Definitions Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the DV?

A

Variable that is measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the IV?

A

Variable that is manipulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an Independent Measures Design?

A

Different participants are used for each level of the IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a Repeated Measures Design?

A

Each participants participates in every level of the IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a Match Pairs Design?

A

Participants are arranged into pairs. Pairs are similar in ways that are important to study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a single blind test?

A

Participants unaware of the level of IV in which they are performing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a double blinds test?

A

Neither the researcher or participants are aware of which condition they are in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is researcher effect?

A

Negative influence researchers can have on a study by their presence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a participant variable?

A

Individual differences between P’s that could affect their response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a situational variable?

A

factors in the environment surrounding P’s that can affect their performance on the DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is practise effect?

A

Participants performance improves because they experience the experimental task more than once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is fatigue effect?

A

Participants performance declines because they have experienced an experimental task more than once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is counterbalancing?

A

Overcomes order effect. (ABBA design)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a quasi experiment?

A

Makes use of existing changes in situations to create the IV & then measures the DV. IV can’t be manipulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a field experiment?

A

Researcher manipulates IV & measures DV in natural setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a lab experiment?

A

Conducted in artificial environment in which experimenter manipulates IV & measures changes in DV whilst controlling extraneous variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a snap shot study?

A

Many cohorts, over short period of time & one set of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a longitudinal study?

A

One cohort, over a period of time & more than set of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is mundane realism?

A

Extent to which an experimental task relates to real life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is experimental realism?

A

Extent to which experiment is real to P’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is generalisability?

A

Extent to which findings from one situation or sample will apply to other situations or people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are demand characteristics?

A

Participants change their behaviour in order to fit in with what they think researchers want because they have worker out what the researcher wants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is observer effect?

A

Influence that the presence of an observer can have on P’s in a situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a participant observation?

A

Participant’s behaviour is recorded by a researcher who is engaged with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a non-participant observation?

A

Participant’s behaviour is recorded by a researcher who is not engaged with them (overt/covert)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an overt observation?

A

Research in which the role of the observer is known to the participant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a covert observation?

A

Participants unaware that they are being watched. (participant/non-participant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is observer bias?

A

Tendency of an observer to record behaviours that they believe should/will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is instantaneous scan sampling?

A

Only action being performed at the start of each pre-set interval is recorded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is predominant activity sampling?

A

Observer watches throughout the interval & records the behaviour that is performed the most during the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is one zero sampling?

A

Researcher would record whether behaviour occurred within the time period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a controlled observation?

A

Behaviour seen is recorded by the researcher in situations in which there has been manipulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a naturalistic observation?

A

Behaviours seen in the P’s normal environment are recorded without interference from the researcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an unstructured observation?

A

Observer records a non-specific, wide range of behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a structured observation?

A

Observer records a specified range of behaviours in pre-defined & pre-decided categories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are behavioural categories?

A

Operationally defined units of events used in a structured observation to break a continuous stream of activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a coding frame?

A

System of differentiating behaviours to be recorded in an observation which uses abbreviations to represent different behavioural categories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is inter-observer reliability?

A

Extent to which 2 observers will produce the same records when they watch the same event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is event sampling?

A

Uses a checklist of possible activities, which are tailed as they occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is time sampling?

A

Uses a limited list of possible activities. The occurrences of these activities is recorded in relation to short, specified time intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is social desirability?

A

Participants tend to respond in ways that they think reflect what is acceptable in society rather than what they want the usually/want to do

42
Q

What is quantitative data?

A

Quantity of a psychological measure (numbers)

43
Q

What is qualitative data?

A

Quality of a psychological characteristics (words)

44
Q

What is a self-report method?

A

Obtain data by asking participants about themselves

45
Q

What is a questionnaire?

A

Written questions

46
Q

What is an interview?

A

Participants reply verbally to questions asked by interviewer

47
Q

What is a pilot study?

A

Small-scale trial run of a method to identify & resolve any problems with the procedure

48
Q

What is a Likert scale?

A

Measures attitudes using a statement to which P’s respond by choosing an option (Strongly agree to Strongly disagree)

49
Q

What are closed questions?

A

Offers small number of explicitly stated alternative responses & no opportunity to expand on answers (quantitative data)

50
Q

What are open questions?

A

Allows P’s to give full & detailed answers in their own words (qualitative data)

51
Q

What is a structured interview?

A

Asks predominantly closed questions in a fixed order. Questions are scripted = standardised

52
Q

What is a semi-structured interview?

A

Uses a fixed list of open & closed questions. Interviewer can introduce additional questions if required

53
Q

What is an unstructured interview?

A

Starts with standard question but from there questions depend on the respondent’s answer. There may be a list of topics for the interviewer to cover

54
Q

What is test-retest?

A

When you use same test twice

55
Q

What is slit-half reliability?

A

When you compares 2 halves of a test

56
Q

What is internal reliability?

A

The consistency of a measure gained through standardisation

57
Q

What is external reliability?

A

Likely to get similar results if repeated in the same conditions

58
Q

What is validity?

A

Extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure

59
Q

What is external validity?

A

Extent to which the results of a study can be generalized to other people/situations

60
Q

What is ecological validity?

A

Extent to which conclusions can be generalised to other situations

61
Q

What is face validity?

A

Extent to which a procedure appears to test what it claims to

62
Q

What is criterion validity?

A

Extent to which a measure is related to an outcome

63
Q

What is concurrent validity?

A

Extent to which 2 or more studies have the same results

64
Q

What is construct validity?

A

Extent to which a measurement tool actually measures the psychological concept being studied

65
Q

What is cause and effect?

A

A manipulation of the IV is responsible for a change in the DV

66
Q

What is a positive correlation?

A

Relationship between 2 variables such that an increase in one causes an increase in another

67
Q

What is a negative correlation?

A

Relationship between 2 variables such that an increase in one causes a decrease in another

68
Q

What are extraneous variables?

A

Factor that can affect the outcome of an investigation other than those being tested

69
Q

What are confounding variables?

A

Factor that confuses (confounds) the results because it acts the effect of the IV on the DV.

70
Q

What is induction?

A

Uses observations to generate testable hypotheses which are developed into theories

71
Q

What is deduction?

A

Develops hypotheses from theories, then tests the hypotheses with observations

72
Q

What is falsification?

A

Ability to demonstrate that something is not the case

73
Q

What is subjectivity?

A

Taking a biased personal viewpoint that may be influence by one’s own beliefs and will therefore differ between researchers

74
Q

What is objectivity?

A

Taking an unbiased external perspective that is not affected by an individual or personal viewpoint and will therefore be consistent between researchers

75
Q

What is researcher bias?

A

Unconscious tendency of the researcher to act in ways that alter the results

76
Q

What is an alternate hypothesis?

A

Testable statement predicting that there will be a relationship between variables

77
Q

What is a two-tailed hypothesis?

A

Statement predicting how one variable will be related to another

78
Q

What is a one-tailed hypothesis?

A

Statement predicting the direction of a relationship between variables

79
Q

What is a null hypothesis?

A

Testable statement saying that any difference is due to chance

80
Q

What is nominal data?

A

Data as totals of named categories that are unrelated

81
Q

What is ordinal data?

A

Data as points along a scale, such that the points fall in order BUT don’t have equal gaps between them

82
Q

What is interval data?

A

Data as points on a scale that has equal gaps between the points

83
Q

What is opportunity sampling?

A

Participants chosen because they are available at the time

84
Q

What is self-selected sampling?

A

Participants invited to participate

85
Q

What is snowball sampling?

A

Small number of participants contact more participants

86
Q

What is random sampling?

A

Members of population are allocated numbers & a fixed amount of these are selected in an unbiased way

87
Q

What is satisfied sampling?

A

All types of members of the population are represented by deliberately selecting P’s from all strata

88
Q

What is primary data?

A

Collect yourself

89
Q

What is secondary data?

A

Someone else collects it & you use it

90
Q

What are measures of central tendency?

A

Average score from a data set

91
Q

What is the mode?

A

Measure of CT worked out as the most frequent score in a set of results (any data & CT for nominal data)

92
Q

What is the median?

A

Measure of CT worked out as the middle score in the list when data is ranked. If 2 numbers are in the middle, they are added together & divided by 2 (used with nominal & ordinal data)

93
Q

What is the mean?

A

Measure of CT worked out by adding up all the scores & diving it by the number of scores (used with interval data)

94
Q

What is the range?

A

Measure of dispersion based on the biggest & smallest values in a data set ( + 1)

95
Q

What is variance?

A

Measure of dispersion that calculates the average difference between each score. Bigger value = greater dispersion

96
Q

What is standard deviation?

A

Measure of dispersion that calculates the average difference between each score & the mean. Bigger value = greater dispersion

97
Q

What is a type 1 error?

A

Alternate hypotheses is accepted when in fact results are due to chance

98
Q

What is a type 2 error?

A

Null hypotheses is accepted but results are not due chance therefore suggesting that there is no difference

99
Q

What are the key ethics that one should consider?

A

Privacy
Assent = continuously ask child if they want to participate
Deception = P’s not deliberately misinformed about the aims
Debrief = full explanation of aims & potential consequences of the study given to P’s after procedure
Informed consent = enough info about a study to know whether to agree to participate
Withdrawal = P’s should be aware that they can remove themselves & their data from the study
Avoiding harm of participants = P’s not put at any greater physical/psychological risk
Confidentiality = Individuals’ results & info kept safe & not be given to anyone outside study

100
Q

What are the key features of the Harvard method?

A

BOOK

Author, (year); Title, location, publisher

JOURNAL

Author; (year), Title, Journal Title, volume number, (issue number), page number