Deck4

Question 1

A technology company receives threat intelligence indicating that a competitor has been posting false information about their products on social media platforms. How can the acquired threat intelligence information be best utilized in responding to this social media threat?

A. Share the information with industry associations to raise awareness.
B. Focus on legal actions against the competitor for defamation.
C. Use the information to create custom detection rules for identifying false claims.
D. Engage in public debates on social media to counter the false information.

Answer 1

C. Use the information to create custom detection rules for identifying false claims.

Question 2

What does the syslog entry from firewall1 at Dec 7 2023 11:40:12 suggest?

A. A misconfiguration in NAT rules.
B. A successful NAT reverse path operation.
C. An unsuccessful attempt to establish a connection from outside to inside.
D. A denied connection due to an access-group policy.

Answer 2

A. A misconfiguration in NAT rules.

The syslog entry from firewall1 at Dec 7 2023 11:40:12 suggests a NAT reverse path failure. The message “%ASA-5-305013: Asymmetric NAT rules matched for forward and reverse flows” indicates a misconfiguration in the NAT rules, resulting in the denial of the connection from outside to inside.

Question 3

A security team is implementing automation to improve threat detection and response. To ensure effective coordination, they establish a cross-functional team involving network engineers, analysts, and system administrators. What is the primary benefit of this approach?

A. Reduced need for user awareness training
B. Enhanced threat intelligence sharing
C. Faster incident response
D. Improved asset management

Answer 3

C. Faster incident response

Establishing a cross-functional team for automation coordination leads to faster incident response. Different expertise areas working together can quickly identify and address security incidents.

Question 4

A security team is investigating a potentially malicious IP address that has been identified in their network logs. They want to check if the IP address is associated with known threats. Which specific functionality of VirusTotal should they use to query information about the IP address?

A. IP address scan
B. Threat intelligence feed
C. URL scan
D. IP address lookup

Answer 4

D. IP address lookup

To query information about an IP address in VirusTotal, the security team should use the “IP address lookup” feature. This provides information about the reputation and associated threats of the queried IP address.

Question 5

You are a senior cybersecurity analyst responsible for monitoring and responding to security incidents on SERVER01. The syslog entries shown here are part of a log file that spans several hours. Your task is to identify the recommended actions for the event logged at 8:20. What immediate steps should be taken?

A. Quarantine the affected file, conduct a thorough malware analysis, and implement file upload restrictions.
B. Shut down the affected application server to prevent further payload execution.
C. Restore the affected file from backup and update antivirus signatures.
D. Increase monitoring on file uploads without taking immediate action.

Answer 5

A. Quarantine the affected file, conduct a thorough malware analysis, and implement file upload restrictions.

Quarantining the affected file is the first step to prevent the execution of the malicious payload. Conducting a thorough malware analysis on the quarantined file is essential to understand the nature of the payload, identify potential threats, and develop effective countermeasures. Implementing file upload restrictions, such as size limitations and file type filtering, adds an extra layer of defense to mitigate the risk of future malicious uploads.

Question 6

The security team of an major news agency discovered a phishing email had been sent to several members of their staff. Reviewing the email access log shown here, which of the accounts was MOST likely compromised?

A. ALICE
B. JOHN
C. FRANCIS
D. MICHAEL

Answer 6

D. MICHAEL
Michael’s account was successfully accessed in England and China within a 90 minute window. There is no way Michael could have been in these two geographical locations within that timeframe (impossible travel time). Other of such attempts with the accounts of other staff were denied. Michael’s account was therefore successfully compromised.

Question 7

You are responsible for the security of certain internal servers. What risk does Rule 1 pose in the given firewall rules, and how can it be mitigated?

A. Risk: Exposing the entire inside network to potential web-based attacks. Mitigation: Implementing an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to inspect and filter web traffic.
B. Risk: Allowing unrestricted outbound web traffic. Mitigation: Enforcing URL filtering at the proxy level to control and monitor web access.
C. Risk: Facilitating lateral movement within the inside network. Mitigation: Implementing VLAN segmentation to isolate different parts of the network.
D. Risk: Exposing internal servers to potential exploitation. Mitigation: Implementing host-based firewalls on internal servers to control incoming traffic.

Answer 7

A. Risk: Exposing the entire inside network to potential web-based attacks. Mitigation: Implementing an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to inspect and filter web traffic.

Rule 1 permits TCP traffic from 192.168.1.0/24 (inside) to any destination on ports 80 and 443, potentially exposing the entire inside network to web-based attacks. To mitigate this risk, implementing an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to inspect and filter web traffic can provide an additional layer of security.

Question 8

A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing patching efforts for a large corporate network. The analyst discovers a critical vulnerability with an available patch, but applying the patch requires restarting essential servers during business hours. What should be the analyst’s PRIMARY consideration when deciding the timing of the patch deployment?

A. The urgency of addressing the critical vulnerability.
B. The historical frequency of attacks targeting similar vulnerabilities.
C. The ease of applying the patch to minimize disruption.
D. The potential business impact of restarting servers during business hours.

Answer 8

D. The potential business impact of restarting servers during business hours.

When deciding the timing of patch deployment, the potential business impact should be the primary consideration. Balancing the urgency of addressing the critical vulnerability with the need to minimize disruption to business operations is crucial. While urgency and ease of patching are important, understanding the potential impact on business operations guides the decision-making process.

Question 9

A security team discovers a vulnerability in an internal web application used for employee training. The vulnerability could potentially allow employees to gain unauthorized access to training materials for courses they are not enrolled in. How should the team prioritize addressing this vulnerability?

A. Prioritize based on the potential impact on the confidentiality of training materials.
B. Downplay the significance due to the internal nature of the web application and focus on external-facing systems.
C. Consult with the training department to understand the potential risk and assess the application’s access controls.
D. Investigate additional factors, such as the popularity of the web application among employees, before making a decision.

Answer 9

A. Prioritize based on the potential impact on the confidentiality of training materials.

Prioritizing based on the potential impact on the confidentiality of training materials ensures that vulnerabilities posing a threat to internal systems with critical content are addressed promptly. The potential impact on sensitive information takes precedence in the prioritization process.

Question 10

A cybersecurity team is using webhooks to connect their intrusion detection system (IDS) with the firewall. When the IDS detects suspicious activity, it sends a webhook to the firewall to block the source IP. What is the primary advantage of this integration?

A. Enhanced user awareness training
B. Improved asset management
C. Accelerated threat detection and response
D. Consistent and rapid threat mitigation

Answer 10

D. Consistent and rapid threat mitigation

Integrating the IDS with the firewall using webhooks primarily ensures consistent and rapid threat mitigation by automatically blocking the source IP when suspicious activity is detected.

Question 11

An organization’s intrusion detection system (IDS) has triggered alerts for multiple internal devices communicating with a known malicious IP address. The devices are sending and receiving data over a non-standard port, and the communication appears to be encrypted. What technique should the security analyst employ to decode the encrypted traffic and determine the commands being sent to the compromised devices?

A. Signature-based detection
B. Anomaly detection
C. Traffic analysis
D. Protocol analysis

Answer 11

D. Protocol analysis

To decode the encrypted traffic and determine the commands being sent to the compromised devices, the security analyst should employ protocol analysis, which involves analyzing the specific communication protocol used in the traffic to understand its nature and content.

Question 12

An Nmap scan on the network of a company reveals the results shown here. As a cybersecurity analyst, which of these steps would you BEST take to make the network more secure?

A. 22/tcp close
B. 3306/tcp open
C. 23/tcp close
D. 443/tcp close

Answer 12

C. 23/tcp close

Close the Telnet port (Port 23), because Telnet transmits data, including passwords, in an unencrypted format, making it susceptible to interception. Telnet is considered less secure compared to alternatives like SSH.

Question 13

A security analyst identifies a vulnerability in a server hosting the organization’s public-facing website. The website primarily serves as an informational platform with no direct impact on revenue generation. However, the server also stores sensitive customer feedback forms. How should the analyst prioritize addressing this vulnerability?

A. Prioritize based on the criticality of the public-facing website to the organization’s brand reputation.
B. Downplay the significance due to the lack of direct impact on revenue generation and focus on other critical vulnerabilities.
C. Consult with the marketing team to understand the potential impact on brand perception.
D. Investigate additional factors, such as the historical frequency of similar vulnerabilities in public-facing websites, before prioritizing.

Answer 13

A. Prioritize based on the criticality of the public-facing website to the organization’s brand reputation.

Prioritizing based on the criticality of the public-facing website to the organization’s brand reputation ensures that vulnerabilities with potential impacts on brand perception are addressed promptly. The asset’s value in terms of brand reputation takes precedence in the prioritization process.

Question 14

A financial institution’s security team identifies a critical vulnerability in the organization’s online banking platform that could result in unauthorized financial transactions. What communication strategy should the team prioritize when informing senior management about this critical vulnerability?

A. Notifying senior management about the identified vulnerability without disclosing technical details.
B. Providing detailed technical information about the vulnerability and potential consequences.
C. Issuing an immediate public statement to inform customers about the identified vulnerability.
D. Collaborating with external security experts to assess and address the critical vulnerability.

Answer 14

B. Providing detailed technical information about the vulnerability and potential consequences.

Senior management needs to understand the seriousness of the situation to make informed decisions on resource allocation, immediate actions, and long-term strategies to address the vulnerability. While it’s important to communicate in a manner that is understandable to non-technical stakeholders, including a summary of technical details and potential consequences is crucial for conveying the urgency and potential impact of the vulnerability. This approach enables senior management to grasp the full scope of the issue, including how the vulnerability might affect the organization’s operations, reputation, and financial stability, and supports a more effective response plan.

Question 15

What security concern is highlighted by the syslog entry from server2 at Dec 7 2023 11:15:20?

A. A potential Trojan detected on a Windows machine.
B. An attempt to block an incoming connection on port 54321.
C. A denied connection from 192.168.3.20 to 192.168.1.30 on port 54321.
D. A successful block of an outgoing connection on port 54321.

Answer 15

C. A denied connection from 192.168.3.20 to 192.168.1.30 on port 54321.

The syslog entry from server2 at Dec 7 2023 11:15:20 indicates a denied connection from 192.168.3.20 to 192.168.1.30 on port 54321. The UFW BLOCK message suggests that the firewall blocked a TCP connection attempt.

Question 16

In a cloud infrastructure, a security team discovers that virtual machines are running on outdated hypervisor software. This introduces potential security vulnerabilities. What is the MOST EFFECTIVE measure to mitigate the risks associated with end-of-life or outdated components in the cloud environment?

A. Implementing encrypted communication channels between virtual machines
B. Conducting regular penetration testing
C. Configuring strict firewall rules to limit external access
D. Ensuring timely updates and patching of the hypervisor software

Answer 16

D. Ensuring timely updates and patching of the hypervisor software

To effectively mitigate risks associated with outdated hypervisor software, ensuring timely updates and patching is crucial. This control involves regularly updating the hypervisor software to address known vulnerabilities and enhance security. It directly addresses the root cause of the security risk by keeping the cloud infrastructure’s hypervisor software up-to-date and secure.

Question 17

You are responsible for the security of an internal network. In reviewing the firewall rules, what potential security concern is addressed by Rule 5?

A. Blocking outbound web traffic from the inside network.
B. Allowing unrestricted access to well-known service ports.
C. Facilitating communication for custom applications.
D. Enforcing egress traffic restrictions for sensitive data.

Answer 17

B. Allowing unrestricted access to well-known service ports.

Rule 5 denies TCP traffic from any source to any destination on ports 1-1023. This denies traffic to well-known service ports, which can be a security measure to prevent communication with services that might have known vulnerabilities or are commonly targeted by attackers.

Question 18

Your organization has experienced multiple security incidents related to compromised passwords. You are tasked with improving security. What is the primary importance of Passwordless authentication in this incident response scenario?

A. Increasing the complexity of password policies
B. Relying on traditional password recovery methods
C. Reducing the need for user identity verification
D. Enhancing security by reducing the reliance on easily compromised passwords

Answer 18

D. Enhancing security by reducing the reliance on easily compromised passwords

In this scenario, the primary importance of Passwordless authentication is to enhance security by reducing the reliance on easily compromised passwords. Passwordless methods provide more secure alternatives to traditional password-based authentication, reducing the risk of compromised credentials.

Question 19

During a security assessment, a vulnerability is discovered in a network device that, if exploited, could lead to a complete network outage. The network device is a central component in the organization’s communication infrastructure. How should the security team prioritize addressing this vulnerability?

A. Prioritize based on the potential impact on communication infrastructure availability
B. Downplay the significance due to redundant network devices in place
C. Consult with network administrators for their perspective on prioritization
D. Investigate additional factors, such as the scalability of the network, before prioritizing

Answer 19

A. Prioritize based on the potential impact on communication infrastructure availability

Prioritizing based on the potential impact on communication infrastructure availability ensures that vulnerabilities posing a threat to the availability of critical network components are addressed promptly. The potential impact on essential services takes precedence in the prioritization process.

Question 20

A security team has implemented a new intrusion detection system (IDS) to enhance network security. During the validation process, the team notices a high number of false positives generated by the IDS. What is a recommended approach to address this issue during validation?

A. Disable the IDS temporarily until false positives can be further investigated.
B. Adjust the IDS configuration to increase sensitivity and reduce false positives.
C. Ignore the false positives and focus on true positive detections for validation.
D. Conduct additional validation tests to confirm the accuracy of the false positives.

Answer 20

B. Adjust the IDS configuration to increase sensitivity and reduce false positives.

A recommended approach is to adjust the IDS configuration to increase sensitivity and reduce false positives. During validation, it’s essential to fine-tune security controls for optimal performance. Adjusting the IDS configuration allows the security team to strike a balance between sensitivity and specificity, minimizing false positives while maintaining effective threat detection.

Question 21

A security analyst in an information sharing organization notices patterns of cyberattacks targeting members of the group. The analyst decides to conduct threat hunting to investigate further. How does the concept of information sharing organizations impact the threat-hunting process?

A. The analyst should prioritize investigating all cyberattacks targeting group members.
B. Rapidly responding to any cyberattacks is the main focus of threat hunting.
C. Relevancy of the cyberattacks is not important in threat hunting.
D. Ignoring the cyberattacks is often the best approach.

Answer 21

A. The analyst should prioritize investigating all cyberattacks targeting group members.

In the context of information sharing organizations, the threat-hunting process often involves prioritizing the investigation of cyberattacks targeting group members to protect the collective security of the member organizations.

Question 22

A security analyst discovers a misconfiguration in the firewall that could potentially expose the organization to threats. The analyst decides to conduct threat hunting to investigate further. How does the concept of configurations and misconfigurations impact the threat-hunting process?

A. The analyst should prioritize investigating all misconfigurations identified, regardless of their impact.
B. Rapidly fixing any misconfigurations is the main focus of threat hunting.
C. Relevancy of the misconfiguration to the organization’s security posture is important in threat hunting.
D. Ignoring the misconfiguration and focusing on other security tasks is often the best approach.

Answer 22

C. Relevancy of the misconfiguration to the organization’s security posture is important in threat hunting.

In the context of configurations and misconfigurations, the threat-hunting process focuses on the relevancy of the misconfiguration to the organization’s security posture, ensuring that investigations address potential threats associated with the misconfiguration.

Question 23

A security analyst discovers a vulnerability in an isolated development server that is not directly connected to the production environment. The vulnerability, if exploited, could potentially impact the development team’s workflow but poses no direct threat to production systems. How should the analyst prioritize addressing this vulnerability?

A. Prioritize based on the potential impact on the development team’s workflow
B. Downplay the significance due to the isolated nature of the development server
C. Consult with the development team for their perspective on prioritization
D. Investigate additional factors, such as the historical frequency of similar vulnerabilities, before prioritizing

Answer 23

A. Prioritize based on the potential impact on the development team’s workflow

Even though the vulnerability may not directly threaten production systems, it still poses a risk to the development team’s workflow. Any disruption in the development environment could lead to delays, loss of productivity, or even compromise of sensitive information stored or processed on the development server. Therefore, it’s important for the security analyst to prioritize addressing the vulnerability to maintain the integrity and efficiency of the development process.

Question 24

In a ZAP assessment, a security professional identifies a web application that is vulnerable to Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attacks. What is the potential impact of CSRF, and how should the analyst advise the development team to mitigate this risk?

A. Unauthorized Data Access; Implement Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
B. Session Hijacking; Use Secure Cookies with SameSite Attribute
C. Malicious Actions on Behalf of Authenticated Users; Implement Anti-CSRF Tokens
D. Denial of Service (DoS); Disable JavaScript Execution

Answer 24

C. Malicious Actions on Behalf of Authenticated Users; Implement Anti-CSRF Tokens

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) vulnerabilities can lead to malicious actions performed on behalf of authenticated users. Advising the development team to implement Anti-CSRF tokens is crucial to prevent attackers from exploiting user sessions to perform unauthorized actions.

Question 25

While conducting monitoring duties, a security analyst identifies suspicious activity on a host. The analyst retrieves a packet capture for the observed activity as shown below. How will you describe what has occurred?

A. The host tried to fetch an application from example.com
B. The host successfully downloaded an application from example.com
C. The host tried to establish a secure connection to example.com
D. The host declined the connection from example.com.

Answer 25

B. The host successfully downloaded an application from example.com

Question 26

A financial institution needs to assess the security of its payment processing systems to comply with PCI DSS. They are concerned about potential vulnerabilities that could lead to data breaches. What scanning method should they use to actively identify vulnerabilities in their payment processing systems?

A. Agent-based scanning
B. Passive scanning
C. Real-time scanning
D. Active scanning

Answer 26

D. Active scanning

Active scanning involves actively identifying vulnerabilities in systems and is suitable for assessing the security of payment processing systems in compliance with PCI DSS.

Question 27

In the aftermath of a security incident, the incident response team needs to ensure the integrity of logs for forensic analysis. What technique should they employ to validate the integrity of log files?

A. Calculate and verify hash values for log files
B. Copy log files to an external drive for safekeeping
C. Encrypt log files to prevent tampering
D. Print hard copies of log entries for documentation

Answer 27

A. Calculate and verify hash values for log files

To validate the integrity of log files, the incident response team should calculate and verify hash values for the files. This cryptographic checksum ensures that the log files have not been altered, providing assurance in the forensic analysis process.

Question 28

A security incident response team successfully mitigated a security incident related to a known vulnerability. However, similar incidents have occurred in the past. What action should the team prioritize to prevent the recurrence of incidents related to this vulnerability?

A. Conducting a thorough analysis of the incident to identify gaps in the response.
B. Implementing additional intrusion detection mechanisms.
C. Collaborating with the affected department to enhance security awareness.
D. Reviewing and updating the organization’s vulnerability management plan.

Answer 28

D. Reviewing and updating the organization’s vulnerability management plan.

To prevent the recurrence of incidents related to a known vulnerability, it is crucial to review and update the organization’s vulnerability management plan. This includes reassessing risk assessments, patching procedures, and communication processes. Addressing any gaps in the vulnerability management plan enhances the organization’s overall security posture and reduces the likelihood of recurring incidents.

Question 29

An organization is collecting various data sources, including logs, network traffic, and threat feeds, to gain insights into potential threats and vulnerabilities. What is the primary role of threat intelligence in this scenario?

A. Enhancing the relevance and quality of collected data to improve threat analysis.
B. Collaborating with other organizations to share collected data for mutual analysis.
C. Identifying vulnerabilities in the organization’s internal network.
D. Ignoring threat intelligence as it may not be accurate during data collection.

Answer 29

A. Enhancing the relevance and quality of collected data to improve threat analysis.

In this scenario, the primary role of threat intelligence is to enhance the relevance and quality of the collected data, improving the organization’s threat analysis by providing context and indicators of compromise.

Question 30

An organization implements a web application firewall (WAF) to protect its critical web services. During routine security assessments, the team identifies a set of false positives generated by the WAF. After careful analysis, the team decides to accept these false positives. What is a crucial factor in the decision to accept these false positives?

A. Ensure that all users are informed about the false positives.
B. Continuously fine-tune the WAF rules to reduce false positives.
C. Implement additional compensating controls to address the false positives.
D. Document the decision and rationale for accepting the false positives.

Answer 30

B. Continuously fine-tune the WAF rules to reduce false positives.

While documenting the decision and rationale for accepting false positives (option A) is important for maintaining a record of security decisions and justifications, the key to managing false positives effectively involves an ongoing effort to fine-tune and adjust the WAF rules. This continuous process aims to strike a balance between security and usability, ensuring that the WAF provides effective protection against real threats while minimizing the impact on legitimate traffic. Accepting false positives may be necessary in some cases to avoid overly restrictive security measures that could block legitimate requests, but the goal should always be to optimize the WAF configuration to reduce false positives without compromising security.

Question 31

You are a senior cybersecurity analyst responsible for monitoring and responding to security incidents on SERVER01. The syslog entries shown here are part of a log file that spans several hours. Your task is to identify the recommended actions based on the provided log entries. What is your recommended response to the event logged at 8:35?

A. Block outbound connections to IP 203.0.113.1 and update threat intelligence feeds.
B. Investigate the affected system, isolate it from the network, and conduct a thorough malware analysis.
C. Continuously monitor the outbound traffic but avoid immediate action to avoid alerting the attacker.
D. Share the IoC with external threat intelligence sources and wait for their analysis.

Answer 31

B. Investigate the affected system, isolate it from the network, and conduct a thorough malware analysis.

Detecting an Indicator of Compromise (IoC) involving outbound connections to a known malicious IP is critical. Immediate investigation is necessary to identify the scope of the compromise and potential data exfiltration. Isolating the affected system from the network helps prevent further communication with the malicious IP and contains the incident. Conducting a thorough malware analysis on the system aids in understanding the nature of the compromise and developing effective remediation strategies.

Question 32

An organization has recently implemented a new firewall configuration to enhance security. However, the security team is concerned about potential misconfigurations. What is the primary role of threat intelligence in this scenario?

A. Enhancing the ability to identify known misconfiguration patterns and providing guidance for correction.
B. Collaborating with other organizations to share firewall configuration details.
C. Identifying vulnerabilities in the organization’s internal network.
D. Ignoring threat intelligence as it may not be accurate during firewall configuration.

Answer 32

A. Enhancing the ability to identify known misconfiguration patterns and providing guidance for correction.

In this scenario, the primary role of threat intelligence is to enhance the ability to identify known misconfiguration patterns in the firewall and providing guidance for correction, ensuring that potential security gaps are addressed effectively.

Question 33

You are responsible for the security of certain internal servers. What risk does Rule 1 pose in the given firewall rules, and how can it be mitigated?

A. Risk: Exposing the entire inside network to potential web-based attacks. Mitigation: Implementing an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to inspect and filter web traffic.
B. Risk: Allowing unrestricted outbound web traffic. Mitigation: Enforcing URL filtering at the proxy level to control and monitor web access.
C. Risk: Facilitating lateral movement within the inside network. Mitigation: Implementing VLAN segmentation to isolate different parts of the network.
D. Risk: Exposing internal servers to potential exploitation. Mitigation: Implementing host-based firewalls on internal servers to control incoming traffic.

Answer 33

A. Risk: Exposing the entire inside network to potential web-based attacks. Mitigation: Implementing an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to inspect and filter web traffic.

Rule 1 permits TCP traffic from 192.168.1.0/24 (inside) to any destination on ports 80 and 443, potentially exposing the entire inside network to web-based attacks. To mitigate this risk, implementing an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to inspect and filter web traffic can provide an additional layer of security.

Question 34

An organization is part of an information sharing organization that regularly exchanges threat intelligence with other member organizations. What is the primary role of threat intelligence in this scenario?

A. Enhancing monitoring to detect and respond to potential threats.
B. Collaborating with other member organizations to share intelligence.
C. Identifying vulnerabilities in the organization’s internal network.
D. Ignoring the shared intelligence as it may not be accurate.

Answer 34

A. Enhancing monitoring to detect and respond to potential threats.

In this scenario, the primary role of threat intelligence is to enhance monitoring and detection of potential threats by leveraging the shared information, allowing the organization to respond promptly and protect its systems.

Question 35

An organization’s security analyst notices unusual activity on the company’s social media account that could indicate a potential cyberattack. The analyst decides to conduct threat hunting to investigate further. How does the concept of social media impact the threat-hunting process?

A. The analyst should prioritize investigating the company’s social media accounts.
B. Rapidly responding to the social media activity is the main focus.
C. Relevancy of the social media activity is not important in threat hunting.
D. A comprehensive analysis of all social media activity is necessary.

Answer 35

B. Rapidly responding to the social media activity is the main focus.

While threat hunting generally involves actively searching for indicators of compromise or suspicious activity within an organization’s network or systems, when it comes to social media, the context shifts slightly. In this scenario, the unusual activity on the company’s social media account could represent a different set of threats (e.g., reputation damage, phishing attempts, spreading of malware links) than those typically found within internal networks. In the context of social media, rapid response becomes particularly important due to the public and potentially viral nature of social media platforms. Quickly identifying and addressing suspicious activity can help prevent the spread of harmful content, protect the organization’s reputation, and mitigate any potential security risks associated with the activity. While the broader threat-hunting process involves a methodical investigation to uncover hidden threats, the immediate need to respond to and manage unusual social media activity underscores the importance of speed in this context.

Question 36

A healthcare organization is required to perform regular vulnerability scans on its systems to comply with healthcare industry regulations. They want to ensure that the scans are documented and can be audited for regulatory compliance. Which scanning method should they employ to meet these requirements?

A. Stealth scanning
B. Automated scanning
C. Manual scanning
D. Recordable scanning

Answer 36

B. Automated scanning

Automated scanning refers to the use of software tools that can systematically scan systems for vulnerabilities on a scheduled basis. These tools not only perform the scans but also generate reports detailing the findings, including identified vulnerabilities, their severity, and potential impact. These reports serve as documentation of the organization’s efforts to identify and mitigate vulnerabilities, which is crucial for compliance with healthcare industry regulations like HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) in the United States. Automated scans ensure consistency, comprehensiveness, and repeatability, which are essential for both effective vulnerability management and compliance auditing purposes.

Question 37

A company recently discovered a potential Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) attack in progress. The security team has gathered various indicators of compromise (IOCs) related to the APT group. What is the primary role of threat intelligence in this scenario?

A. Identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities.
B. Conducting forensic analysis.
C. Proactively identifying and sharing information about the APT group.
D. Implementing firewalls and intrusion detection systems.

Answer 37

C. Proactively identifying and sharing information about the APT group.

Threat intelligence involves proactively gathering information about potential threats, including APT groups, and sharing this information to enhance overall cybersecurity awareness and preparedness.

Question 38

You are a cybersecurity analyst responsible for monitoring and analyzing network traffic and logs. During a routine analysis, you discover that the system logs for a critical server are filled with an overwhelming number of low-level informational messages, making it difficult to identify security-related events. What is the most appropriate action to improve log management in this situation?

A. Increase the logging level for the critical server.
B. Disable logging for the critical server.
C. Keep the logging level as it is; it’s not a security concern.
D. Set up a log rotation and retention policy.

Answer 38

A. Increase the logging level for the critical server.

Increasing the logging level for the critical server to capture more security-related events and reducing the volume of low-level informational messages can help in improving log management. This enables better focus on security incidents and reduces noise in the logs.

Question 39

An e-commerce platform relies on multiple third-party services for payment processing, and they want to ensure the security of these services in compliance with PCI DSS. What type of scanning should they employ to assess the third-party payment processing services for vulnerabilities?

A. External scanning
B. Internal scanning
C. API-based scanning
D. Hybrid scanning

Answer 39

A. External scanning

External scanning allows organizations to assess the security of third-party services used for payment processing, ensuring compliance with PCI DSS requirements.

Question 40

A healthcare organization uses a legacy electronic health record (EHR) system for managing patient data. The security team discovers a vulnerability in the legacy EHR system that could result in unauthorized access to patient records. What communication strategy should the team prioritize when informing healthcare providers about this vulnerability?

A. Providing detailed technical information about the vulnerability and potential consequences.
B. Issuing an immediate public statement to inform patients about the identified vulnerability.
C. Collaborating with the IT support team to create a contingency plan for patient data access.
D. Clearly communicating the potential impact on patient privacy and outlining preventive measures.

Answer 40

D. Clearly communicating the potential impact on patient privacy and outlining preventive measures.

Clearly communicating the potential impact on patient privacy and outlining preventive measures.

Question 41

In an e-commerce platform, a security analyst discovers a broken access control vulnerability that allows users to access administrative functionalities by manipulating input parameters. What is the MOST EFFECTIVE measure to mitigate this broken access control risk?

A. Implementing encrypted communication channels
B. Conducting regular code reviews and static analysis
C. Utilizing intrusion prevention systems (IPS)
D. Implementing proper session management controls

Answer 41

D. Implementing proper session management controls

To effectively mitigate broken access control risks, implementing proper session management controls is crucial. This ensures that user sessions are securely managed, preventing unauthorized access to administrative functionalities through manipulation of input parameters. Proper session management is an integral part of access control and user authentication mechanisms.

Question 42

You are responsible for the security of an internal network. In reviewing the firewall rules, what potential security concern is addressed by Rule 5?

A. Blocking outbound web traffic from the inside network.
B. Allowing unrestricted access to well-known service ports.
C. Facilitating communication for custom applications.
D. Enforcing egress traffic restrictions for sensitive data.

Answer 42

B. Allowing unrestricted access to well-known service ports.

Rule 5 denies TCP traffic from any source to any destination on ports 1-1023. This denies traffic to well-known service ports, which can be a security measure to prevent communication with services that might have known vulnerabilities or are commonly targeted by attackers.

Question 43

During a security audit, an analyst is reviewing network traffic with Wireshark. They come across a set of packets containing SQL injection attempts targeting a web server within the organization. What could be the potential consequences of a successful SQL injection attack?

A. Unauthorized access to the network
B. Exfiltration of sensitive data
C. Firewall misconfiguration
D. Malware infection

Answer 43

B. Exfiltration of sensitive data

In this scenario, a successful SQL injection attack could allow an attacker to manipulate the database queries and potentially gain unauthorized access to sensitive data or exfiltrate it.

Question 44

During an incident response, a security professional discovers a compromised user account that is actively sending phishing emails to other employees. What action should the professional take to isolate the compromised account and prevent further damage?

A. Change the user account’s password to disrupt unauthorized access
B. Disable the user account in the organization’s identity management system
C. Redirect the user account’s emails to a quarantine folder for analysis
D. Disconnect the affected user’s device from the network

Answer 44

B. Disable the user account in the organization’s identity management system

Disabling the user account in the organization’s identity management system is the most effective method for isolating the compromised account. This action prevents further unauthorized access and activity while allowing the incident response team to investigate and remediate the situation.

Question 45

After implementing recommended configuration changes following a security assessment, a system experiences disruptions in its functionality. The IT team is concerned about potential negative impacts on operations. What should the security analyst recommend to address this situation in the configuration management context?

A. Rolling back the configuration changes to the previous state.
B. Conducting additional security assessments to identify alternative configurations.
C. Communicating the disruptions to senior management for guidance.
D. Implementing compensating controls to mitigate the impact of disruptions.

Answer 45

D. Implementing compensating controls to mitigate the impact of disruptions.

In the context of configuration management, when disruptions occur after implementing changes, the focus should be on implementing compensating controls. This ensures that the organization can maintain security while addressing the disruptions. Rolling back changes and additional assessments may be considered, but implementing compensating controls provides a more immediate and proactive approach to manage the impact on operations.

Question 46

A security team is analyzing network traffic logs and identifies Python scripts being used to perform brute force attacks on an organization’s SSH servers. These scripts are attempting to gain unauthorized access to the servers by systematically trying various usernames and passwords. What action should the security team take to address this malicious activity?

A. Block the affected IP addresses
B. Disable the SSH servers temporarily
C. Ignore the Python scripts as they are common
D. Analyze the Python scripts to identify potential attack patterns

Answer 46

A. Block the affected IP addresses

In response to Python scripts performing brute force attacks on SSH servers, the security team should block the affected IP addresses to prevent further unauthorized access attempts and protect the servers from the ongoing attack.

Question 47

A security team is responsible for conducting regular vulnerability scans on a high-traffic e-commerce website. They want to ensure that the scans do not impact website performance during peak business hours. What scheduling approach should they use to minimize disruption?

A. On-demand scheduling
B. Periodic scheduling
C. Load-balancing scheduling
D. Baseline scheduling

Answer 47

A. On-demand scheduling

On-demand scheduling allows vulnerability scans to be initiated when needed, reducing the risk of disrupting website performance during peak business hours.

Question 48

A security analyst is conducting passive discovery to identify potential vulnerabilities in the organization’s network. During the process, the analyst intercepts network traffic and identifies communication patterns that may indicate the presence of unauthorized devices. What is the most appropriate action for the analyst based on this passive discovery finding?

A. Immediately block the communication from the unauthorized devices.
B. Document the findings and escalate the discovery to the incident response team.
C. Analyze the communication patterns further to confirm the presence of unauthorized devices.
D. Conduct a network-wide vulnerability scan to identify vulnerabilities associated with the devices.

Answer 48

C. Analyze the communication patterns further to confirm the presence of unauthorized devices.

The most appropriate action is to analyze the communication patterns further to confirm the presence of unauthorized devices. Passive discovery involves observing network traffic to identify potential vulnerabilities. Before taking any immediate action, further analysis is necessary to confirm the presence of unauthorized devices and understand the extent of the potential security risk.

Question 49

A software development team is tasked with building a secure web application in accordance with ISO 27002. What specific control should the team prioritize to adhere to ISO 27002 guidelines for secure software development?

A. Conducting regular code reviews and static analysis
B. Configuring network firewalls to filter incoming traffic
C. Implementing secure password policies for users
D. Encrypting data in transit using SSL/TLS protocols

Answer 49

A. Conducting regular code reviews and static analysis

ISO 27002 outlines controls for secure software development, and conducting regular code reviews and static analysis is a key measure within this framework. Regular code reviews help identify and remediate security vulnerabilities in the early stages of software development. Static analysis tools further assist in identifying potential code weaknesses. While network firewalls, secure password policies, and encryption are essential security measures, prioritizing regular code reviews and static analysis aligns directly with ISO 27002’s focus on ensuring the security of software throughout its development lifecycle. This helps prevent vulnerabilities that could be exploited in production.

Question 50

During a routine vulnerability scan, a security analyst discovers a critical vulnerability affecting multiple hosts in the organization. The analyst needs to communicate this information to the IT team for remediation. What is the MOST important aspect to include in the communication?

A. The total number of affected hosts.
B. A detailed technical analysis of the vulnerability.
C. The potential business impact on each affected host.
D. The timeline for remediation activities.

Answer 50

C. The potential business impact on each affected host.

While providing the total number of affected hosts is essential, emphasizing the potential business impact on each host ensures that the IT team prioritizes remediation efforts based on the criticality of the systems. This approach aligns vulnerability management with business objectives, allowing for a targeted and effective response.

Question 51

A security team discovers a vulnerability in a mobile application that requires a user to grant excessive permissions during installation. However, the application primarily provides weather updates. How should the team prioritize addressing this vulnerability?

A. Prioritize based on the excessive permissions required during installation
B. Downplay the significance due to the non-sensitive nature of weather updates
C. Consult with mobile app developers for their perspective on prioritization
D. Investigate additional factors, such as the number of downloads, before prioritizing

Answer 51

B. Downplay the significance due to the non-sensitive nature of weather updates

Considering the non-sensitive nature of the weather updates, downplaying the significance of the vulnerability is reasonable. Prioritization should align with the potential impact on critical functions, and in this case, the risk is relatively low.

Question 52

After applying a security patch to a critical system, the security team conducts a validation process to ensure the successful mitigation of a known vulnerability. During the validation, the team discovers that the patch has introduced a new issue affecting system stability. What is the appropriate course of action for the security team?

A. Immediately roll back the security patch to restore system stability.
B. Continue with the validation process and document the new issue for future resolution.
C. Disable the affected system temporarily until a new patch is available.
D. Inform all users about the new issue without taking immediate action.

Answer 52

B. Continue with the validation process and document the new issue for future resolution.

This approach ensures a balanced response that considers both security and operational stability, allowing the organization to make informed decisions based on a comprehensive understanding of the risks and impacts.

Continue with the validation process to fully understand the scope and impact of the new issue introduced by the patch.
Document the new issue thoroughly, including any potential workarounds, the conditions under which the issue manifests, and its impact on system operations.
Communicate the findings to relevant stakeholders, including the vendor if applicable, and work collaboratively to find a resolution or an alternative mitigation strategy that addresses both the original vulnerability and the newly introduced issue.
Evaluate the risks associated with the new issue against the risks of the vulnerability being patched. In some cases, temporary measures may be implemented to maintain operations until a more stable patch is available.

Question 53

While conducting monitoring duties, a security analyst identifies suspicious activity on a host. The analyst retrieves a packet capture for the observed activity as shown below. How will you describe what has occurred?

A. The host tried to fetch an application from example.com
B. The host successfully downloaded an application from example.com
C. The host tried to establish a secure connection to example.com
D. The host declined the connection from example.com.

Answer 53

B. The host successfully downloaded an application from example.com

Question 54

A security team discovers a vulnerability in a widely deployed network device that has an associated weaponized exploit available on the dark web. The vulnerability could potentially allow unauthorized access to sensitive network configurations. How should the team prioritize addressing this vulnerability?

A. Prioritize based on the widespread deployment of the network device.
B. Downplay the significance due to the availability of network segmentation and intrusion detection systems.
C. Consult with network administrators and assess the criticality of the network device to organizational operations.
D. Investigate additional factors, such as the prevalence of the exploit in recent cyber attacks, before prioritizing.

Answer 54

C. Consult with network administrators and assess the criticality of the network device to organizational operations.

Consulting with network administrators and assessing the criticality of the network device is crucial to understand the potential impact on organizational operations. The prioritization should align with the importance of the device in the network architecture and the potential consequences of unauthorized access.

Question 55

A security team is monitoring remote access to the organization’s network. They detect a login from a user’s account in London, UK, followed by another login from the same account in Tokyo, Japan, within just a few minutes. What should be the initial response of the security team in this scenario?

A. Block the user account immediately
B. Notify the user and ask for an explanation
C. Investigate the login activity for possible anomalies
D. Inform the user’s supervisor about the situation

Answer 55

C. Investigate the login activity for possible anomalies

The initial response should be to investigate the login activity for possible anomalies before taking further action. This can help the security team determine whether the user’s account is compromised or if there’s a legitimate reason for the login activity.

Question 56

During an incident response involving a potential compromise of customer data, the incident response team is deciding when to communicate with customers. What should be a key factor in determining the timing of customer communication?

A. Delaying communication until legal authorities complete their investigation.
B. Communicating immediately, regardless of the completeness of the incident response process.
C. Waiting until all internal stakeholders reach a consensus on the incident details.
D. Withholding communication until the organization develops a public relations strategy.

Answer 56

C. Waiting until all internal stakeholders reach a consensus on the incident details.

It’s important to gather accurate and comprehensive information about the incident, including the scope of the compromise, affected data, and steps taken to mitigate the issue before communicating with customers. Reaching a consensus among internal stakeholders ensures that the information shared is accurate, consistent, and reflects a unified response from the organization. This approach helps in managing the situation effectively, maintaining customer trust, and complying with legal and regulatory requirements related to incident disclosure. However, it’s also critical to act swiftly to ensure customers are informed in a timely manner, especially if their data or privacy is at risk, to allow them to take protective measures.