vision), Lhermitte’s (paresthesias down spine with neck flexion), urinary urgency/frequency, constipation
Often unifocal at first, paresthesias (numbness and tingling), monocular loss of vision (optic or retrobulbar neuritis), gait problems, weakness, diplopia (double vision), Lhermitte’s (paresthesias down spine with neck flexion), urinary urgency/frequency, constipation
Often unifocal at first, paresthesias (numbness and tingling), monocular loss of vision (optic or retrobulbar neuritis), gait problems, weakness, diplopia (double vision), Lhermitte’s (paresthesias down spine with neck flexion), urinary urgency/frequency, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MS late symptoms

A

Multifocal and more general: early symptoms plus fatigue, sexual dysfunction, depression, cognitive dysfunction, pain, dysphagia; rarely, seizures and hearing loss; problems related to immobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MS exam- corticospinal, sensory, visual

A

Often assymmetric, especially early. Mixed signs over time, as lesions accumulate. CORTICOSPINAL – weakness, spasticity, inc reflexes (upper motor neuron signs). SENSORY – loss/”added” sensation; cord level. VISUAL – acuity loss, eye movement abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MS exam - cerebellar, mood, cognition, sexual

A

CEREBELLAR – ataxia, tremor, dysarthria (“Charcot’s triad”), balance, coordination. MOOD – depression, emotional lability. COGNITIVE IMPAIRMENT - ST memory, word-finding, visual-spatial function, hand-eye coordination. SEXUAL – impaired sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Labs to diagnose MS

A

MRI, CSF analysis, Evoked potentials, optical coherence tomography, blood

19
Q

MS- MRI T1 results

A

a. T1 “holes”, bad long-term prognostic sign consistent with axonal damage, often felt consistent with more chronic lesions, but can be seen early. b. T1 with contrast-enhancing lesions = Blood-Brain-Barrier breakdown, and typically seen early in evolution of lesion, with enhancement only lasting 2-6 weeks. Enhancement means leakage of the dye is seen. Bad short-term prognostic sign

20
Q

MS- MRI T2 results

A

T2 hyperintense/bright lesion, seen with acute and chronic lesions, and includes FLAIR (fluid attenuated inversion recovery – makes CSF dark). There are many causes of bright dots on the T2 and FLAIR images, not just MS, so the pattern of lesions is RELATIVELY specific for MS. “Burden of Disease”, ie volume of lesions, seen even on first scan is predictive of disability over time.

21
Q

MS- MRI non contrast

A

atrophy: white and/or gray matter focal atrophy and brain parenchymal fraction global atrophy

22
Q

Long-term bad Prognostic Factors for MS

A

1) Atrophy, especially gray matter 2) High Burden of T1 holes 3) High Burden of T2 lesions 4) Posterior Fossa lesions 5) Spinal cord lesions

23
Q

nonspecific brain MRI changes

A

migraine, HTN and aging can all show up as microvascular ischemic dz

24
Q

MS- CSF analysis (protein, WBC, glucose, Igs, myelin basic protein)

A

Protein less than 110 mg/dl , WBC rarely more than 40/mm3, Glucose always normal, Immunoglobulins in CSF abnormal about 95% (elevated IgG index and/or oligoclonal bands >5), MBP elevation non specific

25
Q

IgG index

A

(IgG CSF / IgG serum)/ (Alb CSF/ Alb serum)

26
Q

What are evoked potentials used for in MS

A

PPMS diagnosis only. prolonged conduction times consistent with demyelination – visual, brainstem and somatosensory

27
Q

What method is used to measure disease progression of MS

A

Expanded Disability Status Scale : Zero is normal exam, 3 is moderate disability in at least one subscale, 6 is requires a cane to walk, 10 is death due to MS.

28
Q

MS prognosis

A

lifespan decreased 6-7 yrs. Unfavorable prognosis for males, older age at onset, African-americans

29
Q

MS therapy- behavioral

A

exercise, don’t smoke, vitamin D, treat co-morbidities such as HTN, DM, obesity

30
Q

MS therapy for acute attacks

A

will shorten attack, but no conclusive evidence this affects long-term progression of disability

  1. High-dose corticosteroids: IV Solumedrol +/- Prednisone taper. Oral may work equivalently, so long as the dose is equal, but need to take MANY pills 2. Plasma exchange for severe demyelination unresponsive to steroids :works really only with Type II pathology, this may be first PATHOLOGY-SPECIFIC treatment in MSwill shorten attack, but no conclusive evidence this affects long-term progression of disability
  2. High-dose corticosteroids: IV Solumedrol +/- Prednisone taper. Oral may work equivalently, so long as the dose is equal, but need to take MANY pills 2. Plasma exchange for severe demyelination unresponsive to steroids :works really only with Type II pathology, this may be first PATHOLOGY-SPECIFIC treatment in MS
31
Q

Immunomodulation in MS- first line drugs used and outcomes

A

•Interferon beta-1a (AVONEX, REBIF), Interferon beta-1b (BETASERON) and Glatiramer acetate (COPAXONE) are all approved for RRMS (home injections). Over 2-4 yrs, reduce new attacks by 1/3, slow progression of disability, decrease enhancing lesions and slow progression of T2 burden. Avonex may slow brain atrophy. All are poorly tolerated (ABC-R)

32
Q

Which immunomodulation drug in MS is more effective?

A

Tysabri (Natalizumab- Ab against a4-integrin)

33
Q

Tysabri MOA

A

a4-integrins are molecules on leukocytes that bind to VCAM-1 on the endothelial cells of the BBB, and facilitate adhesion and migration into the BBB. Tysabri blocks the a4-integrins from binding to VCAM-1, thus preventing leukocyte migration across the BBB

34
Q

Risks of using Tysabri

A

Risk of developing progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. Risks for development of PML include exposure to the JC virus, duration of use, prior exposure to chemotherapy (especially Mitoxantrone), and possibly small body mass and the so-called JCV Index or antibody titer, with higher Index associated with higher risk.

35
Q

Gilenya (fingolimod)

A

For RRMS. Phase II drug Is a superagonist of Spingosine-1- Phosphate -1 (S1P1) receptors seen in lymph nodes. Activation traps lymphocytes in lymph nodes. Superior to interferon B-1a (avonex)

36
Q

Aubagio (Teriflunomide)

A

Trials with good efficacy, acceptable safety, pregnancy category x. Phase II drug

37
Q

Tecfidera (Dimethyl fumarate, or BG12)

A

–Trials with excellent relapse effect, appears safe, ?better than GA. Phase 2 drug

38
Q

Lacquinimod

A

•Two Phase III completed , modest effect on relapses, 1/3 reduction in disability progression, safe

39
Q

Estriol

A

Combo with GA: At 1 year, significant reduction in relapses, and improvement in cognition vs GA alone

40
Q

Treatment of RRMS guidelines

A

Greatest risk of new disease activity is early, SO, Use more effective medications earlier/first

41
Q

Limitations of current therapy

A

Only partial, limited efficaacy in progressive MS, expensive, side effects, none restore funcion or replace neurons

42
Q

Treatment of SPMS

A

Only Betaseron is FDA-approved for SPMS, and only when still with relapses, but all meds are often used. First line therapy (not approved, but used) and mitoxantrone (FDA approved)

43
Q

Treatment of PPMS

A

nothing seems to work. Rituximab sometimes used