Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NRN 12 Exam 5 > Deg Neuro Pharmacological Therapy > Flashcards

Deg Neuro Pharmacological Therapy Flashcards

1
Q

Riluzole

A

ALS

Glutamate blocker; prolong survival 3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Baclofen

A

ALS, MS

Treat muscle spasms, spasticity

SE: dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diazepam

A

ALS, Huntingtons

Treats anxiety, muscle spasms, seizures; chorea tx

SE: dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dantrolene sodium

A

ALS

Treat muscle spasms; treat/prevent malignant hyperthermia

SE: dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A

ALS

Treats severe drooling

SE: constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

IVIG

A

Guillain-Barre

Stops the antibodies, decreases circulating antibodies; given during first couple weeks of dz

Tx HTN, tachy

Treat hypotension with fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tetrabenazine (xenazine)

A

Huntington

Tx chorea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Levodopa

A

Huntington

treat patients with rigidity; may give Parkinson’s disease drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Amantadine HCl

A

MS, P

Reduces rigidity, tremor, bradykinesia, postural changes

SE: mood changes, confusion, depression, hallucinations, LE edema, nausea, epigastric distress, urinary retention, HA, visual impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mitoxantrone (Novantrone)

A

MS

Reduce clinical relapses (risk of cardiac toxicity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

A

MS

anticonvulsant, nerve pain medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Oxybutynin

A

MS

Tx bladder urgency; bladder relaxant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Baclofen (lioresal)

A

MS

Muscle relaxant, decrease spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

MS

Shortens duration of relapse (no LT benefit); anti-inflammatory effect on T-cells and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Glatiramer

A

MS

Reduces frequency of relapses, but not progression of disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dimethyl fumarate

A

MS

Decreases number of episodes of worsening MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Interferon 1A (Avonex, Rebif)

A

MS

Slows disease worsening, decrease flare ups; immunomodulator medications

SE: flu-like symptoms

18
Q

Interferon 1B (Betaseron, Extavia)

A

MS

Reduce flare ups; immunomodulator

SE: flu-like symptoms

19
Q

IVIG (MG)

A

Myasthenia gravis

Tx exacerbations;
Consists of immune globulins and acts to destroy and neutralize autoantibodies in the blood stream and block the production of new autoantibodies

AE: HA, migraine, flu-like symptoms

20
Q

Pyridostigmine bromide (mesitonin)

A

Myasthenia gravis

Anti-cholinesterase; inhibits breakdown of ach; usually given QID

SE: take with food/milk, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, excessive saliva

21
Q

Prednisone

A

Myasthenia gravis

Second line; most common long term; susceptible to oral infections

22
Q

Azathioprine

A

Myasthenia gravis

3rd line; inhibits T-lymphocytes and b-cell proliferation and reduce ach receptor antibody levels; therapeutic effects may take 3-12 months

AE: leukopenia, hepatotoxicity

23
Q

Carbidopa-levodopa

A

Parkinson’s disease

Increases presence of dopamine in brain
*carbidopa added to avoid metabolism of levodopa before it reaches brain

SE: NV, appetite loss, decreased BP, dystopia, dyskinesia, confusion

24
Q

Amantadine HCl

A

Parkinson’s disease

Reduces rigidity, tremor, bradykinesia, postural changes

SE: mood changes, confusion, depression, hallucinations, LE edema, nausea, epigastric distress, urinary retention, HA, visual impairment

25
Q

Trihexyphenidyl HCl

A

Parkinson’s disease

Improves muscle control, decreases stiffness; counteract ACh action, control tremors

SE: blurry vision, flushing, rash ,constipation, urinary retention, acute confusion

26
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations would alert the nurse caring for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome that his status is deteriorating?

A. Tidal volume of 500 mL
B. Residual lung volume of 1200 mL
C. Vital capacity of 11 mL/kg
D. Oxygen saturation of 97%

A

C. Vital capacity of 11 mL/kg

27
Q

When developing a plan of care for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome, the nurse knows that which of the following nursing interventions would receive priority?

A. Using the IS as prescribed
B. Maintain the patient on bed rest
C. Assisting the patient with ADLs
D. Determining abnormalities of cognitive function

A

A. Using the IS as prescribed

28
Q

The physician has ordered a Tensilon test to rule out myasthenia gravis. The nurse knows that which of the following medications would be used to counteract the SE of the Tensilon?

A. Baclofen (Lioresal)
B. Atropine (AtroPen)
C. Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
D. Narcan (Naloxone)

A

B. Atropine (AtroPen)

29
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis whose CT scan reveals an enlarged thymus gland. Which additional assessment data would be consistent with the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?

A. Decreased sensations in the hands and feet
B. Incoordination of gait
C. Facial numbness causing slurred speech
D. Generalized weakness of extremities

A

D. Generalized weakness of extremities

30
Q

The nurse is caring for a recently diagnosed patient with myasthenia gravis whose CT scan reveals an enlarged thymus gland. Which additional assessment parameter should the nurse complete to confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?

A. Passive ROM of the neck
B. Check of DTRs
C. Applications of painful stimuli to legs
D. Visual screening using the Snellen chart

A

D. Visual screening using the Snellen chart

31
Q

It is important to frequently monitor the patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome when ascending paralysis is occurring. When assessing the patient for bulbar muscle weakness, the nurse should be alert to which of the following clinical manifestations?

A. Decreased LOC
B. Inability to clear secretions
C. Hypersensitivity of hands and feet
D. Increased ICP

A

B. Inability to clear secretions

32
Q

The nurse knows that plasmapharesis is being utilized in the treatment of the patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome for which of the following reasons?

A. Removal of anti-ACh receptor antibodies
B. Reduction in the number of bacteria in the bloodstream
C. Decrease in antibodies attacking peripheral nerve myelin
D. Removal of potassium and fluid

A

C. Decrease in antibodies attacking peripheral nerve myelin

33
Q

When assessing a patient with myasthenia gravis, the nurses would be correct in questioning the patient regarding which of the following clinical manifestations?

A. Weakness associated with fatigue
B. Headache that worsens at night
C. Projectile vomiting without nausea
D. Diaphoresis

A

A. Weakness associated with fatigue

34
Q

The nurse recognizes that corticosteroid therapy, when used in the treatment of Guillain-Barré syndrome, reduces the inflammation and edema associated with this neuromuscular disorder. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which of the following lab values for the patient on corticosteroid therapy?

A. pH of urine
B. Hemoglobin
C. Serum potassium
D. Serum glucose

A

D. Serum glucose

35
Q

The nurse would expect to document which of the following in a patient with myasthenia gravis undergoing a Tensilon test?

A. Positive Tensilon test
B. Negative Tensilon test
C. Positive sweat test
D. Negative sweat test

A

A. Positive Tensilon test

36
Q

When examining a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome, the nurse would expect to assess which of the following clinical manifestations?

A. Paresthesias of the hands and feet
B. Hyperactive DTRs
C. Hypotension
D. Descending weakness

A

A. Paresthesias of the hands and feet

37
Q

A patient with Guillain-Barre has had ABGs drawn. Which of the following ABG values indicates that the patient’s status is deteriorating?

A. pH 7.37
B. PaCO2 60
C. HCO3 24
D. Oxygen saturation of 94%

A

B. PaCO2 60

38
Q

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A. Vertigo
B. Ptosis of the eyelid
C. Diminished taste for food
D. Vocal paralysis

A

D. Vocal paralysis

39
Q

The nurse teaching a patient recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis should tell him that it is caused by:

A. Genetic dysfunction
B. Upper and lower motor neuron lesions
C. Decreased conduction of impulses in an upper motor neuron lesion
D. A lower motor neuron lesion

A

D. A lower motor neuron lesion

40
Q

Which of the following schedules would be most appropriate for the care of a 28-year-old female hospitalized with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?

A. All at one time, to provide a longer rest period
B. Before meals, to stimulate her appetite
C. In the morning, with frequent rest periods
D. Before bedtime, to promote rest

A

C. In the morning, with frequent rest periods

NRN 12 Exam 5 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions