DCF (400 Q + rede book) Flashcards
walk me through a DCF
- DCF is when based on the present value of the company’s free cahs flow and present value of its terminal value
- first you project out a company’s financials and free cash flows based on its revenue growth, expenses and working capital. Then you project its for 5-10 years, and then discount it to its present value using discount, often WACC
- the you calculate the terminal value, which can use the multiple method or gordon growth method, and then also discount it back to present value using WACC
- you ad the 2 together to get the company’s EV
how do you get from revenue to unlevered free cash flow
- subtract COGs and SG&A (operating expense) to get to EBIT (operating income) * (1-tax)
- and then add back D&A and other non-cash adjustments, and then subtract CapEX
- then subtract change in working capital
- this gives you unlevered FCF which doesnt include the effect of interest rates
how to get from revenue to levered FCF
- revenue - COGs - SG&A - R&D - tax - interest - D&A
- add back D&A
- minus CapEx
- minus change in NWC
alternative ways to get to levered and unlevered FCF
- levered: cash flow from operations + D&A - change in NWC - capex
- unlevered: cash flow from operations + D&A - change in NWC - capex + tax adjusted interest expense - tax adjusted interest income
why do we use 5-10 yr projections for DCF
- because 5-10yrs is where we can reasonable predict the cash flow
- after that it is harder to predict and becomes more innaccurate
what is the purpose of Terminal Value
- it basically that we assume the company is still going to grow after the forecasted period
- but instead of calculating each year until indefintely we calculate a long term growth for operations and discount it back to PV too
What do you usually use for the discount rate?
- WACC if levered
- cost of equity only if unlevered
what is WACC
- COst of equity * % equity + cost of debt * % debt * (1-tax rate) + cost of preferred * % preferred
how do you calculate Cost of Equity
- CAPM = risk free rate + levered beta * risk free premium
what is risk free premium
- the excess return from the market by investing in a stock over the risk free rate
how do you get beta?
- stock market, bloomberg
- Un-Levered Beta = Levered Beta / (1 + ((1 - Tax Rate) x (Total Debt/Equity)))
- Levered Beta = Un-Levered Beta x (1 + ((1 - Tax Rate) x (Total Debt/Equity)))
why do nwe have to unlever and then relever beta
- because bloomberg gives you levered beta by including debt
- we want to look at how risk a company is regardless of % debt and equity, dont want to look at the effect of capital structure, because debt makes beta more risky
- we need to re-loever it because our CAPM required levered beta, to account how risky the company is based on its capital structure
Let’s say that you use Levered Free Cash Flow rather than Unlevered Free Cash Flow in your DCF – what is the effect?
- levered FCF = use WACC -> Enterprise Value
- unlevered FCF = use Cost of Equity -> equity value
how to calculate terminal value
- apply an exit multple to company’s final year EBITDA, EBIt or FCF (multiples method
- Use gordon growth method, where you assume company grows indefinelty using a long term growth rate
what does using the multiples method actually mean
- it means we look at hopw much the company’s TV is based on how other comparable companies EV/EBITDA multiples fare trading at
- i.e ifn a comparable company is trading at 8x EBITDA, we would assume our company also trades at that in 5 yrs time.
what is the Gordon growth method
- where you assume company growth into perpetuity
- TV = final year FCF * (1+growth rate)/ (discount rate - growth rate)
Why would you use Gordon Growth rather than the Multiples Method to calculate the Terminal Value?
- when no good comparable companies
- or if you think that multiples will change significantly in industry in future years
- cyclical industries maybe better to use long term growth rates