Day 6 Flashcards

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1
Q

Common knee joint problems in children and young adults

(6)

A
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2
Q

A 7-year-old boy is brought in to the GP surgery with an exacerbation of asthma.

On examination he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze but there are no signs of respiratory distress.

His respiratory rate is 24 / min and PEF around 60% of normal.

What is the most appropriate action with regards to steroid therapy?

A

3 days of prednisalone

The 2016 British Thoracic Society guidelines state the following with respect to steroid treatment in children:

Use a dose of 10 mg prednisolone for children under 2 years of age, 20 mg for children aged 2-5 years and 30-40 mg for children >5 years. Those already receiving maintenance steroid tablets

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3
Q

A woman brings her daughter to general practice concerned that she hasn’t started her periods yet. Her daughter is 15 years old.

On general examination, she is in the 9th percentile of height for her age, has short ring fingers, poor breast development, and a high arched palate.

On auscultation of her heart, you note a crescendo-decrescendo murmur on the upper right sternal border which radiates to the carotids.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What type of murmur is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur?

What is the most likely cause of this murmur?

A

Turner’s syndrome is associated with an ejection systolic murmur due to bicuspid aortic valve

bicuspid aortic valve (15%)

coarctation of the aorta (5-10%)

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4
Q

Which cardiac deformity is caused by rheumatic fever?

What is the acute presentation of rheumatic fever?

A

Streptococcal rheumatic heart disease can cause aortic stenosis

history of polyarthritis and fever, possibly with acute cardiac involvement.

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5
Q

What can cause aortic stenosis?

(2)

A

Rheumatic heart disease - streptococcal rheumatic heart disease

William’s syndrome - This is a genetic condition caused by a deletion on chromosome seven. It is associated with aortic stenosis

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6
Q

What is the acute presentation of rheumatic fever?

(3)

What is a long term complication?

(1)

A

history of polyarthritis and fever, possibly with acute cardiac involvement

aortic stenosis

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7
Q

William’s syndrome features

(5)

A

This is a genetic condition caused by a deletion on chromosome seven.

It is associated with aortic stenosis,

patients typically present with intellectual disability, underdeveloped cheeks, short noses, broad foreheads, and a happy affect

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8
Q

A 13-year-old girl presents to the emergency department complaining of coryzal symptoms.

She has been experiencing a fever, runny nose, headache and a non-productive cough for several days.

She appears comfortable, alert and well hydrated.

Her mother is concerned because despite giving her paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature does not seem to be coming down.

She took the last dose of antipyretics one hour ago.

On examination, her temperature is 38.9ºC, her heart rate is 110bpm, her blood pressure is 90/70mmHg and her respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute.

Her chest sounds clear, her throat is slightly red with no signs of tonsillitis.

Her ears are non-tender and otoscopy shows no abnormalities.

She does not have any rashes and shows no signs of photophobia or neck stiffness.

How should this patient be managed?

A

Initiate sepsis six protocol

BUFALO

Children aged over 12 have similar normal vital signs to an adult

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9
Q

A 4-year-old boy presents with a 2-day history of passing loose stools and non-bilious vomiting. He has passed 5 loose stools and vomited 2 times over the last 48 hours. No visible mucus or blood seen in the stool, and urine output has not changed according to his mother. He is able to tolerate oral fluid and liquid food.

He has not travelled abroad recently and there are no sick contacts. His vaccination schedule is up-to-date and there are no concerns regarding his growth and development.

On examination, he appears well and is alert and responsive. He has warm extremities and capillary refill time is <2 seconds. His vital signs are normal. Peripheral pulses are strong and regular. There is normal skin turgor and there are no sunken eyes.

How should the patient be managed?

A
  • Introduce oral rehydrating solution (ORS)
  • Do not use antidiarrhoeal medications in children under 5 years old with diarrhoea and vomiting caused by gastroenteritis
  • Discourage the drinking of fruit juices and carbonated drinks, especially in those at increased risk of dehydration [NICE 2009]. Fruit juice without extra water or carbonated drinks has too much sugar in it and this can draw water from the body into the gut, making the child more dehydrated.
  • Do not routinely give antibiotics to children with gastroenteritis [NICE 2009] because treatment is not effective on symptoms and does not prevent complications.
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10
Q

Causes of chronic diarrhoea in infants

(4)

A
  • most common cause in the developed world is cows’ milk intolerance
  • toddler diarrhoea: stools vary in consistency, often contain undigested food
  • coeliac disease
  • post-gastroenteritis lactose intolerance
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11
Q

GI causes of vomiting in children

Obstructive (6)

Inflammatory (4)

CNS (4)

A

Obstructive (6)

  • Foreign bodies
  • Idiopathic Pyloric Stenosis
  • Intussusception
  • Indirect inguinal hernias
  • Volvulus
  • Appendicitis

Inflammatory (4)

  • Gastroenteritis
  • Hepatitis
  • Peptic Ulcer Disease
  • Other uncommon: pancreatitis, cholecystitis

CNS (4)

  • Head injury
  • migraine
  • brain tumour
  • CNS infection
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12
Q

Diagnostic criteria of migraines

(5)

A

Diagnosis of exclusion; usually 3 or more of:

  • abdominal pain
  • nausea or vomiting
  • throbbing headache, unilateral location
  • associated aura (usually preceding the headache)
  • relief following sleep
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13
Q

A mother brings her 10-month-old child to the emergency department late at night due to respiratory distress. The mother states that the child did not eat dinner that night and has since started drooling at the mouth, looking very unwell and the child is now petrified of being moved. Questioning reveals that the child is late for their routine vaccinations for their age, but the mother is keen on completing the course.

The patient has a heart rate of 150 beats per minute, a temperature of 39.4ºC, blood pressure of 88/60mmHg (normal for age: ~90/60mmHg) and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Which other symptoms are most likely to be found in this patient?

A

Acute epiglottis

Patients with acute epiglottis may adopt the ‘tripod’ position

Abrupt onset and rapid progression (within hours) of dysphagia, drooling, and distress (‘the three D’s’)

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14
Q

You are junior doctor at a GP practice.

Your next patient is a 3-year-old girl who is notably irritable and teary.

Her father explains that she has had a reduced appetite for the past couple of days.

On examination you note multiple vesicles over both palms and around the mouth. She is also pyrexial.

Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate next step?

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease requires symptomatic treatment only

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15
Q

You are reviewing the growth of a 4-week-old neonate. She has a length on the 35th percentile, weight on the 42nd percentile and a head circumference on the 4th percentile.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of her microcephaly?

A

Foetal alcohol syndrome - associated with microcephaly

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16
Q

A 6-year-old boy is brought for review.

You can see from his records that he has been treated for constipation in the past but is otherwise fit and well.

His mother reports that he is currently passing only one hard stool every 4-5 days.

The stool is described as being like ‘rabbit droppings’.

There is no history of overflow soiling or diarrhoea.

Examination of the abdomen is unremarkable.

What is the most appropriate first-line intervention?

A

Advice on diet/fluid intake + Movicol Paediatric Plain

Constipation in children: macrogols (e.g. Movicol) is first-line

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17
Q

A newborn is found to have a number of congenital abnormalities including an extra finger on each hand, a cleft palate and lip, microphthalmia and microcephaly.

Which of the following chromosomes is most likely to be affected in this child?

A

A baby is born with microcephaly, small eyes, low-set ears, cleft lip and polydactyly - Patau syndrome

Trisomy 13

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18
Q

Which infection commonly causes a crop of white spots on the inside of the mouth?

A

Measles - Koplik spots

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19
Q

What is the prodrome of measles? (3)

What maybe seen inside the mouth? (1)

Describe the rash distribution in measles (2)

Describe the rash appearance in measles (4)

A

Prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever

Koplik spots: white spots (‘grain of salt’) on buccal mucosa

Rash: starts behind ears then to whole body,

discrete, maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent

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20
Q

Key features of mumps

(2)

A

Fever, malaise, muscular pain

Parotitis (‘earache’, ‘pain on eating’): unilateral initially then becomes bilateral in 70%

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21
Q

Key features of Rubella

(4)

A

Rash: pink maculopapular, initially on face before spreading to whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day

Lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular

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22
Q

Key features of Erythema infectiosum

(4)

A

Also known as fifth disease or ‘slapped-cheek syndrome’

Caused by parvovirus B19

Lethargy, fever, headache

‘Slapped-cheek’ rash spreading to proximal arms and extensor surfaces

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23
Q

A 6-month-old baby who was born in Bangladesh is brought to surgery. Around one week ago he started with coryzal symptoms. His mother reports he has not been feeding well for the past two days and has started to vomit today. Her main concern is a cough which occurs in bouts and is so severe he often turns red. No inspiratory or expiratory noises are noted. Clinical examination reveals an apyrexial child with a clear chest.

\What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Whooping cough (pertussis)

Diagnostic criteria

Whooping cough should be suspected if a person has an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and has one or more of the following features:

  • Paroxysmal cough.
  • Inspiratory whoop.
  • Post-tussive vomiting.
  • Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.
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24
Q

A 5-month-old baby is admitted with poor feeding. Over the last 24 hours, they have fed 25% of their usual amount and have had significantly fewer wet nappies than usual. The baby has been particularly irritable over this time and is not settling. There is no past medical history, no known allergies, and there has been no travel outside of the UK.

On examination, the baby appears unsettled and grouchy. There are no rashes on exposure and the fontanelles appear normal.

The physical observations reveal tachycardia and a fever of 39ºC.

When you attempt to manually flex the baby’s neck you note that they also flex the hips and knees.

Which of the following is the most appropriate empirical intravenous treatment?

A

Ceftriaxone

Initial empirical therapy for meningitis if > 3 months of age: IV 3rd generation cephalosporin

Antibiotics

< 3 months: IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + IV cefotaxime

> 3 months: IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)

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25
Q

Most common cause of croup

A

parainfluenza virus

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26
Q

How is meningitis treated in kids?

5 stages

A

1. Antibiotics

  • < 3 months: IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + IV cefotaxime
  • > 3 months: IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)

2. Steroids

  • NICE advise against giving corticosteroids in children younger than 3 months
  • dexamethsone should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals any of the following: frankly purulent, CSF, CSF white blood cell count greater than 1000/microlitre, raised CSF white blood cell count with protein concentration greater than 1 g/litre, bacteria on Gram stain

3. Fluids

  • treat any shock, e.g. with colloid

4. Cerebral monitoring

  • mechanical ventilation if respiratory impairment

5. Public health notification and antibiotic prophylaxis of contacts

  • ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin
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27
Q

A baby boy is delivered by emergency caesarean section at 42 weeks and 6 days because of fetal tachycardia and thick meconium-stained amniotic fluid.

Intrapartum antibiotics were given as the mother was known to be colonised with group B streptococcus.

The baby is cyanosed and tachypnoeic with chest wall retraction.

Chest X-ray shows patchy infiltrations and atelectasis.

What is the likely diagnosis? (3)
What predisposes babies to it? (3)

A
  • Meconium aspiration syndrome refers to respiratory distress in the newborn as a result of meconium in the trachea.
  • It is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks.
  • It causes respiratory distress, which can be severe.
  • Higher rates occur where there is a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking or substance abuse.
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28
Q

Atelectasis definition

A

Atelectasis (at-uh-LEK-tuh-sis) is a complete or partial collapse of the entire lung or area (lobe) of the lung.

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29
Q

A 4-month-old boy is failing to gain weight and has had recurrent chest infections since birth.

On examination, he looks thin and tired.

Auscultation of the precordium reveals a continuous murmur heard loudest under the left clavicle.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

Patent ductus is associated with a continuous murmur whilst Pulmonary stenosis presents with a systolic murmur.

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30
Q

Patent ductus is associated with a continuous murmur is associated with which condition?

A

Patent ductus is associated with a continuous murmur whilst

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31
Q

Continuous murmur is associated with which condition?

A

Patent ductus arteriossis

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32
Q

Pulmonary stenosis presents with which murmur?

A

Pulmonary stenosis presents with a systolic murmur.

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33
Q

Which murmur are VSDs associated with?

A

VSDs are associated with a pansystolic murmur

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34
Q

Pansystolic murmur is caused by which defect?

A

pansystolic murmur is associated with VSD

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35
Q

ASDs are associated with which murmur?

A

ASD’s have a fixed split S2 sound due to the increased venous return overloading the right ventricle during inspiration and delaying closure of the pulmonary valve.

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36
Q

Charlie is a 7 month old baby boy who presents to you with poor weight gain (50th to 10th centile), on examination he has an erythematous, blanching rash over his abdomen, colicky abdominal pain and vomiting after feeds.

He has been breast feeding with top-ups of ‘Aptamil’ formula.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

(3)

A

The correct answer is cows’ milk protein intolerance.

  • Multi-system involvement
  • 7 months would suggest the new introduction of top up feeds which correlates with the symptoms
  • Faltering growth along with the multi-system involvement would suggest cows’ milk protein intolerance
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37
Q

What is the classical age for pyloric stenosis?

A

2 to 8 weeks very rare above 6 months

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38
Q

What is the developmental cause of Hirschprung’s disease?

(3)

A

Craniocaudal migration of ganglion cells of the bowel
begins at 12th wk of gestation

Arrest of this migration produces an aganglionic segment
of bowel-absence of Aurbach’s & Meissener’s plexus

This aganglionic segment of bowel unable to relax &
peristaltic wave stops proximally- functional obstruction

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39
Q

You are called to the postnatal ward to review an 8 hour old baby born by elective caesarian section at 39 weeks gestation.

After reading the case notes you discover the use of maternal labetalol for high blood pressure.

On examination, the baby appears jittery and hypotonic.

What is the most appropriate next step?

What is the diagnosis?

(4)

A

A jittery and hypotonic baby may suggest neonatal hypoglycaemia.

Neonatal abstinence syndrome (also called NAS) is a group of conditions caused when a baby withdraws from certain drugs

The use of maternal labetalol is a risk factor and these babies must have their blood glucose measured.

Neonatal abstinence syndrome may also present in this way and so the use of maternal opiates or illicit drug use in pregnancy should also be ascertained.

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40
Q

You are the paediatrician reviewing a newborn who was delivered at 39+2 weeks vaginally and without any complications.

The child’s father has a diagnosis of achondroplasia and the parents are wondering whether their child has this condition.

Aside from measuring the child’s length, what physical feature might suggest achondroplasia in this child?

(4)

A

Trident hands - feature of achondroplasia

short limbs (rhizomelia)

lumbar lordosis

midface hypoplasia.

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41
Q

Match the genetic condition to the phenotype

Low set ears

Saddle-gap deformity

Trident hand deformity

Single palmar crease

Microcephaly

A

Low set ears - Fragile X syndrome

Saddle-gap deformity - Down’s syndrome

Trident hand deformity - achondroplasia

Single palmar crease - Down’s syndrome

Microcephaly - alcohol and certain drugs, chemicals and infections in the womb

Macrocephaly - achondroplasia

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42
Q

A newborn infant is noted to have a posterior displacement of the tongue and a cleft palate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

A baby is noted to have micrognathia and a cleft palate.

He is placed prone due to upper airway obstruction.

There is no family history of similar problems -

Pierre-Robin syndrome

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43
Q

Patau syndrome features (5)

A
  • Trisomy 13
  • Microcephalic, small eyes
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • Polydactyly
  • Scalp lesions
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44
Q

Edward’s syndrome features

(5)

A
  • (trisomy 18)
  • Micrognathia
  • Low-set ears
  • Rocker bottom feet
  • Overlapping of fingers
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45
Q

Fragile X features

(4)

A

Learning difficulties
Macrocephaly
Long face
Large ears
Macro-orchidism

46
Q

Noonan syndrome features (4)

A

Webbed neck
Pectus excavatum
Short stature
Pulmonary stenosis

47
Q

Pierre-Robin syndrome features (3)

A
  • Micrognathia
  • Posterior displacement of the tongue (may result in upper airway obstruction)
  • Cleft palate
48
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome features (3)

A

Hypotonia
Hypogonadism
Obesity

49
Q

William’s syndrome (5)

A

Short stature
Learning difficulties
Friendly, extrovert personality
Transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
Supravalvular aortic stenosis

50
Q

Cri du chat syndrome features (6)

A
  • (chromosome 5p deletion syndrome)
  • Characteristic cry (hence the name) due to larynx and neurological problems
  • Feeding difficulties and poor weight gain
  • Learning difficulties
  • Microcephaly and micrognathism
  • Hypertelorism
51
Q
A

Adrenal hyperplasia

FSH and LH are both low in gonadotrophin independent precocious puberty

52
Q

Precocious puberty in males and testes size

A

bilateral enlargement = gonadotrophin release from intracranial lesion

unilateral enlargement = gonadal tumour

small testes = adrenal cause (tumour or adrenal hyperplasia)

53
Q

You have just helped deliver a 2 week premature baby and are asked to do a quick assessment of the current APGAR score.

The baby has a slow irregular cry, is pink all over, a slight grimace, with a heart rate of 140 BPM and moving both arms and legs freely.

The current APGAR score is?

A

A - Pink all over no cyanosis - 2 points
P - Pulse rate over 100 - 2 points
G - Grimace - 1 point
A - Activity flexed arms and legs - 2 points
R - Respiration slow irregular cry - 1 point

8 points

  • A score of 0-3 is very low score
  • between 4-6 is moderate low and between
  • 7 - 10 means the baby is in a good state
54
Q

An 8-year-old boy is reviewed in the Enuresis clinic.

He is still wetting the bed at night despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months.

There are no problems with micturition during the daytime and he passes one soft stool everyday.

Which treatment is most likely to be offered?

A

Desmopressin

particularly if short-term control is needed (e.g. for sleepovers) or an enuresis alarm has been ineffective/is not acceptable to the family

55
Q

Risk factors for surfactant deficiency lung disease (SDLD)

gestation-related (2)

Other (4)

A

The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation:

  • 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks
  • 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks

Other risk factors for SDLD include:

  • male sex
  • diabetic mothers
  • Caesarean section
  • second born of premature twins
56
Q

SDLD Management (3)

A

Management

  • oxygen
  • assisted ventilation
  • exogenous surfactant given via endotracheal tube
57
Q

An emergency call is put out as a 9-year-old boy has collapsed in the waiting room.

The receptionists have already dialled 999.

He does not respond to stimulation and no signs of respiration can be found after 10 seconds.

There is no obvious foreign body in the mouth.

What is the most appropriate next step?

(3)

A
  • give 5 rescue breaths
  • check for signs of circulation

infants use brachial or femoral pulse, children use femoral pulse

  • 15 chest compressions:2 rescue breaths (see above)
  1. chest compressions should be 100-120/min for both infants and children
  2. depth: depress the lower half of the sternum by at least one-third of the anterior–posterior dimension of the chest (which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child)
  3. in children: compress the lower half of the sternum
  4. in infants: use a two-thumb encircling technique for chest compression
58
Q

You are asked to attend an elective Caesarean section for macrosomia and maternal diabetes.

At what times should you assess the APGAR scores?

A

APGAR scores are assessed at 1, 5 and 10 minutes of age

59
Q

A baby born at 35 weeks gestations via normal vaginal delivery is found to be irritable 48 hours after birth and suffers a convulsion.

There is no obvious head trauma or swellings.

Which of the cranial injuries is most likely to have occurred?

(3)

A

An intracranial haemorrhage refers to subarachnoid, subdural or intraventricular haemorrhages.

Subarachnoid haemorrhages are common and may cause irritability and even convulsions over the first 2 days of life.

Subdural haemorrhages can occur following the use of forceps.

Intraventricular haemorrhage mostly affects pre-term infants and can be diagnosed by ultrasound examinations.

60
Q

What is this

A

A cephalohaematoma may occur after a spontaneous vaginal delivery or following a trauma from the obstetric forceps or the ventouse.

A haemorrhage results after the presidium is sheared from the parietal bone.

The tense swelling is limited to the outline of the bone. It reduces over a few weeks - months.

61
Q

A baby is born at 32 weeks gestation and transferred to the neonatal unit.

Over the next few hours, the baby exhibits nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to be jaundiced.

Observations are a heart rate of 72/min, a respiratory rate of 70/min, and a temperature of 38.1ºC.

Which organism is most commonly responsible for the likely diagnosis?

(2)

A

Early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is most commonly caused by group B streptococcus infection

62
Q

A 2-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who has noticed that he has developed a small mass. On examination; a small smooth cyst is identified which is located above the hyoid bone. On ultrasound the lesion appears to be a heterogenous and multiloculated mass.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

(3)

A
  • Dermoid cysts are usually multiloculated and heterogeneous.
  • Most are located above the hyoid
  • their appearances on imaging differentiate them from thyroglossal cysts.
63
Q

Dermoid cyst features (3)

A
  • Derived from pleuripotent stem cells and are located in the midline
  • Most commonly in a suprahyoid location
  • They have heterogeneous appearances on imaging and contain variable amounts of calcium and fat
64
Q

Thyroglossal cyst features (3)

A
  • Located in the anterior triangle, usually in the midline and below the hyoid (65% cases)
  • Derived from remnants of the thyroglossal duct
  • Thin walled and anechoic on USS (echogenicity suggests infection of cyst)
65
Q

Features of a Branchial cyst (5)

A
  • Six branchial arches separated by branchial clefts
  • Incomplete obliteration of the branchial apparatus may result in cysts, sinuses or fistulae
  • 75% of branchial cysts originate from the second branchial cleft
  • Usually located anterior to the sternocleidomastoid near the angle of the mandible
  • Unless infected the fluid of the cyst has a similar consistency to water and is anechoic on USS
66
Q

Infantile haemangioma features (4)

A

May present in either triangle of the neck

Grow rapidly initially and then will often spontaneously regress

Plain x-rays will show a mass lesion, usually containing calcified phleboliths

As involution occurs the fat content of the lesions increases

67
Q

Lymphadenopathy of the neck features (3)

A
  • Located in either triangle of the neck
  • May be reactive or neoplastic
  • Generalised lymphadenopathy usually secondary to infection in children (very common)
68
Q

How do the types of bipolar disorder differentiate themselves in their presentation?

A

type I disorder: mania and depression (most common)

type II disorder: hypomania and depression

69
Q

How is transient tachypnoea managed?

(2)

A

observation, supportive care

supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturations

70
Q

4 most common causes of stridor in infants

A

croup

acute epiglottitis

laryngomalacia

inhaled foreign body

71
Q

A 2-month-old baby presents with gradually worsening noisy breathing which is especially noticeable when she eats. She is on a lower centile for weight gain and has poor food intake.

What is the most likely diagnosis?
(2)

A

laryngomalacia

“noisy breathing” = stridor

72
Q

A 7-month-old child is referred to clinic by her general practitioner because of asymmetrical hip creases.

What is your suspected diagnosis?

What is the first-line investigation in this case?

What about if the infant was younger than 4.5 months?

A

DDH

DDH in a child >4.5 months: x-ray is the first-line investigation

If younger than 4.5 months, ultrasound

73
Q

Management of DDH

(3)

A

Management

most unstable hips will spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks of age

Pavlik harness (dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis) in children younger than 4-5 months

older children may require surgery

74
Q
A

Meningitis in children < 3 months: give IV amoxicillin in addition to cefotaxime to cover for Listeria

75
Q

You are working in the emergency department when you assess a 6-year-old boy with a broken arm.

As part of your examination, you notice some lacerations on his back.

On questioning, he doesn’t want to talk about it but his mother quickly reassures you this is from him playing with his friends after all, ‘boys will be boys’.

You are suspicious. What do you do?

A

Put the child’s arm in a cast and admit them, then contact child protection

The GMC good medical practice contains guidelines on protecting children and young people.

Within this, they state that ‘you must be open-minded when considering the possible cause of an injury or other signs that may suggest that a child or young person is being abused or neglected.

For example, as part of the differential diagnosis, you should consider whether an uncommon condition, including a genetic condition, might have caused or contributed to the child’s or young persons injury or symptoms.

You must also make sure that the clinical needs of children and young people continue to be met and are not overshadowed by child protection concerns.

76
Q

You are asked to review a neonate with a postnatal diagnosis of congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

They are now stable, having had initial medical management.

The baby’s parents have done some background reading on the condition and have some questions for you.

The outcome or prognosis of a patient with CDH is largely dependent on which 2 factors

A

The presence of the liver in the thoracic cavity is a poor prognostic factor for CDH

The outcome or prognosis of a patient with CDH is largely dependent on 2 factors

  • Liver position
  • Lung-to-head ratio
77
Q

Where are congenital diaphragmatic hernias most likely to occur?

(3)

A

CDH is significantly more common on the left hand side.

  • 85% of cases occur on the left
  • 13% on the right
  • 2% bilaterally.
78
Q

What is the prognosis of congential diaphragmatic herniation

(1)

A

Only around 50% of newborns with CDH survive despite modern medical intervention.

79
Q

Congential diaphragmatic herniation of newborns features

(3)

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) occurs in around 1 in 2,000 newborns.

It is characterised by the herniation of abdominal viscera into the chest cavity due to incomplete formation of the diaphragm.

This can result in pulmonary hypoplasia and hypertension which causes respiratory distress shortly after birth.

80
Q

A 4-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents who are worried he is not acting his normal self and is very tired. There has been a recent outbreak of norovirus at his school, and for the past two days, he has been having repeated episodes of diarrhoea and vomiting and is not eating or drinking.

On examination, he appears lethargic and has pale, mottled skin.

His hands feel cold and when you assess his skin turgor it is reduced. Peripheral capillary refill time is 4 seconds. He weighs 17kg.

Observations:

  • Pulse: 160bpm (90-140)
  • BP: 98/68 mmHg
  • Respiratory rate: 34/min (25-30)
  • Oxygen saturation: 96% on air
  • Temperature: 37.5ºC

What is the most appropriate volume of 0.9% NaCl to give as a bolus?

A

Start IV fluid resuscitation in children or young people with a bolus of 20 ml/kg over less than 10 minutes

81
Q

How does treatment for dehydration in kids differ from that of adults?

A

Kids, give 20ml per kilogram over 10 minutes

Adults, give 500ml over 10 minutes

82
Q

Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration:

(5)

A
  • jittery movements
  • increased muscle tone
  • hyperreflexia
  • convulsions
  • drowsiness or coma
83
Q

The next parent arrives with her 2-year-old son.

He was diagnosed with cow’s milk protein allergy (CMPA) when he was 3 months old and got much better after it was first recognised.

He has been on a dairy excluding diet and has been fed hydrolysed milk up until 1 year of age.

He was tried on the milk ladder and successfully made it onto raw milk in the past month without further reaction or diarrhoea.

His mother wonders whether this is normal, or if he was misdiagnosed when he was younger.

IgE testing had been done and found to be normal.

What would you advise the boy’s mother?

A

Most children with non-IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy will be milk tolerant by 3 years of age

84
Q

At what age is raw cow’s milk generally tolerated?

Which immune molecule generally mediates this intolderence?

(2)

A

Most children with non-IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy will be milk tolerant by 3 years of age

Most children with IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy will be milk tolerant by 3 years of age

85
Q

How is cows milk protein (CMPA) generally managed?

(6)

A

Management if formula-fed

  1. extensive hydrolysed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula for infants with mild-moderate symptoms
  2. amino acid-based formula (AAF) in infants with severe CMPA or if no response to eHF
  3. around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk

Management if breastfed

  1. continue breastfeeding
  2. eliminate cow’s milk protein from maternal diet. Consider prescribing calcium supplements for breastfeeding mothers whose babies have, or are suspected to have, CMPI, to prevent deficiency whilst they exclude dairy from their diet
  3. use eHF milk when breastfeeding stops, until 12 months of age and at least for 6 months
86
Q

A 7-month old infant is brought to the general practitioner by his mothers. They describe a history of a runny nose with a mild fever for the past week. Today, they thought he looked paler than usual, has been increasingly drowsy, and seemed to have difficulty breathing.

On examination, he is of normal colour, there is nasal flaring and moderate intercostal recession. He only wakes after rubbing his chest for 5 seconds. His pulse rate is 140 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 94% on room air, and temperature is 37.9 ºC.

Which aspect of the presentation is most worrying as a sign of serious illness?

A

Moderate or severe intercostal recession is a red flag in paediatric patients with a fever

87
Q

A 6-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is brought to his general practitioner for a routine physical examination.

During the examination, the general practitioner notes that the neonate’s urethral meatus is located on the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, rather than the distal glans penis.

Name this abnormal finding,

What other congenital defect is this neonate at an increased risk of also having?

A

hypospadias

Cryptorchidism is present in around 10% of patients with hypospadias

88
Q

Define cryptorchidism

Which condition is it assocaited with?

A

known as undescended testis, approximately 10% of neonates with hypospadias also have cryptorchidism.

89
Q

Define posterior urethral valve

Which condition is it associated with?

A

Posterior urethral valves (PUV) are obstructive membranes that develop in the urethra (tube that drains urine from the bladder), close to the bladder.

It is associated with increased susceptibility to urinalysis tract infections

90
Q

What are Varicoceles

Which condition are they associated with?

A

Varicoceles are associated with venous hypertension in the pampiniform venous plexus and are not a typical congenital defect.

91
Q

A 2-day-old neonate is being treated for transient tachypnoea of the newborn.

She is being monitored on the ward, and feeding is being encouraged when she is not tachypnoeic.

She was born via emergency cesarean section at 34 weeks, following maternal complications in pre-term labour.

Her mother has severe asthma and during pregnancy, developed gestational diabetes.

What is the greatest risk factor for developing this condition?

A

Delivery by caesarean section is a risk factor for transient tachypnoea of the newborn

92
Q

Which pulses are checked during the assessment of an infant’s heart rate?

A

femoral and carotid

93
Q

A 6-month-old baby presents with feeding difficulties associated with a cough and wheeze and is diagnosed with bronchiolitis.

What are the precipitating factor for a more severe episode of bronchiolitis and not just an increased risk of developing bronchiolitis?

What is the causative agent?

A

more serious if bronchopulmonary dysplasia (e.g. Premature)

congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is the pathogen in 75-80% of cases

94
Q
A

Biliary atresia typically presents in the first few weeks of life with jaundice, appetite and growth disturbance

Bile duct stenosis would present in a similar way but is less common.

95
Q

What causes biliary atresia?

A

A childhood disease of the liver in which one or more bile ducts are abnormally narrow, blocked, or absent. It can be congenital or acquired.

96
Q

A 2-hour-old baby is reviewed for increased work of breathing. He was born 2 hours ago via elective caesarean section at 39 weeks gestation. The pregnancy was uncomplicated.

Currently, he has a respiratory rate of 75 breaths per minute (normal: 40-60) and an oxygen saturation of 95% (normal: >93%). There is nasal flaring visible on examination.

A chest x-ray shows hyperinflated lung fields and a line of fluid in the horizontal fissure of his right lung.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

What is the most appropriate management?

A

transient tachypnoea of the newborn

Observation and supportive care +/- oxygen are the mainstays of treatment in uncomplicated transient tachypnoea of the newborn

97
Q

A 25-year-old man is counselled regarding the genetics of Huntington’s disease

Describes the concept of anticipation

A

Anticipation in trinucleotide repeat disorders = earlier onset in successive generations

98
Q

A 15-year-old known type 1 diabetic comes in with vomiting, abdominal pain, and drowsiness.

On examination, you notice her breath smells of pear drops.

She tells you that she can’t be admitted right now as she is missing a friend’s birthday party.

After explaining the risks of leaving she seems to understand, can repeat what you have said, and explain her decision.

Her parents say that she should stay for treatment. What should you do?

A

Admit the patient for treatment, seeking legal advice if she continues to refuse treatment

This individual is under the age of 16 and is deemed to have capacity.

Therefore, they have the right to agree to a treatment without a parent’s consent, but if they choose to refuse it, you must weigh up their best interests.

As the patient has diabetic ketoacidosis, the decision to leave would most likely be fatal and so it would be fair to make the decision that it is in her best interests.

99
Q

A man brings his 18-month-old daughter to your GP clinic.

She has had coryzal symptoms for the last 2 days.

Last night, she started with a barking cough and a mild temperature of 37.8º.

On examination, there is mild stridor when mobilising, with no recessions visible.

Chest sounds clear with good air entry bilaterally.

The temperature today remains at 37.8º, but all other observations are normal.

What is the most appropriate management?

A

Croup - A single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) is to be taken immediately regardless of severity

100
Q

How is mild croup managed?

A

Croup - A single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) is to be taken immediately regardless of severity

101
Q

A doctor identifies that a neonate was found to have a left subclavicular thrill, a heaving apex beat, and a continuous ‘machinery like’ murmur.

Regarding this defect, what is the correct management?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus: indomethacin is given to the neonate in the postnatal period, not to the mother in the antenatal period

102
Q

What would the findings be of a cardiac examination of an infant with PDA?

(3)

A

left subclavicular thrill

a heaving apex beat

continuous ‘machinery like’ murmur

103
Q

A 9-month-old boy has been referred to you by the out of hours GP.

His parents give a 24-hour history of increased work of breathing, coryzal symptoms, lethargy and reduced oral intake.

On examination, you note fine inspiratory crackles and subcostal recessions.

He is pyrexial (37.9ºC) and oxygen saturations are 91% in air.

What is the next most appropriate course of action?

(5)

A

This child has bronchiolitis.

A lower respiratory tract infection commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus. The disease is usually self-limiting, but it is important to note that some children deteriorate in the first 72 hours of the illness. NICE recommend admission if any of the following criteria are present:

  • Apnoea (observed or reported)
  • Persistent oxygen saturation of <92% in air
  • Inadequate oral fluid intake (<50% of normal fluid intake)
  • Persisting severe respiratory distress, for example grunting, marked chest recession, or a respiratory rate of over 70 breaths/minute
104
Q

Overview of PDA

(4)

A

generally classed as ‘acyanotic’. However, uncorrected can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, termed differential cyanosis

connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta

usually, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow which enhances prostaglandins clearance

more common in premature babies, born at high altitude or maternal rubella infection in the first trimester

105
Q

PDA risk factors (3)

A

more common in premature babies,

born at high altitude

maternal rubella infection in the first trimester

106
Q

What is the most likely causative agent for bacterial pneumonia in children?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent of a bacterial pneumonia in children

107
Q

Treatment of S. pneumoniae in children

(4)

A

Amoxicillin is first-line for all children with pneumonia

Macrolides may be added if there is no response to first line therapy

Macrolides should be used if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected

In pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended

108
Q

A 16-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with cough, rhinorrhoea, sore throat, fever and a rash. He has no significant past medical history and is on no medications. He has recently arrived from Romania and is a member of the Roma community.

His observations are heart rate 94 beats per minute, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturations 97% on room air and temperature 39.2ºC.

On examination, there is a maculopapular rash affecting his face. His eyes have a serous discharge and small white lesions are noted on his buccal mucosa. There is no tonsillar exudate. There is no evidence of meningism. The cardio-respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Measles is characterised by prodromal symptoms, Koplik spots. maculopapular rash starting behind the ears and conjunctivitis

109
Q

Investigations for mumps

(1)

A

Investigations

IgM antibodies can be detected within a few days of rash onset

110
Q

What is the infective agent in scarlet fever?

A

The rash of scarlet fever is caused by a streptococcal infection

111
Q

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the surgery with chickenpox. His mother wants advice regarding school exclusion.

What is the most appropriate advice to give?

A

Chickenpox school exclusion - until all the lesions are dry and have crusted over (usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash)

112
Q
A