Deck 2 Flashcards

1
Q

PCR virological examination for blue tongue is performed:

A

In the case of suspicion of blue tongue, preferable are examined animals with clinical signs of the disease

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2
Q

What is the time for interpretation of the results after the simultaneous intradermal test in cattle?

A

72 hours

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3
Q

The aim of preventive sanitation is to:

A

Create unfavourable conditions for the existence and replication of the etiological agents, their vectors and reservoirs

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4
Q

Which serological examination is prescribed in quarantine for horses intended for further breeding and production, and which are important third countries and member states?

A

Brucellosis

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5
Q

In radical method of disease reduction:

A

We kill all animals

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6
Q

Oral vaccination is performed against:

A

Bluetongue, african swine fever, rabies

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7
Q

When is a bacteriological examination for tuberculosis in cattle performed?

A

After killing of positive reagent for tuberculosis, on finding changes indicative for tuberculosis

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8
Q

What are the main methods of IBR eradication currently used in cattle farms?

A

Elimination method using a marker vaccine, against IBR

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9
Q

In what age categories are animals tested for brucellosis in quarantine?

A

Female animals over 12 months of age intended for further breeding and production and breeding bulls over 12 months of age

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10
Q

What is the main diagnostic method used for Enzootic bovine leukosis?

A

ELISA

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11
Q

Serological examination in case of abortion in cattle:

A

Brucellosis, Q fever, leptospirosis, chlamydiosis, IBR

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12
Q

Passive infectious disease diagnostics is:

A

Accidental finding at examination of diseases

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13
Q

Breeding stallions must be serologically tested before and after the end of breeding seasons for:

A

Dourine

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14
Q

Pathological material for confirmation of mycobacterium bovis is collected from:

A

From abnormal lymph and parenchyatous organs such as lung, liver, spleen

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15
Q

Which serological examination and virological examination are prescribed in case of affection of CNS?

A

West Nile Fever

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16
Q

Genetic screening as a preventive method is used in:

A

Scrapie?

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17
Q

Preventive veterinary measures are:

A

Complex or partial

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18
Q

Vaccines induce:

A
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19
Q

Immediate notifications are reported:

A

?

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20
Q

Therapy is forbidden in:

A

Foot and mouth disease

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21
Q

To increase specific resistance of animals we use:

A

A. Animal selection
B. All in all out system
C. Active and passive immunization

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22
Q

Homologous immune serum is obtained:

A

From the same species

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23
Q

Specific risk material is associated with:

A

A. TSE
B. Anthrax
C. ASF

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24
Q

What determines the length of quarantine (written)?

A

Depends on the epizootiological situation in the place of origin and in the place of transport of animals

25
Q

Core vaccinations for dog in slovakia:

A

Canine Distemper virus
Canine adenovirus/Infectious canine hepatitis
Canine parvovirus
Rabies
Leptospirosis

26
Q

What vaccinations are not core vaccinations for dogs intended SK?

A

Kennel cough
Borreliosis
Microsporosis

27
Q

Core cat vaccinations in SK:

A

Panleukopenia
Herpes virus
Calicivirus
Rabies

28
Q

Non core vaccinations for cats in Slovakia:

A

CHlamydia
Feline leukopenia

29
Q

Simultaneous immunization is used for:

A

FMD?

30
Q

Specific risk exists in:

A

BSE

31
Q

Vaccinations for horses in Slovakia:

A

Influenza
Tetanus
Strangles
Rhinopneumonitis
West Nile

32
Q

Main vacciations for ferrets in Slovakia:

A

Rabies
Distemper

33
Q

Vaccinations for calves:

A

BRD complex: BVDV 1 and 2, IBR, IP3 (pneumonia), BRSV
Ringworm
Salmonella
Lungworm

34
Q

Dairy cow vaccinations:

A

BRD
Leptospirosis
Coliform mastitis
Tetanus
Salmonellosis
Rotavirus
Coronavirus

35
Q

What vaccinations are not recommended unless emergency?

A

FMD
Tb
Paratuberculosis

36
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 1 day old:

A

Marek and Newcastle

37
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 1 week old:

A

Infectious bronchitis

38
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 2 weeks:

A

Fowl pox and infectious laryngotracheitis

39
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 3 weeks:

A

Live newcastle and infectious bursal disease

40
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 5 weeks:

A

Infectious bronchitis

41
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 8 weeks:

A

Fowl pox

42
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 10 weeks:

A

Infectious laryngotracheitis

43
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 12 weeks:

A

Infectious bronchitis

44
Q

Vaccinations of poultry 18 weeks:

A

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

45
Q

What is post exposure prophylaxis?

A

Any preventive medical treatment started after exposure to a pathogen in order to prevent the infection from occurring

46
Q

What can cause abortion?

A

Brucella abortus, melitensis
Listeria
Chlamydia
Campylobacter
Leptospirosis
Actinomyces pyogenes
Coxiella burnetti

47
Q

What affects the efficiency of vaccination?

A

Routeof adm
Age of animal
Composition of vaccine
Genetic predisposition
Pregnancy
Fever
Immunosuppression

48
Q

Define eradication:

A

The permanent reduction of a disease of world wide incidence which is caused by a specific etiological agent to zero. Continued intervention is no longer required. Rinderpest + small pox

49
Q

What is WAHIS?

A

World Animal Health Information System

50
Q

Vaccination of puppies age:

A

6-8 weeks, booster 2-4 weeks until 16 weeks

51
Q

Vaccination of kittens age:

A

6-8 weeks, booster every 2-4 weeks up to 16 weeks. Do not give last booster earlier than 16 weeks

52
Q

What are the types of resistance?

A

Non-specific: can be increased by better hygiene, nutrition (better conditions)
Specific: passive or active immunization

53
Q

What are the buffer zones?

A

1st buffer zone: radius 3 km
2nd buffer zone: 10 km radius
Infectious zone: area in which the etiological agent is transmitted by vectors can have a radius of a second protective zone up to 150km

54
Q

When is an infection declared liquidated?

A

After the last animal is cured. No new cases during observation period or suspicion. Final disinfection and rodent control.

55
Q

Infections belonging to List A:

A

Salmonellosis, mycobacteriosis, prionoses

56
Q

What are properties of a good vaccine?

A

Stimulate immune response, long lasting strong immunity, safe, cheap, stable, usable in mass vaccination, high antigenicity, free of adverse side effects

57
Q

Types of vaccines:

A

Live, inactivated, subunit, anatoxins, synthetic, genetically engineered

58
Q

What is an adjuvant?

A

An agent that modifies the effect of other agents to promote immunogenicity by trapping antigens at sites where they are accessible to reactive lymphocytes and induce antigen presenting cells to express costimulatory molecules such as CD80

59
Q

Define OIE:

A

A system notifying diseases worldwide