Deck Safety Flashcards

1
Q

The spread of fire is prevented by __________________.

A

Cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The most effective cooling agent used to fight fires is ________________.

A

Water fog or spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen what is required to have fire?

A

Chain Reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During a Coast Guard inspection all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard will be _________________.

A

Weighed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What primary hazard, other than fire damage, is associated with a class C fire?

A

Electrocution or shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the three part to the fire triange?

A

Fuel, Heat, and Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________________________.

A

Fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When fighting an oil or gasoline fire down in the bilge, what should not be used?

A

Solid stream of water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The straight stream setting of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to ________________.

A

Break up burning material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which method of heat transmission does not require physical contact for fire to be spread between decks, bulkheads, or other surfaces?

A

Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by ___________________.

A

Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on which classification of fires?

A

B or C Class fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ventilation systems connected to a compartment that a fire is burning in are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by __________________.

A

Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Removing which element below will extinguish a fire?

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Size I and II extinguishers are designated as ___________________________.

A

Portable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When discharging a portable Carbon Dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher, you should not hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn ____________________________.

A

Becomes extremely cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A disadvantage of using CO2 is that the _____________.

A

CO2 does not cool the fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Shipboard Fire hose couplings _____________________.

A

Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A fire in the trash is made up of paper waste. What class fire is this?

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Foam effectively extinguishes a fire mainly by __________________.

A

Smothering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which fire extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

All approved portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being ___________________.

A

Carried by hand to a fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It must ____________________.

A

Labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew’s quarters or __________________.

A

Spaces open to the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fire extinguishers are numbered by size I through V, with I being __________________.

A

The smallest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

You can determine that a Carbon Dioxide fire extinguisher is fully charged by ___________.

A

Weighing on a properly calibrated scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class “C” fire is ______________________.

A

Electrical non-conductivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The primary process by which fires are extinguished using dry chemical powder is by breaking the combustion chain. TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What condition can cause Spontaneous combustion?

A

A chemical action within a substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What categories are fires grouped into?

A

Class A, B, C, and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gasoline tanks should be filled ____________.

A

To near the top with some space allowed for gasoline expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In general, the fuel injected into a marine diesel engine combustion chamber is ignited by _________________.

A

Heat of compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The shut off valve at the gasoline tank, which can be, operated from outside the tank space _________________.

A

Shuts off the gasoline supply at the tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When fueling your vessel has been completed _____________________.

A

All hatches should be opened and all compartments should be ventilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Your vessel has a gasoline engine and a mechanical exhaust ventilation system. BEFORE starting the engine, the exhaust blower should be run long enough to _______________.

A

Insure at least one complete change of air in the compartments concerned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

While fueling, the nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __________________________.

A

In contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If a gasoline engine turns over freely but will not start, the cause is generally ___________.

A

A defective ignition system

38
Q

How should the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear?

A

Clear

39
Q

When troubleshooting the cause of a gasoline engine’s failure to start, you should _____________________.

A

Check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor, and fuel line

40
Q

On most vessels gasoline fumes tend to __________________________.

A

Settle near the bottom of the bilge

41
Q

A call is received from the U.S. Coast Guard addressed to all stations. The call begins with the words “Pan-Pan” (3 times). Which type of emergency signal would this be?

A

Urgency signal

42
Q

You have just called another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?

A

Two minutes

43
Q

The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel _____________.

A

16

44
Q

The reception of weak radio signals may be improved by “opening up” the squelch control. What is the normal setting of the squelch control?

A

Adjust the squelch control until the noise (static) can be heard, then adjust it slightly in the opposite direction until the noise stops

45
Q

What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, that is not engaged in towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?

A

20 meters

46
Q

A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to navigation that is off station is preceded by the word ________________.

A

“SECURITY”

47
Q

Which of these are likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances - MF/HF radiotelephone; Safety Net; or VHF DSC?

A

MF/HF radiotelephone

48
Q

If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word ____________.

A

Securite

49
Q

The VHF frequency designated to be used only to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe navigation of a vessel is ___________.

A

156.65 MHz (channel 13)

50
Q

The height of a VHF radio antenna is more important than the power output of the radio because __________________.

A

VHF communications are basically “line of sight”

51
Q

What word is used as an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?

A

Mayday

52
Q

All VHF marine band radios operate in the simplex mode, which means that _____________.

A

Only one person may talk at a time

53
Q

A radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would start with the word _________________.

A

Pan-Pan

54
Q

Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiophone regulations while underway?

A

Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying one or more passengers for hire while navigating.

55
Q

During radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that ___________________.

A

A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person

56
Q

An approved immersion suit without assistance, turn an unconscious person’s mouth clear of water within 5 seconds. TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE

57
Q

The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate _________.

A

Automatically when the raft is inflated

58
Q

Approved Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be annually _______________.

A

Sent to a Coast Guard approved service facility

59
Q

The Master in charge of the vessel shall ensure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) is ______________.

A

Tested monthly

60
Q

Every life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be replaced _________________.

A

On or before the expiration date of the power source

61
Q

What does the acronym “EPIRB” stand for?

A

Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon

62
Q

While reviewing the muster list for your vessel you see that “3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells” is the signal for _______________.

A

Dismissal from fire and emergency stations

63
Q

Every vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must carry a Category I 406 MHz EPIRB that _________________________.

A

Will float free and clear of the sinking vessel and automatically activate

64
Q

While on watch you find an inflatable liferaft container with steel bands around the case, you should _______________.

A

Leave the bands in place

65
Q

Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person’s face clear of the water.TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE

66
Q

Which USCG approved lifesaving device is required for each person onboard a power-driven vessel carrying passengers?

A

Life jacket

67
Q

Traditionally, the emergency signal for fire aboard ship is ___________________.

A

Continuous sounding of the ship’s whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds

68
Q

A liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be ___________.

A

Attached to the raft stowage cradle or to a secure object nearby with a float-free link (weak link)

69
Q

While underway an inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

A

The sea anchor deploys.

70
Q

On an approved inflatable liferaft, the knife will always be located ______________________.

A

In a special pocket near the forward entrance

71
Q

By regulation, life preservers aboard an uninspected passenger vessel must be ____________________.

A

Readily accessible

72
Q

What safety device prevents an inflatable liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?

A

The weak link in the sea painter line.

73
Q

When will the float-free EPIRB be activated after abandoning ship?

A

Immediately after floating free

74
Q

An USCG approved immersion suite must be equipped with a(n) __________________________.

A

Whistle, light and retroreflective material

75
Q

Which vessel is required to carry onboard a Category I, 406 MHz EPIRB?

A

A vessel operating on the high seas or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes.

76
Q

Your vessel is required to have a waste management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe procedures for ______________.

A

Collecting and discharging garbage

77
Q

Most minor oil spills are caused by _________________.

A

Human error

78
Q

You are operating on Inland Waters of the United States. You may discharge overboard ______________.

A

It is illegal to dump waste on Inland Waterways.

79
Q

Regardless of local regulations, when in a U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to the ________________.

A

National Response Center (USCG)

80
Q

When may plastic material be discharge into the marine environment from a vessel?

A

Discharging plastics is prohibited.

81
Q

While taking on fuel you notice oil on the water near your vessel. You should FIRST ___________.

A

Stop fueling

82
Q

Which marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

A

Type III

83
Q

If you do not notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you may be imprisoned up to ____________.

A

5 years

84
Q

Small oil spills may cause serious pollution, as the effect tends to be cumulative. TRUE or FALSE?

A

TRUE

85
Q

The MARPOL treaty defines requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of ______________.

A

Garbage

86
Q

If oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?

A

Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water.

87
Q

MARPOL regulations require that garbage discharged from vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles from the nearest land must be ground to less than __________.

A

1 inch

88
Q

Oil spills must be reported to the _____________________.

A

U.S. Coast Guard National Response Center

89
Q

How is the person in charge of the operation of a vessel required to keep the crew informed of the regulations concerning the discharging of garbage overboard?

A

Keep placards prominently posted.

90
Q

When cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a ___________________.

A

Sorbent