Defenses Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a credibility of evidence defense? Examples?

A

Fact-based defense focused on caling into question the credibility of the prosecution’s evidence.

Misidentification, witness lying/bias

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2
Q

What is a government misconduct defense? Examples?

A

Can be question of law or fact-based argument for jury focused on the legality or thoroughness of the investigation

Entrapment, prosecutorial misconduct, illegal search or seizure, forensic errors

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3
Q

What is a sufficiency of the evidence defense? Examples?

A

Question of law challenging that the government has not presented evidence to prove each element of the offense beyond a reasonable doubt

No proof of requisite mental state (mistake of law/fact), no proof of completed act

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4
Q

What is an affirmative defense? Examples?

A

A justification or excuse. Question of law not challenging that the elements ofthe offense have been met, but rather that a legal justification or excuse exists.

Self defense, duress/necessity, insanity, intoxication

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5
Q

How are affirmative defenses proven? Who bears the burden?

A

With affirmative defenses, the burden of proof shifts to the defendant, usually by a preponderance of the evidence, when the defense establishes separate and distinct facts in mitigation of culpability, as opposed to defenses that negate an element of the crime.

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6
Q

What are justifications?

A

Justifications focus on the act, not the actor, and excuse criminal conduct because it benefits society in some way or it is useful to society.

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7
Q

What are excuses?

A

Excuses focus on the actor, not the act, and excuse culpability because the actor is judged not to be blameworthy.

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8
Q

Is there a limit to what/how many defense theories are raised?

A

As long as there is sufficient evidence to support whatever defense theory they want to bring up, they can bring multiple defenses, even if the theories contradict. It is up to the jury to decide whether they buy any of the theories or not.

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9
Q

When must a judge instruct a jury about a defense? Why?

A

If a theory is sufficiently raised, the judge must instruct the jury on that defense. The Due Process clause guarantees a defendant’s right to present a defense.

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10
Q

When may/may not evidence of a defense theory be excluded?

A

When the exclusion of evidence significantly undermines fundamental elements of the defendant’s defense, it becomes unconstitutional. However, a trial court may exclude a defdendant’s evidence when their theory is unsupported, speculative, and far-fetched and could thereby confuse or mislead the jury.

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11
Q

Must the prosecution establish a defendant’s identity?

A

Yes. The prosecution must establish the defendant’s identity beyond a reasonable doubt as the perpetrator of the crime.

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12
Q

When does identity play a role in defense theories?

A

A common defense theory is that a third party actually committed the crime.

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13
Q

What evidence must a defendant provide to establish that a third person committed the crime?

A

Evidence that the third party had either motive or opportunity alone is too speculative. The defendant must have evidence that the third party had both motive and oppotunity.

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14
Q

What is often required for an alibi defense?

A

When the defendant proposes to offer evidence to the effect that he was at some other place at the time of the crime charged, he shall give notice in writing of that fact to the prosecution.

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15
Q

Regarding an alibi defense,

What does the notice usually state? Consequences of no notice?

A

The notice shall state where the defendant contends he was and names or witnesses to support the defense. Failure to provide the required notice bars the defendant from raising an alibi defense at trial.

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16
Q

Regarding the alibi defense,

Why is notice required?

A

Notice requirements are designed to eliminate the surprise alibi testimony at trial because the state cannot investigate alibi evidence until they know where and with whom the defendant claims to have been at the time of the crime.

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17
Q

Does the defendant have to provide notice if simply stating he wasn’t there?

A

No. Because the state knows it has to prove that the defendant was present at the scene fo the crime, so it should not be surprised by evidence that the defendant was merely not at the scene.

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18
Q

What is the necessity defense?

A

Necessity (choice of evils) is a defense when a person reasonably believes that the commission of a crime is necessary to avoid an imminent and greater injury to society than that involved in the crime. This is an objective test.

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19
Q

At common law, what was required of the injury in necessity?

A

At common law, the injury had to come from natural forces.

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20
Q

What must the defendant prove for a necessity defense?

A

That there was an unforeseen emergency requiring immediate action to prevent imminent injury and that the criminal conduct did not exceed what was reasonably necessary to avoid the injury.

21
Q

When is the necessity defense not available? (3)

A
  1. When the defendant had a reaosnable legal alterantive
  2. When the “emergency” is merely economic necessity
  3. When killing another person
22
Q

What are the two types of civil disobedience?

A
  1. Direct: challenges particular law by breaking it
  2. Indirect: violates a law that is not the object of protest
23
Q

When is/is not necessity a defense to civil disobedience?

A

Generally, necessity can be a defense to direct civil disobedience but not to indirect civil disobedience.

24
Q

What is duress?

A

Duress is a defense when a person reasonably believed that another person would imminently inflict death or great bodily harm upon them or their family if they did not commit the crime.

25
Q

Under duress, does it matter whether a threat is explicit or implicit?

A

A threat can be explicit or implict arising from the circumstances. Duress always involves a threat by a human.

26
Q

What is entrapment?

A

Entrapment exists when (1) the criminal design originated with law enforcement and (2) the defendant was not predisposed to commit the crime prior to contact by the government. Merely providing the opportunity for a predispossed person to commit a crime is not entrapment.

27
Q

What are the two different theories of entrapment?

A
  1. The majority subjective view focuses on the defendant’s dispositoin before the offense.
  2. The minority (MPC) objective view focuses on the nature of the police conduct before the crime.
28
Q

What are the stages when the defendan’ts mental health can be relevant in a criminal proceeding? (4)

A
  1. Pre-trial hearings: competency to stand trial
  2. Trial: Affirmative defense of insanity or diminished capacity
  3. Sentencing: Mitigating circumstances
  4. Execution: Competency to be executed
29
Q

What is competency?

A

A competency evaluation addresses whether the defendant, due to a mental disease or defect, lacks the capacity to (1) consult with their attorney to assist in their defense or (2) understand the nature of the proceedings brought against them,

30
Q

What if a defendant is found incompetent?

A

If a defendant is incompetent, due process considerations require suspension of the criminal trial until such time, if any, that the defendant regains the capacity to participate in his defense and understand the proceedings against him.

31
Q

After a competency evaluation,

How long can a defendant be held?

A

A defendant cannot be held more than the reasonable period of time necessary to determine whether there is a substantial probability that he will become competent in the near future. If there is a substantial probability, the defendant is held and reevaluated. If not, the defendant must be released or committed under civil proceedings.

32
Q

Who provides the competency evaluation?

A

Due process requires states to provide a defendant access to procedures for making a competency evaluations

33
Q

Who bears the burden to prove incompetency?

A

The state can put the burden of proof on the defendant to show incompetency. Essentially, there is a presumption of competency that a defendant must overcome by a preponderance ofthe evidence.

34
Q

Name the four insanity tests

A
  1. M’Naghten Test
  2. Irresistible Impulse Test
  3. Durham Test
  4. MPC Test
35
Q

What is the M’Naghten Test for insanity?

A

Defendant suffered a disease of the mind that caused a defect of reason so that at the time of the offense the defendant lacked the ability to either (1) understand the nature and quality of their actions (cognitive capacity) or (2) know the wrongfulness of their actions (moral capacity)

36
Q

What is the irresistible impulse test for insanity?

A

Defendant due to a mental disease or defect was unable to control their actions or conform their conduct to the law.

37
Q

What is Durham Test for insanity?

A

The offense was the product of the defendant’s mental disease or defect.

38
Q

What is the MPC test for insanity?

A

Defendant due to a mental disease or defect lacked the substantial capacity to either: (a) appreciate the criminality oftheir conduct or (b) conform their conduct to the requirements of the law

39
Q

Does the Costitution require an insanity defense?

A

No. Federal courts have left the question to the states.

40
Q

What is the defintion of mental disease or defect?

A

Mental disease or defect is not defined. The courts have expresssed reluctance to rely on medical categories and labels ebcause it is viewed as a question of legal, moral, and policy judgments rather than a medical question.

41
Q

What are examples of mental diseases or defects?

A

PTSD, schizophrenia, delusional disorder, bipolar disorder, schizoaffective disorder, major depression, moderate intellectual disability, and brief psychotic disorder

42
Q

What kind of defense is insanity?

A

Insanity is an affirmative defense. All defendants are presumed sane and must raise the issue of insanity.

43
Q

What is the burden of proof for the insanity defense? (3 approaches)

A
  1. Some states: shifts to defendant to prove by a preponderance of the evidence
  2. MPC: defendant raises issue of insanity, prosecution proves sanity beyond a reasonable doubt
  3. Federal court and some states: shifts to defendant to prove by clear and convincing evidence
44
Q

What happens if defendant is found not guilty by reason of insanity?

A

In most juridictions, a defendant found not guilty by reason of insanity can be committed to a mental institution until cured. Depending on the severity of the offense, committal can be immediate. Confinement can exceed the maximum period of incarceration for the offense charged.

45
Q

What is the deific decree exception?

A

Insanity can also be established when a defendant knows the criminal act was wrong but believed, as a result of mental defect, that a deity commanded the act.

46
Q

What is diminished capacity?

A

Diminished capacity is a “defense” that allows a defendant to introduce evidence of a mental disease or defect that negates the mental state required for the crimes charged. The mental disease or defect does not rise to the level of insanity, though.

47
Q

How do common law states treat diminished capacity?

A

Most states that allow diminished capacity as a defense limit it to specific intent crimes, but a few allow it for general intent crimes.

48
Q

In general, what are the three approaches to diminished capacity?

A
  1. Allowed as a separate defense from the insanity defense;
  2. Not permitted as a separate defense but allow evidence of diminished capacity only to the extent that it negates the required mental state; or
  3. Not permitted as a separate defense but allow evidence of diminished capacity when it rises to the level of insanity
49
Q

What is “guilty but mentally ill”?

A

Someone who has a mental disease or defect but the insanity defense would not apply