defenses Flashcards

1
Q

what are the five general types of defenses?

A

JOFEN (1) justification, (2) offense modification, (3) failure of proof, (4) excuse, (5) non-exculpatory public policy

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2
Q

explain the “failure of proof” general type of defense

A

all elements are not met - insufficient evidence

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3
Q

explain the “offense modification” general defense

A

abandonment of intent to commit crime

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4
Q

explain the “justification” general type of defense

A

self defense

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5
Q

explain the “excuse” general type of defense

A

insanity - all elements are proven, but perpetrator was insane

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6
Q

explain the “non exculpatory public policy” general type of defense

A

statute of limitations

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7
Q

the burden of proof for denenses is on whom?

A

the defendant

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8
Q

what kind of defense instructions is the defendant entitled to?

A

defendant is entitled to instructions on ANY defense, including inconsistent ones, with evidentiary support

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9
Q

five elements of self defense

A

threatened with use or threat of imminent use of unlawful force that does or couseld cause physical injury and which a reasonable person would believe could not be avoided without use of physical force

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10
Q

requirements of actor in self-defense

A

actor defends with reasonable amount of force and was not the aggressor

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11
Q

required proportionality in self-defense

A

no deadly force allowed to resist a non-deadly threat

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12
Q

reasonable belief aspect of self-defense

A

defendant must reasonably believe (even if incorrectly) that this force was necessary and proportional

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13
Q

immediacy of threat of harm for self defense under common law and MPC?

A

threat of harm must be imminent

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14
Q

need to retreat under self defense in common law?

A

no need to retreat

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15
Q

need to retreat under self defense in MPC?

A

must retreat (except in own home)

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16
Q

reasonable belief aspect of self defense in common law?

A

objectively reasonable belief

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17
Q

reasonable belief aspect of self defense in MPC?

A

subjective belief

18
Q

definition of deadly force related to self-defense

A

likely or intended to cause death or serious bodily harm

19
Q

explain when shifting agressor status comes into play

A

when non-deadly aggressor is responded to with deadly aggression

20
Q

common law (majority rule) duty to retreat under self defense

A

retreat NOT REQUIRED unless defendant shares some fault for the affray

21
Q

MPC (minority rule) duty to retreat under self defense

A

must attempt retreat first, but only if safe to do so

22
Q

definition and applicability of castle exception

A

don’t have to retreat in your own home - MPC duty to retreat under self defense

23
Q

applicability of “defense of others” defense

A

requires that third party be in imminent danger of death or serious harm

24
Q

requirements of “defense of others”

A

proportionality and reasonable belief

25
Q

explain common law “alter ego” rule applicable to “defense of others”

A

if third party would have had the right of self defense, intervener can assert this defense

26
Q

explain MPC “reasonable belief rule” applicable to “defense of others”

A

an intervener who acts in defense of another is not liable if his or her actions were reasoable under the circumstances

27
Q

when is non-deadly force justified when defending one’s property?

A

if one reasonably believes it is necessary to prevent imminent, unlawful dispossession of property

28
Q

when is deadly force NOT jusified under “defense of property” specifications?

A

to reclaim property or to avoid being dispossessed of property

29
Q

when is deadly force justified under “defense of habitation” specs?

A

if defendant reasonably believes entry is imment, aggressor will commit felony or any bodily harm inside, and deadly force is necessary to stop it

30
Q

springs and traps allowed to defend property under common law?

A

permitted, but only if the person was actually authorized to use deadly force

31
Q

springs and traps allowed to defend property under MPC?

A

no

32
Q

necessity (approximate) elements

A

defendant chose lesser of the evils - no time to seek legal assistance, had to act to prevent imminent harm, reasonably anticipated a direct causal relationship between his acts and the harm to be averted

33
Q

applicability of necessity defense

A

limited to natural emergencies, protection of persons/property, actual harms

34
Q

exceptions to necessity defense

A

not as a defense to homicide, your actions have to reasonably be able to stop an imminent harm

35
Q

requirements of a duress defense

A

another person unlawfully threatens imminent deadly force, there’s no reasonable escape, and defendant is not at fault in exposing themselves to the threat

36
Q

exceptions for duress defense

A

not applicable to murder - can only be used for a HUMAN unlawful threat (vs natural)

37
Q

subjective test (majority rule) for entrapment defense

A

if govt implants in an innocent agent the disposition to commit the offense and induces its commission

38
Q

definition of predisposition as related to entrapment defense

A

a person is predisposed if, when first approached, he is ready and willing to commit the crime

39
Q

objective test (minority rule) for entrapment defense

A

police conduct falls below standard of the proper use of government power (very vague)

40
Q

five factors in determining predisposition related to entrapment defense

A

character of defendant, who first suggested criminal activity, whether D engaged in activity for profit, whether D demonstrated reluctance, and nature of govt’s inducement