DEFINITIONS #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Assistive/Prosthetic Device

A

means a device used to replace, compensate for, or improve the functional abilities of people with disabilities or for trans or gender diverse persons to affirm gender identity. Assistive device includes a broad range of items such as mobility and visual/hearing aids, orthotics/prosthetics, speech devices, medical supplies, environmental controls and respiratory devices. Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises and wigs

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2
Q

Disability

A

a. any degree of physical disability, infirmity, malformation or disfigurement that is caused by bodily injury, birth defect or illness and, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, includes diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, a brain injury, any Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises and wigs degree of paralysis, amputation, lack of physical co-ordination, blindness or visual impediment, deafness or hearing impediment, muteness or speech impediment, or physical reliance on a guide dog or other animal or on a wheelchair or other remedial appliance or device;
b. a condition of mental impairment or a developmental disability;
c. a learning disability, or a dysfunction in one or more of the processes involved in understanding or using symbols or spoken language;
d. a mental disorder, or;
e. an injury or disability for which benefits were claimed or received under the insurance plan established under the Workplace Safety and Insurance Act;

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3
Q

Gender

A

the set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or neither.

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4
Q

Service Members’ Perception Data

A

information derived from a member making a determination with respect to the race of an individual by observation, solely on the basis of that member’s own perception.

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5
Q

Sex

A

the classification of people as male, female or intersex based on a specific combination of reproductive organs, chromosomes and hormones and assigned at birth based on observation of a person’s genitals.

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6
Q

Trans

A

is an umbrella term referring to people with diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned sex at birth. It includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity.

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7
Q

Gender Expression

A

how a person publicly presents their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and important ways of expressing gender

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8
Q

Gender identity

A

each person’s internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man, both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual orientation

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9
Q

Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome (AWS)

A

is characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Symptoms of AWS may appear within 6 – 12 hours after a person’s last consumption of alcohol.

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10
Q

A Warrant in the First Instance can be obtained by A peace officer, who believes that

A

an offence has been committed by a person not yet apprehended. The Justice must be given reasonable grounds to believe that it is in the public interest that a warrant be issued.

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11
Q

A warrant of committal may be issued by the court upon

A

the conviction of an accused for an offence. It directs peace officers to arrest the named/described individual and generally, in default of payment of monetary penalty set by the court, to serve a period of time in jail.

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12
Q

A bench warrant is an arrest warrant in

A

Form 7 issued by a Justice having jurisdiction when an accused has failed to attend court

  • when directed by Summons, Appearance Notice, Promise to Appear, Recognizance Entered Before an Officer in Charge, Judicial Interim Release, or
  • when directed by the court to return on a subsequent date
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13
Q

Material witness warrants are issued by a Justice for

A

the apprehension of a witness who is evading service of a subpoena or has not appeared in court after being served a subpoena (s. 698 and 705 CC)

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14
Q

a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA) officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of

A

a permanent resident or a foreign national whom the officer has reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an admissibility hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA.

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15
Q

Family Responsibility Arrest Warrants may be issued if

A

a support payor fails to attend a FRSAEA Default Hearing

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16
Q

the Health Protection and Promotion Act gives the Medical Officer of Health (MOH) having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a court order to compel the named person to be detained for treatment when

A

a patient either refuses to be confined for treatment or has escaped from a medical facility while undergoing treatment for a contagious, virulent or infectious disease. The order is specific to the named person, a named hospital and the police service in the jurisdiction where the application is made

17
Q

Abandoned Property

A

a thing over which a person has surrendered any possessory right or privacy right and which may or may not relate to a crime and/or crime scene and which potentially has some evidentiary value.

18
Q

Continued Detention

A

the detention of property beyond the initial 3 months from the date of seizure

19
Q

Seized Property

A

a thing, including informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s consent.

20
Q

Sudden Death

A

an unexpected death that is instantaneous or occurs within minutes or hours from any cause other than violence.

21
Q

Unnatural Sudden Death

A

the unexpected death of a person by suicide, homicide, accident or suspicious circumstances, and includes found human remains, in whole or in part

22
Q

Amber Alert

A

means a co–operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of Transportation to provide early notification to the public where a person under 18 years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstances lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the abducted person, and/or the abductor, and/or the abductor’s vehicle to believe an immediate broadcast alert will help in locating the person. An AMBER Alert will have a duration of 5 hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended.

23
Q

Level 1 Missing Person Search

A

means the level of search implemented when a person is reported missing and there are no extenuating circumstances. At this level, there are minimal concerns regarding the issue of foul play or the infirmity or limitations of the missing person.

24
Q

Level 2 Missing Person Search

A

means the level of search when a missing person is:

  • under 16 years and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves;
  • mentally challenged;
  • over 65 years of age or infirm, or;
  • there is evidence of foul play.
25
Q

Level 3 Missing Person Search

A

means the level of search implemented when the Level 1 and Level 2 missing person searches are ineffective or if the situation, due to the extenuating circumstances, necessitates that this level be initiated immediately.

26
Q

Missing Person

A

means a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person:

The persons whereabouts are unknown and,
-the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person, or -it is reasonable in the circumstances to fear for the person’s safety because of the circumstances surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.

A member of a police force is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so.

27
Q

Search Management Team

A

the team from Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO), supported by the requesting division, responsible for co–ordinating a Level 3 search for a missing person

28
Q

Regulated Interaction

A

an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a face-to-face encounter, to identify himself or herself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected,

  • only if that attempt is done for the purpose of,
    • inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
    • inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
    • gathering information for intelligence purposes;
29
Q

Regulated Interaction does not include

A

an attempted collection made by a police officer for the purpose of investigating an offence the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed; and does not include an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual if,

  • the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer;
  • the individual is under arrest or is being detained;
  • the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;
  • the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or
  • the individual from whom the police officer attempts to collect information is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to the carrying out of the police officer’s duties.
30
Q

Intelligence led policing consists of

A

components including crime management, disorder resolution, problem oriented policing, targeted policing and directed patrol.

31
Q

Community Policing is

A

an operational philosophy requiring local police–community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order, and enforce the law.

32
Q

Crime Prevention

A

the anticipation, recognition and appraisal of a crime risk followed by the initiation of some action to remove or reduce the risk, and the measurement and evaluation of the outcome

33
Q

Order Maintenance

A

the act of upholding community standards, using both informal community activities and law enforcement to create a safer environment, and an improved quality of life

34
Q

Problem Oriented Policing

A

a technique by which public disorder and crime issues are identified, analyzed, and strategies are developed to eliminate or bring the issues under contro

35
Q

Target Policing

A

the targeting of offenders or offences within a specific time period and/or a specific geographic area.

36
Q

The duties of a police officer are set out in subsection 42(1) of the Police Services Act (PSA). These are

A

a) preserving the peace
b) preventing crimes and other offences and providing assistance and encouragement to other persons in their prevention
c) assisting victims of crime
d) apprehending criminals and other offenders and others who may lawfully be taken into custody e) laying charges and participating in prosecutions
f) executing warrants that are to be executed by police officers and performing related duties
g) performing lawful duties that the chief of police assigns

37
Q

Confidential Source – Level 2

A
  • a source under the age of 18 (young person), or
  • a source whose information could be considered:
  • multi–jurisdictional;
  • may affect national security;
  • involves organized crime;
  • is beyond the resources or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved;
  • at the discretion of the Controller.