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Exploring the Cosmos 1X > Dec 2010 > Flashcards

Dec 2010 Flashcards

1
Q

Life on Earth is based on proteins and which type of acids?

A. Amino acids B. Carboxylic acids C. Mineral acids D. Sulphoric acids

A

A

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2
Q

Which two factors are thought to have led to the reduction on the carbon dioxide (CO2) content in the Earth’s atmosphere four billion years ago?

A. The CO2 was blown away by the solar wind and broken down by reactions with impacting meteorites. B. The CO2 was trapped by tectonic plates and polar icecaps. C. The CO2 was precipitated out with rainwater and processed by cyanobacteria. D. The CO2 was reduced by the Greenhouse effect and processed through the respiration of plant material.

A

C

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3
Q

Why are closed membranes essential in the development of complex biology?

A. They repel water that may dissolve complex molecules. B. They allow complex molecules to be built outwith the surrounding equilibrium. C. They provide a barrier from harmful ultra-violet rays from the Sun. D. They protect from predators

A

B

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4
Q

What is thought to have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs?

A. The volcanic explosion of Krakatoa. B. The Tunguska airbust. C. Gamma-rays from a solar flare. D. A large impacting meteorite

A

D

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5
Q

SETI hopes to find

A. a suitable location for a base to be constructed on the Moon. B. signals from distant intelligent civilisations. C. a binary partner for our Sun. D. underground lakes on Mars

A

B

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6
Q

Which gas dominates the atmosphere of Mars?

A. Water vapour B. Nitrogen C. Carbon Dioxide D. Oxygen

A

C

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7
Q

Beagle 2 was a British Mars landing mission that failed to successfully land on the surface of Mars. Which one of the following NASA missions to Mars also did not successfully land on the surface of Mars?

A. Mars Pathfinder B. Phoenix C. Mars Polar Lander D. Viking

A

C

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8
Q

After Mars and Earth, what are the two next most likely candidates, within our solar system, for harbouring life?

A. Europa and Titan B. Ceres and Eris C. Io and Oberon D. Mercury and Venus

A

A

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9
Q

Gravitational lensing is a technique that can be used to detect

A. gravitational radiation from neutron stars. B. planets orbiting distant stars. C. life on the surface of distant planets. D. radio signals from distant planets

A

B

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10
Q

Modern day propulsion techniques would allow us to reach the nearest star in

A. 80 years. B. 800 years. C. 8 000 years. D. 80 000 years.

A

D

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11
Q

The Plough is part of which constellation?

A. Cassiopeia B. Orion C. Ursa Minor D. None of the above

A

D

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12
Q

Which constellation cannot be seen IN FULL from the latitude of Glasgow?

A. Andromeda B. Centaurus C. Taurus D. Ursa Major

A

B

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13
Q

The right ascension of the (northern) autumnal equinox is

A. 0 h. B. 6 h. C. 12 h. D. 18 h.

A

C

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14
Q

Star A has a magnitude of minus 1.4 and its companion has magnitude 7.6. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Star A outshines star B by a factor of 4000. B. Star B outshines star A by a factor of 4000. C. Star A outshines star B by a factor of 10000. D. Star B outshines star A by a factor of 10000

A

A

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15
Q

The local sidereal time is defined as

A. the declination of the equinox. B. the hour angle of the equinox. C. the right ascension of the equinox. D. none of the above

A

B

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16
Q

At the latitude of Glasgow a star will be circumpolar if its declination is greater than
A. 23o B. 34o C. 56o D. 67o

A

B

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17
Q

In (northern) midwinter the constellations most favoured for observation around midnight have right ascensions approximately equal to

A. 0 h. B. 3 h. C. 6 h. D. 9 h.

A

C

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18
Q

Which of the following statements concerning tidal forces exerted on the Earth is correct?

A. The solar tide is about twice as strong as the lunar tide. B. The lunar tide is about twice as strong as the solar tide. C. The solar and lunar tides are of approximately equal strength. D. The lunar tide is of negligible strength compared with the solar tide

A

B

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19
Q

The first person to propose a heliocentric model of the universe was

A. Aristarchus. B. Galileo. C. Hipparchus. D. Ptolemy.

A

A

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20
Q

The first person to recognise Uranus as a planet within the solar system was

A. Flamstead. B. Halley. C. Herschel. D. Le Verrier

A

C

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21
Q

Which of the following type of objects is NOT a member of the Solar System.

A. Asteroids. B. Comets. C. Pulsars. D. Jovian Planets

A

C

22
Q

An orbit with an eccentricity of zero is

A. physically not possible. B. unstable. C. elliptical. D. circular

A

D

23
Q

The average distance of the Earth from the Sun in astronomical units is

A. 1. B. 10. C. 0.1. D. 0.5

A

A

24
Q

The Hellas Basin is located on

A. Earth. B. Mars. C. Mercury. D. Venus.

A

B

25
Q

The jet stream winds in the upper atmosphere of Venus have a typical velocity

A. 30 km/s. B. 30 m/s. C. 30000 km/hour. D. 300 km/h.

A

D

26
Q

More than 50 % of the Moon’s surface is observable because of

A. lobate scarps. B. libration. C. plate tectonics D. shield volcanoes

A

B

27
Q

The Mariner 10 spacecraft visited Mercury

A. 3 times. B. 10 times. C. 0 times. D. 15 times

A

A

28
Q

The magnetic field of the Earth

A. is always North polarity at the North pole. B. is always South polarity at the North pole. C. is zero at the North pole. D. continually flips polarity on geological timescales

A

D

29
Q

The escape velocity of the Earth is approximately

A. 11 km/s. B. 1.1 km/s. C. 0.1 km/s. D. 110 km/s

A

A

30
Q

In the Solar System the dominant force is due to

A. the Solar wind. B. magnetism. C. electrostatics. D. gravity.

A

D

31
Q

The surface of our moon is marked by impact craters. However, [Statement:] there are no visible impact craters on the surface of Jupiter. This is because [Reason:] Jupiter’s turbulent atmosphere obscures the view of its surface.

A. Statement is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Statement. B. Statement is True, Reason is True; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Statement. C. Statement is True, Reason is False. D. Statement is False, Reason is True

A

B

32
Q

Rank the radius of the Jovian planets in order, smallest to biggest.

A. Neptune, Uranus, Saturn, Jupiter B. Neptune, Uranus, Jupiter, Saturn C. Uranus, Neptune, Saturn, Jupiter D. Saturn, Neptune, Uranus, Jupiter

A

A

33
Q

Which of these Jovian planets has the longest orbital period?

A. Uranus. B. Saturn. C. Jupiter. D. Neptune.

A

D

34
Q

The rings of Saturn show complex structures and are composed of individual particles of ice and rock. [Statement:] The bright and dark bands show variations in the thickness of the ring. [Reason:] The presence of these complex structures is mostly due to orbital resonance effect of the moons of Saturn.

A. Statement is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Statement. B. Statement is True, Reason is True; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Statement. C. Statement is True, Reason is False. D. Statement is False, Reason is True

A

D

35
Q

Large numbers of “Trojan” asteroids share the same orbit as Jupiter. However, these asteroids do not crash into Jupiter because

A. they reside in the Lagrange points L4 and L5. B. Jupiter does not dominate the orbit. C. they are not affected by the gravitational pull of the Jupiter. D. they have not had enough time to fall into the gravitational trap of Jupiter

A

A

36
Q

The tail of a comet grows bigger and brighter as the comet approaches the Sun. Which of the following statements is either not true or not the reason for the growth of the comet’s tail as it approaches the Sun?

A. The comet speeds up as it approaches the inner Solar system. B. The heat from the sun starts to vaporize the core of the comet. C. The comet absorbs more Solar energy as it gets closer to the Sun. D. Solar wind and radiation pressure increases as the comet gets closer to the Sun.

A

A

37
Q

The orbits of Neptune and Pluto intersect each other. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Given enough time, the two will eventually encounter each other and Pluto will be “absorbed” by the much larger Neptune. B. It is likely that Pluto was a fragment of Neptune that broke away after a catastrophic collision. C. The two will never meet each other because their motion is synchronised. D. The two are unlikely to meet because the two orbits are not in the same plane

A

C

38
Q

The Galilean moons of Jupiter range in size from having a radius of 1800 km to over 2600 km. In descending order of size they are: Ganymede, Callisto, Io and Europa. How do they compare with the size of the planet Mercury? The size of Mercury is:

A: bigger than Ganymede. B: smaller than Ganymede but bigger than Callisto. C: smaller than Callisto but bigger than Io. D: smaller than Io but bigger than Europa

A

B

39
Q

Some of the moons of the Jovian planets are affected by “tidal heating”. What must these moons have in common?

A. Hard outer crust. B. Liquid on the surface. C. An elliptical orbit. D. Convection in the interior

A

C

40
Q

Planets and some of their moons generate magnetic fields around themselves. This can sometimes be observed in the form of Aurorae near the poles of the planets or moons. Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for the generation of magnetic field?

A. An atmosphere. B. Convection in the interior. C. Moderately rapid rotation. D. Fluid, electrically conducting interior

A

A

41
Q

What is the temperature of the Sun’s core?

A. 1.5 million degrees centigrade B. 15 million degrees centigrade C. 1.5 billion degrees centigrade D. 15 billion degrees centigrade

A

B

42
Q

Why are Sunspots darker than their surroundings?

A. They are covered with a thin blanket of cloud. B. They are places where the dark interior of the Sun is visible. C. They are not emitting any radiation at all. D. They are cooler than the rest of the solar surface

A

D

43
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. Optical light has a higher frequency than ultraviolet light. B. Optical light has a longer wavelength than ultraviolet light. C. Infrared light has a longer wavelength than ultraviolet light. D. Infrared light has a lower frequency than optical light.

A

A

44
Q

he overall chemical composition of the Sun is roughly as follows:

A. 70 % nitrogen, 25 % oxygen, 5 % carbon dioxide B. 75 % hydrogen, 24 % helium, 1 % other elements C. 50 % hydrogen, 25 % helium, 25 % nitrogen D. 75 % hydrogen, 24 % iron, 1 % other elements

A

B

45
Q

What is the meaning of ‘the solar constant’?

A. It is the mass of the Sun. B. It is the power per square metre arriving at earth from the Sun. C. It is the reaction rate in the Sun’s core. D. It is the total energy produced by the Sun each day

A

B

46
Q

What powers the Sun?

A. Nuclear fission of iron into lighter elements. B. Gravitational interactions. C. Chemical reactions between hydrogen and helium. D. Nuclear reactions producing helium from hydrogen

A

D

47
Q

How does the temperature of the Sun change going from its core to its outer atmosphere (corona)?

A. It decreases at a constant rate from core to corona. B. It first decreases from core to surface, then increases into the corona. C. It is approximately constant throughout. D. It first increases from core to surface and then decreases into the corona

A

D

48
Q

What excites the radiation in our atmosphere known as the Aurora Borealis?

A. Electrons and protons accelerated in space as a result of solar activity. B. Increased X-rays from the Sun during a solar flare. C. The impact of solar dust grains on atmospheric chemicals. D. Lightning in the Earth’s magnetosphere

A

A

49
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A. The Sun’s mass is approximately 1000 times the Earth’s mass. B. The Sun’s mass is approximately 1000 times Jupiter’s mass. C. The Sun’s radius is approximately 100 times the Earth’s radius. D. The Sun’s radius is approximately 10 times Jupiter’s radius.

A

A

50
Q

What is the solar convection zone?

A. It is the region in the Sun where energy is generated. B. It is the hot mantle surrounding the solar core. C. It is the region in the Sun where energy is transported by photons. D. It is the region in the Sun where energy is transported by moving gas

A

D

Exploring the Cosmos 1X (9 decks)

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