Definitions

Question 1

What is accelerate-stop distance available?

Answer 1

the length of the take-off run available plus the length of any stopway.

Question 2

an accident is (1)

Answer 2

an occurrence that is associated with the operation of an aircraft and takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and such time as all such persons have disembarked and the engine or any propellers or rotors come to rest,

Question 3

Accident being an occurrence in which—

Answer 3

(1) a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of—
(i) being in the aircraft; or
(ii) direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including any part that has become detached from the aircraft; or
(iii) direct exposure to jet blast

Question 4

An accident is person hurt except….

Answer 4

except when the injuries are self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or
when the injuries are to stowaways hiding outside the areas normally available to passengers and crew;

Question 5

an accident is (2)

Answer 5

the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure that—
(i) adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft; and
(ii) would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component

Excludes self-inflicted injuries, injuries inflicted by others, or injuries to stowaways hiding outside normal passenger and crew areas.

Question 6

An accident is aircraft damage except….

Answer 6

except engine failure or damage that is limited to the engine, its cowlings, or accessories, or damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, fairings, small dents, or puncture holes in the aircraft skin;

Question 7

an accident is (3)

Answer 7

the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.

Excludes engine failure or damage limited to the engine, its cowlings, or accessories, and damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, fairings, small dents, or puncture holes in the aircraft skin.

Question 8

What does ‘Act’ refer to?

Answer 8

The Civil Aviation Act 1990.

Question 9

aerodrome control service;

Answer 9

an air traffic control service provided for the control of aerodrome traffic.

Question 10

aerodrome operational area;

Answer 10

(1) the movement area at an aerodrome and its associated strips and safety areas; and
(2) any ground installation or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft operations.

Question 11

(g) aeronautical information circular;

Answer 11

a notice containing information that—

(1) does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIPNZ; and
(2) relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters.

Question 12

AIP supplement;

Answer 12

temporary changes to the information contained in the AIPNZ that are published by means of special pages.

Question 13

aircraft category

Answer 13

and category of aircraft

any one of the following classes of aircraft: aeroplane, balloon, glider, hang glider, helicopter, or microlight:

Question 14

air transport operation;

Answer 14

an operation for the carriage of passengers or goods by air for hire or reward except—

(1) a commercial transport operation:
(2) an adventure aviation operation:
(3) a helicopter external load operation under Part 133:
(4) an agricultural aircraft operation under Part 137:
(5) a trial flight.

Question 15

air operation; Part 1:

Answer 15

an air transport operation, a commercial transport operation, or an adventure aviation operation.

Question 16

air operation Part 121:

Answer 16

Air operation means an air transport operation or a commercial transport operation using an aeroplane having a seating configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding any required crew member seat, or a payload capacity of more than 3410 kg:

Question 17

airworthiness certificate;

Answer 17

(1) for a New Zealand registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the Director under Part 21, Subpart H; and
(2) for a foreign registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the competent authority of the State of registry.

Question 18

airworthiness directive

Answer 18

a mandatory airworthiness requirement that specifies modifications, inspections, conditions, or limitations to be applied to an aircraft or aeronautical product to ensure continued safe operating conditions:

Question 19

airworthy condition;

Answer 19

the condition of an aircraft, including its components, fuel, and other materials and substances essential to the manufacture and operation of the aircraft, that complies with all the requirements prescribed by the Civil Aviation Rules relating to design, manufacture, maintenance, modification, repair, and safety:

Question 20

area control;
Area control centre

Answer 20

a unit established to provide ATC service to controlled flights in control areas under its jurisdiction:

Question 21

area control;
Area control service

Answer 21

an air traffic control service provided for controlled flights in controlled airspace:

Question 22

ATC clearance;

Answer 22

authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit:

Question 23

ATC instruction;

Answer 23

a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action:

Question 24

aviation event;

Answer 24

an event to be conducted below the minimum safe heights prescribed under Part 91 that is—

(1) an air show or practice for an air show; or
(2) an air race or practice for an air race; or
(3) an aerobatic competition; or
(4) aerobatic training or practice.

Question 25

AWIB service;

Answer 25

an automatic broadcast of aerodrome and weather information provided specifically for the facilitation of aviation, and for the avoidance of doubt, an AWIB service is not an air traffic service.

Question 26

basic weather report;

Answer 26

a verbal comment, in support of aviation, describing any of the following current weather conditions observed at a particular place or airspace: (1) wind direction and strength: (2) mean sea level air pressure: (3) air temperature: (4) weather conditions and cloud cover.

Question 27

certificated organisation;

Answer 27

an organisation issued with a certificate under rules made under the Act:

Question 28

Class 3.1A Flammable liquid;

Answer 28

a liquid that has a flash point of below 23ºC and has an initial boiling point (IBP) of a maximum 35ºC, and includes petrol based products (Avgas)

Question 29

Class 3.1C Flammable liquid;

Answer 29

a liquid that has a flash point at or above 23ºC, but at or below 60ºC, and includes kerosene based products (Jet A1)

Question 30

Class 3.1D Flammable liquid;

Answer 30

a liquid that has a flash point of above 60ºC, but at or below 93ºC, and includes diesel products.

Question 31

Class B cargo or baggage compartment;

Answer 31

a cargo or baggage compartment in which— (1) there is sufficient access in flight to enable a crew member to effectively reach any part of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher; and (2) when the access provisions are being used, no hazardous quantity of smoke, flames, or extinguishing agent, will enter any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers; and (3) there is a separate approved smoke detector or fire detector system to give warning at the pilot or flight engineer station:

Question 32

clearance limit;

Answer 32

the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance:

Question 33

clearway;

Answer 33

a defined rectangular area on the ground or water, at the departure end of the runway— (1) under the control of the aerodrome operator; or (2) with the agreement of the authority controlling the clearway— selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height:

Question 34

command practice;

Answer 34

the performance by a co-pilot of the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command during a flight under the supervision of a pilot-in-command designated for the purpose by the operator:

Question 35

commercial transport operation;

Answer 35

an operation for the carriage of passengers or goods by air for hire or reward— (1) where— (i) each passenger is performing, or undergoing training to perform, a task or duty on the operation; or (ii) the passengers or goods are carried to or from a remote aerodrome— (2) except those operations in paragraph (1) that are— (i) a helicopter external load operation conducted under Part 133; or (ii) an agricultural aircraft operation conducted under Part 137.

Question 36

co-pilot;

Answer 36

a licensed pilot, serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-in-command; but does not include a pilot receiving flight instruction from a pilot on board the aircraft:

Question 37

cost sharing flight;

Answer 37

any flight that is performed solely for the carriage of persons where— (1) the flight is not advertised to the public; and (2) the crew members receive no payment or other reward for their services; and (3) the persons carried by the aircraft, including the crew members, share equally in the cost of the flight; and (4) no payment or other reward is required of a person on the flight other than that specified in subparagraph (3)— and, for the avoidance of doubt, a cost sharing flight is not an operation for hire or reward.

Question 38

crew member;

Answer 38

a person carried by an aircraft who is— (1) assigned by the operator— as a flight crew member or flight attendant to perform a duty associated with the operation of the flight; or to perform a duty associated with the operation of the aircraft during flight time; or (2) carried for the sole purpose of— undergoing or giving instruction in the control and navigation of the aircraft; or undergoing instruction as a flight engineer or flight attendant; or (3) authorised by the Director to exercise a function associated with the operation of the aircraft during flight time; or (4) a flight examiner.

Question 39

dangerous goods;

Answer 39

articles or substances that are capable of posing risk to health, safety, property, or the environment and— (a) are listed in, or classified in accordance with, the ICAO’s Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air; or (b) have properties that would result in the articles or substances being classified as dangerous goods under the ICAO’s Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air.

Question 40

dual flight time;

Answer 40

flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from an appropriately licensed and rated pilot on board a dual control aircraft:

Question 41

emergency locator transmitter;

Answer 41

an equipment that broadcasts a distinctive signal on a designated radio frequency to facilitate a search and rescue operation.

Question 42

final reserve fuel;

Answer 42

the minimum quantity of fuel required to provide a margin to secure the safe completion of a flight in the event of any unplanned manoeuvring in the vicinity of the destination or alternate or a suitable aerodrome, as the case may be, and in ordinary circumstances remains on board until completion of the landing:

Question 43

fit and proper person;

Answer 43

a person who satisfies the fit and proper person test specified in the Act:

Question 44

flight examiner;

Answer 44

a person who holds a flight examiner rating issued in accordance with Part 61 or is approved by the Director to conduct specific flight tests:

Question 45

flight attendant;

Answer 45

an appropriately trained person assigned by the operator to be responsible to the pilot-in-command for passenger safety on an aircraft.

Question 46

flight crew member;

Answer 46

an appropriately qualified person assigned by the operator for duty in an aircraft during flight time as a pilot or flight engineer:

Question 47

flight manual;

Answer 47

a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft may be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft:

Question 48

flight plan;

Answer 48

specified information that is required under the rules to be provided to an ATS unit or to a flight following service regarding an intended flight, or portion of a flight, of an aircraft:

Question 49

flight time;

Answer 49

(1) for an aircraft other than a balloon, the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight including any associated push back, taxiing and subsequent holding time; and (2) for a balloon, the total time from burner on for the purpose of inflation for flight until the envelope is completely deflated at the end of a flight.

Question 50

incident;

Answer 50

any occurrence, other than an accident, that is associated with the operation of an aircraft and affects or could affect the safety of operation:

Question 51

landing distance available;

Answer 51

the length of the runway that is declared by the aerodrome operator as available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane:

Question 52

passenger;

Answer 52

in relation to an aircraft, means any person carried by the aircraft, other than a crew member:

Question 53

pilot-in-command;

Answer 53

in relation to any aircraft, means the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft:

Question 54

rating;

Answer 54

an authorisation entered on, or associated with, a licence, certificate, or logbook, and forming part of it, stating special conditions, privileges, or limitations relating to the licence or certificate:

Question 55

regular air transport passenger service;

Answer 55

a service offered by an operator consisting of four or more air transport operations for the carriage of passengers between two or more aerodromes within any consecutive 28 day period:

Question 56

serious incident;

Answer 56

an incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occurred:

Question 57

SEIFR passenger operation;

Answer 57

an air transport operation carrying passengers in a single-engine aeroplane under IFR:

Question 58

takeoff distance available;

Answer 58

the length of the take-off run available plus the length of any clearway:

Question 59

takeoff run available;

Answer 59

the length of the runway declared by the aerodrome operator as available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking-off:

Question 60

takeoff weight;

Answer 60

the weight of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run and includes everything and everyone carried in or on the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run:

Question 61

Technical Instructions;

Answer 61

ICAO Document 9284: Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air, approved and published by decision of the Council of the International Civil Aviation Organisation under Annex 18 of the Convention:

Question 62

threshold; (CAR 121.3)

Answer 62

that point where a 1:20 obstacle-free approach surface intersects the runway surface.

Question 63

transition altitude; (AIP GEN)

Answer 63

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes.

Question 64

transition layer; (AIP GEN)

Answer 64

The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.

Question 65

transition level; (AIP GEN)

Answer 65

The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude. May also be known as the Lowest Usable Flight Level. The transition level is FL150, except that: when the zone area QNH is 980 hPa or less, FL160 is to be used; or within the area of a circle of 20NM radius centred on Mt Cook, FL160 is to be used if the aircraft is in IMC.

Question 66

turbofan

Answer 66

a turbojet core engine that uses a proportion of the residual gas flow energy to drive a compressor ducting gas flow around the core engine as additional propulsion:

Question 67

turbojet

Answer 67

a gas turbine engine that uses the residual gas flow energy directly as propulsion:

Question 68

turboprop

Answer 68

a gas turbine engine that uses the residual gas flow energy to drive a propeller:

Question 69

type;

Answer 69

(1) in relation to the licensing of aviation personnel means all aircraft of the same basic design, including all modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a significant change in handling or flight characteristics; or (2) in relation to the certification of aircraft, aircraft engines, or propellers, means those aircraft, aircraft engines or propellers which are similar in design.

Question 70

unlawful interference;

Answer 70

an act or attempted act endangering a passenger, crew member, ground personnel, aircraft, or facility:

Question 71

VFR flight;

Answer 71

a flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules:

Question 72

visibility;

Answer 72

the ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of measurement, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night:

Question 73

visual meteorological conditions;

Answer 73

meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling equal to or better than specified minima:

Question 74

ZFT simulator.

Answer 74

a synthetic flight trainer which— (1) meets the standard of level 5 as described in New Zealand Civil Aviation Publication CAP 37 dated 1 March 1986; or (2) meets the standard of level D/phase III as described in Appendix H (dated 30 July 1980) to Part 121 of the United States Federal Aviation Regulations; or (3) meets an equivalent standard acceptable to the Director.