DECKS Flashcards
The measure of the quality of care provided in a particular setting is called:
a. quality assurance
b. quality evaluation
c. quality assessment
d. quality inspection
c. quality assessment
When obtaining informed consent, the patient must be informed of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. a description of the proposed treatment
b. the costs involved in the proposed treatment
c. the foreseeable risks
d. the benefits and prognosis of the proposed treatment
e. all reasonable alternatives to the proposed treatment
f. the risks, benefits, and prognosis of the alternative treatments
b. the costs involved in the proposed treatment
The dentist has diagnosed and recommended specific treatment for a patient of recordand remains on the premises while the patient is being treated. This type of dental supervision is known as:
a. general supervision
b. direct supervision
c. indirect supervision
d. personal supervision
b. direct supervision
Abuse of a child can mean:
a. physical abuse
b. sexual abuse
c. physical neglect
d. emotional abuse
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
In the code (Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct), under the definition of beneficence (“do good”), the dentist is obliged to:
a. give the highest quality of service of which he or she is capable
b. preserve a healthy dentition unless it compromises the well-being of other teeth
c. participate in legal and public health-related matters
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which principle in the code refers to “self governance?”
a. veracity
b. justice
c. autonomy
d. beneficence
e. nonmaleficence
c. autonomy (self-governance)
In the code (Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct), under the definition of justice (“fairness”), dentists:
a. shall not refuse to accept patients into their practice or deny dental service to patients because of the patient’s race, creed, color, sex, or national origin
b. Have the general obligation to provide care to those in need. A decision not to provide treatment to an individual because the individual is infected with Human Immunodeficiency Virus, Hepatitis B Virus, Hepatitis C Virus, or another blood-borne pathogen, based solely on that fact, is unethical.
c. shall be obligated to make reasonable arrangements for the emergency care of their patients of record.
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
NOTES:
Justice= fairness
Which principle in the code expresses the concept that professionals have a duty to be honest and trustworthy in their dealings with people?
a. autonomy
b. justice
c. beneficence
d. veracity
e. nonmaleficence
d. veracity (truthfulness)
Which principle in the code expresses the concept that professionals have a duty to protect the patient from harm?
a. beneficence
b. autonomy
c. veracity
d. nonmaleficence
e. justice
d. nonmaleficence (do no harm)
A disciplinary penalty that may be imposed on a dentist found guilty of unethical conduct that consists of a disciplinary sentence written to express severe criticism or disapproval for a particular type of conduct or act is considered a:
a. suspension
b. probation
c. censure
d. revocation of license
c. censure
NOTES:
Censure: a disciplinary sentence written to express severe criticism or disapproval for a particular type of conduct or act
Suspension: a loss of membership privileges for a certain period with automatic reinstatement
Probation: a specified period without the loss of rights in lieu of a suspended disciplinary penalty. A dentist on probation may be required to practice under the supervision of a dentist or other individual approved by the dental board
Revocation of license: absolute severance from the profession
Which of the following statements are true?
a. a dentist who accepts a third party payment under a co-payment plan as payment in full without disclosing to the third party that the patient’s payment portion will not be collected, is engaged in overbilling
b. it is unethical for a dentist to increase a fee to a patient solely because the patient is covered under a dental benefits plan
c. a dentist who submits a claim form to a third party reporting incorrect treatment dates for the purpose of assisting a patient in obtaining benefits under a dental plan, which would otherwise be disallowed, is engaged in making an unethical, false, or misleading representation to such a third party
d. all of the above statements are true
d. all of the above statements are true
A dentist is allowed to advertise unearned degrees as titles to enhance prestige.
A dentist may use the title Doctor or Dentist, DDS, DMD, or any additionally eared, advance academic degree in health service areas in announcement to the public.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
A dentist is allowed to advertise unearned degrees as titles to enhance prestige.❌
Since the name under which a dentist conducts his or her practice may be a factor in the selection process of the patient, the use of a trade name or an assumed name that is misleading in any material respect is unethical. Use of the name of a dentist no longer actively associated with the practice may be continued for a period not to exceed:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
a. 1 year
Arrange the following steps of the educational process in correct order.
- Expressing needs
- Stimulating motivation
- Recognizing needs
- Evaluating results
- Reinforcing learning
- Setting goals
- Acting to achieve goals
(3) Recognizing needs
(1) Expressing needs
(2) Stimulating motivation
(6) Setting goals
(7) Acting to achieve goals
(5) Reinforcing learning
(4) Evaluating results
Identify each of the following statements that are true concerning needs and learning.
a. Needs are driving forces that prompt a person to act
b. The process of learning is continuous
c. Learning occurs as a person attempts to satisfy needs
d. Expressing needs helps to pinpoint them for the patient and dentist
e. Recording educational needs can be as important as recording treatment needs
f. All of the above statements are true
f. All of the above statements are true
Most researchers believe that changes in behavior are a prerequisite to changes in attitude.
Behavior can be defined as a determined, purposeful unit of activity.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
The principal nonverbal cue that two or more persons can use to regulate verbal communication is:
a. Posture
b. Facial expression
c. Eye contact
d. Gestures
e. Proximity
c. Eye contact
Classical conditioning differs from operant conditioning in several ways. All of the following are characteristics of the former and not the latter EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Involves a stimulus leading to a response
b. Pavlov’s Dogs
c. Attempts to change behavior through reinforcement or punishment
d. Neutral stimulus becomes conditioned stimulus
c. Attempts to change behavior through reinforcement or punishment ❌(Operant conditioning)
Which type of aggression is an act of hostility unnecessary for self-protection or preservation that is directed toward an external object or person?
a. Destructive aggression
b. Inward aggression
c. Constructive aggression
a. Destructive aggression
“You’re not afraid of needles, are you?”
a. Direct
b. Probing
c. Laundry list
d. Open-ended
e. Leading
f. Facilitating
e. Leading
Leading questions entice a patient to answer in a specific way; leading questions should not be used with patients
“How are you doing with brushing & flossing?”
a. Direct
b. Probing
c. Laundry list
d. Open-ended
e. Leading
f. Facilitating
d. Open-ended
Open-ended questions request information in the patient’s own words and specify a content area
“How are you?”
a. Direct
b. Probing
c. Laundry list
d. Open-ended
e. Leading
f. Facilitating
f. Facilitating
Facilitating questions encourage the patient to say more without specifying an area or topic
“Is it easier to hold the brush this way?”
a. Direct
b. Probing
c. Laundry list
d. Open-ended
e. Leading
f. Facilitating
a. Direct
Direct questions asked for a specific bit of information
“What else did you notice about your gums?”
a. Direct
b. Probing
c. Laundry list
d. Open-ended
e. Leading
f. Facilitating
b. Probing
Probing questions ask for more specific information that the Patient offers spontaneously
“Is the pain sharp, dull, or throbbing?”
a. Direct
b. Probing
c. Laundry list
d. Open-ended
e. Leading
f. Facilitating
c. Laundry list
Laundry list questions give the patient a list of choices
A patient presents to your office for a root canal procedure and reports avoiding the dentist in the past due to dental anxiety. In response, you plan to do all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Build trust and mutual respect through rapport
b. Use understandable language
c. Implement the SUDS technique to assess the patients anxiety level
d. Avoid explaining the procedure to allay patient fear
d. Avoid explaining the procedure to allay patient fear❌
Which type of parent has an excessively demanding attitude?
a. Neglectful parent
b. Overprotective parent
c. Manipulative parent
d. Hostile parent
c. Manipulative parent
Dental fear is an unpleasant mental, emotional or physiologic sensation derived from a specific dental related stimulus.
Someone who experiences fear will not necessarily be anticipating a negative event, their response will occur at the moment the unpleasant event (e.g., pain) occurs.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
A 32-year-old woman visits the dental office for a routine dental cleaning. The dental hygienist discovers that the patient has not been following the home care program that was recommended six months ago. The hygienist believes that the problem is not a skills deficiency but a management deficiency instead. What is the best course of action for the hygienist?
a. Accept that the patient might never change her habits
b. Provide the patient with a pamphlet on periodontal disease
c. Collaborate with the dentist to determine the course of action
d. Go over brushing & flossing techniques
c. Collaborate with the dentist to determine the course of action
Using the Tell-show-do technique is an example of:
a. Behavior shaping
b. Hypnodontics
c. HOME technique
d. Aversive conditioning
a. Behavior shaping
Which one of the following is a conceptual framework that describes a person’s health behavior as an expression of his or her health beliefs?
a. Health maintenance model
b. Health role model
c. Health belief model
d.Leading circle model
c. Health belief model
A behavior modification technique which reduces anxiety by identifying a stimulus hierarchy and implementing graduated exposure is known as:
a. Systematic desensitization
b. Classical conditioning
c. Aversive conditioning
d. Operant conditioning
a. Systematic desensitization
Five techniques are used to facilitate patient dialogue: empathy, respect, reflection, interpretation and silence.
Reflection is the explanation and understanding of the patient’s comments.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
Reflection is the explanation and understanding of the patient’s comments.❌
INTERPRETATION is the explanation and understanding of the patient’s comments.
Each of the following are ways to communicate effectively with patients EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Describe
b. Evaluate
c. Be specific
d. Be responsive
d. Pay attention
b. Evaluate
Each of the following are considered to be aversive conditions of interaction between the dentist and patient EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Psychophysiological reactions
b. Stress, anxiety & fear
c. Preventive oral health behavior
d. Pain
c. Preventive oral health behavior❌
Which of the following suggests that change does not happen in one step and people tend to progress through different stages on their way to successful change.
a. ABC model (behavior theory model)
b. Stages of change model (SCM)
c. Social cognitive theory
d. Contemporary public health model
b. Stages of change model (SCM)
Which of the following is an essential part of risk management?
a. Veracity
b. Documentation
c. Autonomy
d. Negligence
b. Documentation
Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning personal protective equipment (PPE):
a. Protective clothing must be worn by dental professionals when contact with blood or other bodily fluids is anticipated
b. Gloves must be worn to prevent contact with blood, saliva or mucous membranes
c. Wearing gloves replaces the need for hand washing
d. Protective clothing must be removed before leaving the dental office
e. Masks must be changed between patients
c. Wearing gloves replaces the need for hand washing
Identify each of the following that is a true statement regarding the laundering of contaminated laundry in the dental setting:
a. Contaminated laundry must be handled as little as possible
b. The dentist may choose to use an outside laundry service
c. The dentist or assigned office personnel may launder the clothes on-site
d. Contaminated laundry should be bagged at the location of use
e. Contaminated laundry should be handled with appropriate PE
f. If contaminated laundry is transported to a laundromat, the employee must be trained in the handling of contaminated laundry
g. All of the above
g. All of the above
A disinfectant that makes the label claim ‘tuberculocidal’
a. Clinical contact surface
b. Disinfectant
c. Disinfection
d. Hospital disinfectant
e. Intermediate level disinfectant
f. Low level disinfectant
g. Tuberculocidal
e. Intermediate level disinfectant
A germicide effective against HIV and HBV
a. Clinical contact surface
b. Disinfectant
c. Disinfection
d. Hospital disinfectant
e. Intermediate level disinfectant
f. Low level disinfectant
g. Tuberculocidal
f. Low level disinfectant
An agent capable of inactivating Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. Clinical contact surface
b. Disinfectant
c. Disinfection
d. Hospital disinfectant
e. Intermediate level disinfectant
f. Low level disinfectant
g. Tuberculocidal
g. Tuberculocidal
Any surface directly contaminated from patient materials, gloved hands, blood, or OPIM
a. Clinical contact surface
b. Disinfectant
c. Disinfection
d. Hospital disinfectant
e. Intermediate level disinfectant
f. Low level disinfectant
g. Tuberculocidal
a. Clinical contact surface
A process which destroys a majority of, but not all, microorganisms
a. Clinical contact surface
b. Disinfectant
c. Disinfection
d. Hospital disinfectant
e. Intermediate level disinfectant
f. Low level disinfectant
g. Tuberculocidal
c. Disinfection
A germicide effective against Salmonela choleraesuis, Staphylococcal aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a. Clinical contact surface
b. Disinfectant
c. Disinfection
d. Hospital disinfectant
e. Intermediate level disinfectant
f. Low level disinfectant
g. Tuberculocidal
d. Hospital disinfectant
A chemical agent used to destroy recognized pathogens; kills some but not all microorganisms
a. Clinical contact surface
b. Disinfectant
c. Disinfection
d. Hospital disinfectant
e. Intermediate level disinfectant
f. Low level disinfectant
g. Tuberculocidal
b. Disinfectant
Pathogens present in blood that cause disease in humans
a. Antiseptic
b. Asepsis
c. Bloodborne pathogens
d. Exposure incident
e. Infectious waste
f. Personal protective equipment
g. Standard precautions
c. Bloodborne pathogens
Includes protective attire, gloves, mask and eyewear
a. Antiseptic
b. Asepsis
c. Bloodborne pathogens
d. Exposure incident
e. Infectious waste
f. Personal protective equipment
g. Standard precautions
f. Personal protective equipment
Involves contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials and that results from dental procedures
a. Antiseptic
b. Asepsis
c. Bloodborne pathogens
d. Exposure incident
e. Infectious waste
f. Personal protective equipment
g. Standard precautions
d. Exposure incident
The absence of disease-causing microorganisms
a. Antiseptic
b. Asepsis
c. Bloodborne pathogens
d. Exposure incident
e. Infectious waste
f. Personal protective equipment
g. Standard precautions
b. Asepsis
Measures designed ot protect operators & patients from pathogens spread by blood or any other body fluid, excretion, or secretion
a. Antiseptic
b. Asepsis
c. Bloodborne pathogens
d. Exposure incident
e. Infectious waste
f. Personal protective equipment
g. Standard precautions
g. Standard precautions
A substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria
a. Antiseptic
b. Asepsis
c. Bloodborne pathogens
d. Exposure incident
e. Infectious waste
f. Personal protective equipment
g. Standard precautions
a. Antiseptic
Waste that consists of blood, blood products, contaminated sharps or other microbiologic products
a. Antiseptic
b. Asepsis
c. Bloodborne pathogens
d. Exposure incident
e. Infectious waste
f. Personal protective equipment
g. Standard precautions
e. Infectious waste
The interpretation of the Centers for Disease Control & Prevention (CDC) recommended infection control practices in dental healthcare settings varies from state to state; not all guidelines apply in all states.
The CDC recommended infection control practices in dental healthcare settings are stand-alone guidelines and are not required to be used in conjunction with OSHA practices & procedures.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
b. Both statements are false
When evaluating the need for sterilization versus disinfection to prevent disease transmission, which of the following is considered a semi-critical instrument and must be sterilized between uses?
a. Blood pressure cuff
b. Intraoral mirror
c. Rongeurs
d. Periodontal scalers
b. Intraoral mirror
An agent that prevents further growth of bacteria
a. Pasteurization
b. Sanitization
c. Antiseptic
d. Disinfectant
e. Bacteriostatic
f. Bactericidal
e. Bacteriostatic
An agent capable of killing bacteria
a. Pasteurization
b. Sanitization
c. Antiseptic
d. Disinfectant
e. Bacteriostatic
f. Bactericidal
f. Bactericidal
To expose food to an elevated temperature for a period fomite suficient to destroy certain disease- causing microorganisms
a. Pasteurization
b. Sanitization
c. Antiseptic
d. Disinfectant
e. Bacteriostatic
f. Bactericidal
a. Pasteurization
A chemical agent used on inanimate objects to destroy or inhibit the growth of harmful organisms
a. Pasteurization
b. Sanitization
c. Antiseptic
d. Disinfectant
e. Bacteriostatic
f. Bactericidal
d. Disinfectant
Treatment of water to reduce microbial counts to safe levels
a. Pasteurization
b. Sanitization
c. Antiseptic
d. Disinfectant
e. Bacteriostatic
f. Bactericidal
b. Sanitization
An antimicrobial agent that can be safely applied to living tissues
a. Pasteurization
b. Sanitization
c. Antiseptic
d. Disinfectant
e. Bacteriostatic
f. Bactericidal
c. Antiseptic
Identify each of the following that is a true statement regarding the purpose of cleaning prior to disinfection. Select 2.
a. Cleaning destroys all pathogens
b. Cleaning reduces the concentration of pathogens
c. Cleaning removes blood and debris which can interfere with disinfection
d. Cleaning is optional prior to disinfection
b. Cleaning reduces the concentration of pathogens
c. Cleaning removes blood and debris which can interfere with disinfection
Identify the term that BEST describes the complete destruction of all forms of microbial life, including heat-resistant bacterial spores:
a. Pasteurization
b. Sanitization
c. Sterilization
d. Disinfection
c. Sterilization
Identify the type of pathogen that provides the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization:
a. Fungal organisms
b. HIV
c. Hepatitis B virus
d. Bacterial spores
d. Bacterial spores
For a steam autoclave, identify each of the following that lists the correct temperature, pressure and time that must be used for sterilization. Select 2.
a. 250° F, 15 psi, 20 minutes
b. 270°F, 30psi, 08minutes
c. 270° F, 20 psi, 20 minutes
d. 320° F, 20 psi, 20 minutes
a. 250° F, 15 psi, 20 minutes
b. 270°F, 30psi, 08minutes
For a dry heat oven, identify the correct temperature and time that must be used for sterilization.
a. 375° F, 60 minutes
b. 375° F, 120 minutes
c. 320° F, 60 minutes
d. 320° F, 120 minutes
d. 320° F, 120 minutes
For a chemical vapor sterilizer, identify the correct temperature, pressure and time that must be used for sterilization.
a. 250° F, 20 psi, 20-40 minutes
b. 250° F, 30 psi, 40-60 minutes
c. 270° F, 15 psi, 40-60 minutes
d. 270° F, 20 psi, 20-40 minutes
d. 270° F, 20 psi, 20-40 minutes
How many hours are required to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument is placed in a %2 solution of glutaraldehyde?
a. 8 hours
b. 10 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
b. 10 hours
Identify which one of the following is the most efficient way to kill microbes:
a. Cold sterilization
b. Heat sterilization
c. Glutaraldehyde
d. All of the above
b. Heat sterilization
Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning infection control in the dental setting:
a. Exposure is not synonymous with infection
b. Do not disinfect what you can sterilize
c. Environmental surfaces must be sterilized between patients
d. All dental patients can be treated using standard bloodborne precautions
c. Environmental surfaces must be sterilized between patients
Identify which one of the following is a false statement regarding potential operator errors that may cause the failure of a spore test:
a. The sterilizer was overloaded
b. The sterilizer cycle was interrupted
c. Improper packaging was used
d. Inadequate time, temperature and/or pressure was used
e. Inadequate warm up time was completed
f. Mineral deposit build up
f. Mineral deposit build up
Identify which one of the following is a true statement concerning chemical monitoring:
a. Chemical monitoring is a definitive means of determining sterilization
b. Chemical monitoring determines if critical pressure has been reached
c. Chemical monitoring uses heat sensitive chemicals
d. When a chemical indicator changes color, sterilization is complete
e. A chemical indicator is part of the spore strip glassine envelope
c. Chemical monitoring uses heat sensitive chemicals
What is the alcohol content of hand sanitizers used in the dental office setting?
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 90%
c. 70%
Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning when to use hand hygiene techniques in the dental setting:
a. Before touching a patient
b. Before aseptic procedures
c. After donning gloves
d. After touching a patient
e. After touching patient surroundings
c. After donning gloves
Identify which one of the following is a false statement concerning the use of disinfectants in the dental setting:
a. The disinfectant used must be registered by the EPA
b. Each practice must maintain a written schedule for surface disinfection
c. PPE must be used when using disinfectants
d. When using a disinfectant, the use of vinyl exam gloves is recommended
d. When using a disinfectant, the use of vinyl exam gloves is recommended
Between patients, all surfaces without protective coverings must be cleaned and disinfected with an intermediate-level disinfectant.
Between patients, all protective coverings used in place of surface disinfection must be changed/replaced.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration’s (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard mandates that all dental healthcare professionals receive, at a minimum, the Hepatitis B vaccination series.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) mandates all other vaccinations.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) mandates all other vaccinations.❌
NOTES:
The CDC recommends the following vaccinations for dental healthcare professionals:
- influenza
- mini
- varicella
- tdap
All employees with potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens are required to have the Hepatitis B vaccination.
The vaccination record of each employee must be kept for 30 years beyond the employee’s last day of employment in the practice.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
A booster dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine is required.
The Hepatitis B vaccine series requires that at least 16 weeks elapse between dose 1and dose 3.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
Identify which one of the following is the most common form of a glove- associated reaction seen on the hands of health care professionals:
a. Irritant contact dermatitis
b. Latex allergy /type I immediate hypersensitivity
c. Allergic contact dermatitis/type VI delayed hypersensitivity
d. Fungal infection of the cuticles
a. Irritant contact dermatitis
Identify each of the following that is a true statement concerning providing safe treatment for patients with possible or documented latex allergy.
a. Be aware of common predisposing conditions (e.g., alergies to avocados, kiwis, nuts, or bananas)
b. Be familiar with the different types of hypersensitivity — immediate and delayed
c. Frequently clean all working areas contaminated with latex powder/dust
d. Frequently change ventilation filters and vacuum bags used in latex-contaminated areas
e. Have latex-free kits (e.g., dental treatment and emergency kits) available at all times
f. Be aware that allergic reactions can be provoked from indirect contact as well as direct contact
g. All of the above
g. All of the above
Identify each of the following that is a true statement concerning the hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection:
a. Injection drug users are at risk for HCV infection
b. HCV infection is the leading indication for liver transplants ni the United States
c. HCV infection signs and symptoms may include fever, fatigue, dark urine, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting and jaundice
d. 70-80% of persons with HCV infection are asymptomatic
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Identify which one of the following is an option for treating a patient with a confirmed latex allergy:
a. Wear vinyl or nitrile gloves
b. Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves
c. Do not wear any gloves
d. Refuse to treat the patient
a. Wear vinyl or nitrile gloves
An infection caused by normally non-pathogenic microorganisms in a host whose resistance has been decreased or compromised is known as:
a. A nosocomial infection
b. A secondary infection
c. An opportunistic infection
d. A recurrent infection
c. An opportunistic infection
Identify which one of the following that is not a vaccine preventable disease:
a. Hepatitis A infection
b. Hepatitis B infection
c. Hepatitis C infection
d. VZV (varicella zoster virus) infection
c. Hepatitis C infection
What does OSHA stand for?
a. Occupational Safety & Health Administration
b. Occupational Safety & Hazard Administration
c. Occupational Standards & Health Administration
d. Occupational Standards & Hazard Administration
a. Occupational Safety & Health Administration
The Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) is a federal agency that develops and enforces regulations designed to protect the:
a. Patient
b. Employer
c. Employee
d. All o f the above
c. Employee
Identify which one of the following is considered to be “infectious” and “regulated” medical waste:
a. Gowns
b. Plastic barriers
c. Extracted teeth
d. Cotton rolls
c. Extracted teeth
Each one of the following is considered regulated waste EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Blood soaked gauze
b. Contaminated needles
c. Surgically removed tissue
d. Gloves
d. Gloves
Identify which one of the following is a true statement from the American Dental Association’s Best Management Practices for Amalgam Waste?
a. Use bleach to flush waste water lines in order to minimize the dissolution of amalgam
b. Dispose of teeth with amalgam restorations in biohazard or sharps containers
c. Salvage amalgam pieces from restoration removal and recycle with amalgam waste
d. Stock bulk elemental mercury in addition to precapsulated alloys
c. Salvage amalgam pieces from restoration removal and recycle with amalgam waste
The training of a new dental assistant in your practice should include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Hapatitis B vaccine information and explanation that it will be offered at no cost
b. Copy of current OSHA Blood-borne pathogen standard and explanation of office practices
c. Exposure control plan
d. Opportunity for interactive questions and answers
e. Explanation of PE and basis for selection
f. Disclosure of other employee salaries and benefits
f. Disclosure of other employee salaries and benefits
All of the following statements regarding the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard training of employees are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Training must be provided at no cost to the employee
b. Training must be conducted during normal working hours
c. Training must be reviewed twice per year
d. Training must take place as soon as the employee is hired
c. Training must be reviewed twice per year❌
Training must be reviewed and take place ANNUALLY thereafter
The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires that a written exposure control plan (ECP) be reviewed:
a. Biannually
b. Annually
c. Quarterly
d. None of the above
b. Annually
Which of the following diseases prompted OSHA to adopt the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard for dentistry:
a. Tuberculosis
b. HIV disease
c. HBV/hepatitis B
d. HCV/hepatitis C
e. All of the above
b. HIV disease
The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is a comprehensive set of rules and regulations that have been created to prevent the transmission of bloodborne diseases:
a. To patients
b. To employers
c. To employees
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
As defined by OSHA, an exposure incident is a specific eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM) which results from the performance of a worker’s duties.
An example of an exposure incident is a needle stick.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
Unless the employer can establish that identification of the source individual is infeasible or prohibited by state or local law, following an exposure incident — the source individual must be identified and the HBV and HIV status must be determined.
If the source individual does not consent, the employer must establish that legally required consent cannot be obtained.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
In 1996, Universal Precautions were revised and renamed:
a. Mandatory precautions
b. Hazard precautions
c. Standard precautions
d. OSHA precautions
c. Standard precautions
According to the CDC, all of the folowing are common infection control violations EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Improper disposal of biohazardous waste
b. Improper biological monitoring of sterilizer
c. Improper disposal of sharps
d. Improper hand hygiene
e. Improper storage of dental instruments
f. Improper flushing of dental water lines
g. Improper management of patient records
h. Improper disinfection of environmental surfaces
i. Improper instrument debridement
g. Improper management of patient records
All of the following are true regarding the use of a face mask in the dental setting EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. A new mask should be used for each patient
b. A mask should have a 95% filter efficiency for small particle aerosols
c. A mask is required when spatter of blood or body fluids is likely
d. A mask is used to protect nose & mouth from spater
e. A mask that is damp is still effective as a barrier
e. A mask that is damp is still effective as a barrier
OPIM stands for
a. Other possibly irritating materials
b. Only potential infectious matter
c. Only potently infectious matter
d. Other potentially infectious materials
d. Other potentially infectious materials
Documents that contain information concerning hazardous chemicals are called
a. MDDS
b. MSSD
c. MSDS
d. MDSD
c. MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheets)
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) must be readily available to employees for all potentially hazardous chemicals used in the dental practice. All of the following are found on the MSDS EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Fire & explosion data
b. Hazardous ingredients
c. Dental office contact information
d. Chemical & common names
e. Protection information
f. Reactivity data
c. Dental office contact information
Which one of the following is regulated by OSHA?
a. All sharps
b. Contaminated sharps
c. Non-contaminated sharps
d. None of the above
b. Contaminated sharps
A sharps container must kept upright and replaced routinely to avoid overfillings.
These containers should have their tops removed before they are replaced.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
These containers should have their tops removed before they are replaced.❌
Engineering controls are controls that are intended to isolate or remove hazards in the workplace.
Work place controls are controls that are intended to reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which a task is performed.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
For each employee whose job involves occupational exposure to blood and OPIM, what must be maintained in the employee medical record by the dentist employer?
a. Occupational exposure/incident records
b. Test results pertaining to exposure incident
c. Hepatitis B vaccine record
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
According to the current CDC guidelines, dental unit water lines should be flushed at the beginning of the day for how long?
a. 30 seconds
b. 45 seconds
c. 60 seconds
d.None of the above
a. 30 seconds
According to OSHA guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time required for employers to keep employee training records?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
b. 3 years
According ot OSHA guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time required for employers to keep a sharps injury log?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
c. 5 years
According to OSHA guidelines, no employee in the dental practice may decline the hepatitis B vaccination.
The hepatitis B vaccination is non-infectious and there si no risk of developing HBV from the vaccine.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
According to OSHA guidelines, no employee in the dental practice may decline the hepatitis B vaccination.❌
Which organization maintains records on all diseases that occur in the United States?
a. CDC (Centers for Disease Control & Prevention)
b. OSHA (Occupational Safety & Health Administration)
c. FDA (Food &Drug Administration)
d. EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)
a. CDC (Centers for Disease Control & Prevention)
