Day 13 Flashcards
A 21 day old baby boy is brought to the GP because of yellow skin and eyes.
The yellowness started at 7 days of life and has been getting worse.
The baby has been bottle fed with poor feeding.
He has had 8 wet nappies of dark urine a day and has passed chalky white stools for the last week.
The baby was born by spontaneous vaginal delivery at 39 weeks gestation after a normal pregnancy.
He has otherwise been well, with no fever, abnormal movements or rash.
On inspection, he appears well. The abdomen is soft and the liver is palpable 2cm below the costal margin.
Blood tests show a normal haemoglobin, raised ALT and ALP, and raised total bilirubin (predominantly conjugated).
An abdominal ultrasound scan shows echogenic fibrosis in the liver.
Which of the following investigations will definitively diagnose the likely condition in this case?
Cholangiography
This baby with prolonged jaundice (>14 days) with pale stools, dark urine and a conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia is highly suspicious for obstructive jaundice. The ultrasound findings of echogenic hepatic fibrosis suggest biliary atresia. Biliary atresia is definitively diagnosed with cholangiography, which will fail to show the biliary tree.
A 5 year old boy presents to the GP with a stomach ache, painful knees and a rash.
His mother says he has had severe abdominal pain and aching knees for the last 3 days that have stopped him going to school or playing.
He is managing to drink but is not eating much.
He is opening his bowels normally but his urine has been a brownish colour.
He developed a purple rash on his legs and buttocks overnight which did not disappear when his mum put a glass against it.
He has no vomiting, diarrhoea, headache, neck stiffness or photophobia.
He had a cold 2 weeks ago, but is otherwise well.
He takes no medicines and his vaccinations are up to date.
On inspection, he appears well but in pain.
His respiratory rate is 20, saturations are 99%, heart rate is 82, capillary refill is 2 seconds, blood pressure is 122/76 and temperature is 37.1 degrees.
There is a purpuric rash over the legs and buttocks.
What is the mechanism of this child’s condition?
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Small vessel vasculitis
This child with a purpuric rash over the legs and buttocks, abdominal pain, arthralgia and haematuria most likely has a diagnosis of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP). HSP is the most common small vessel vasculitis in children.

A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see the out of hours GP as she is very worried about her.
She has suddenly developed a bright red rash over her cheeks and the bridge of her nose.
She also has a mild fever. After further discussion, the mother reveals that the child had been complaining of a headache a few days earlier and she is now worried that she has meningitis.
On examination, you find the child a little lethargic but otherwise systemically well.
She has a bright red rash over her cheeks and nose as well as a slightly more faded, lacy rash on her torso.
Given the history and examination findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Erythema infectiosum
Erythema infectiosum, also known as ‘Slapped Cheek Syndrome’ or ‘fifth disease,’ is a viral infection that is most common in children, but can affect individuals of all ages.
It has two stages.
- The first is the initial headache, fever, and cold-like symptoms.
- This is then followed by a rash developing over the following few days; appearing bright red on the cheeks and more lacy in pattern over the rest of the body.
A 3-year-old is brought to the general practitioner.
She has been distressed with otalgia, pulling her left ear for 12 hours.
Just before arriving at the surgery, the mother notices a smelling fluid discharge from her daughter’s left ear.
On otoscopy, you see a perforated left tympanic membrane.
How should you manage the child?
Immediate antibiotic prescription
Children with acute otitis media presenting with otorrhoea are more likely to benefit from oral antibiotics.
A three week old preterm on the neonatal intensive care unit develops a distended abdomen and passes blood per rectum.
Over the next hour the infant desaturates and becomes hypotensive, requiring artificial ventilation.
A plain radiograph of the abdomen shows grossly distended bowel loops and pneumointestinalis.
What is the diagnosis?

Necrotising Enterocolitis
This is a typical presentation of NEC.
The classic X-ray findings are of grossly distended bowel loops with air within the bowel wall (pneumointestinalis).
There may also be air within the portal tract and biliary tree.
Surgery is required for perforations.
A 35 year old woman has been urgently referred to the fetal medicine unit after an abnormality was found at her 18 week anomaly scan.
The ultrasound report states that hydrops fetalis was found.
On questioning she has felt well throughout the pregnancy so far, but her 3 year old son has recently been ill with flu-like symptoms and a facial rash.
What pathogen has the mother most likely contracted in this case?
What is the risk to the neonate?
Parvovirus B19
Parvovirus B19 can cause erythema infectiosum or “slapped cheek syndrome” in the paediatric population and this is likely what her son had.
This can often be asymptomatic in pregnant women but can cause cross the placenta and cause severe anaemia in the fetus due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis.
This causes hydrops fetalis and carries a high risk of intrauterine death.
A 4-year-old boy presents to the GP with a one-day history of difficulty in breathing.
His mother reports that he has been unable to eat or drink for the past 24 hours, and she has noticed that he is salivating more than usual.
He does not have a cough.
Without examining the child he is noted to be sat in the tripod position and a high-pitched noise on inspiration is audible.
His family have recently emigrated from the Philippines and are new to the practice, so he has no previous medial records.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Acute Epiglottitis
Haemophilus influenza causes epiglottitis, which is a medical emergency as its rapidly progressive nature can lead to abrupt airway obstruction.
Children typically present with a short history of fever, irritability, sore throat, pooling and drooling of saliva and a muffled voice/cry.
The important negative in this history is the absence of a cough.
Cases of childhood epiglottitis are rare in the UK due to vaccination programmes; however, as this child has only recently moved to the UK you cannot be certain that his vaccinations are up to date.
A 6 year old girl with a known peanut allergy had an anaphylactic reaction at her friend’s birthday party.
Her mother treated her at the scene using an adrenaline auto-injector and brought her the Emergency Department where she received chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone.
Her observations on arrival were normal apart from a mild tachycardia. One hour later, she is asymptomatic and looks well.
A repeat set of observations are underway.
What is the most appropriate course of action?
Why?
Admit for 6 hours observation
Anaphylaxis can sometimes occur as a bi-phasic reaction, with the second reaction occurring 4-6 hours after the initial one.
Young children are particularly at risk of this.
Thus all patients should be monitored in a hospital setting for up to 6 hours after their initial reaction regardless of how well they initially look.
A young male aged 4 weeks is brought into PAU by his concerned mother because of his persistent vomiting for the past 48 hours.
He was born at 36 weeks and weighed 3.8Kg.
He now weighs 5.1Kg.
His mother has been suffering from Type 1 diabetes since early childhood. The pregnancy was otherwise uneventful.
He is her first child and she has never been pregnant before.
On questioning his mother, she reports that the vomiting has become more frequent and forceful in nature.
She reports his most recent vomiting was projectile and white in colour. He has feeding less since he started vomiting.
She has not noticed any blood in the vomit.
He has still been wetting his nappies but has not passed stool yet today.
On examination the baby appears well hydrated and no significant weight loss is noted.
Give the likely diagnosis.
What would be the most appropriate definitive treatment for his condition?
Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy
Pyloromyotomy is the definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis.
The procedure involves dividing the hypertrophied pylorus muscle down to the level of the mucosa whilst leaving the mucosa intact.
A laparoscopic procedure will reduce the patient’s stay in hospital after the procedure and so reduce their risk of postoperative complications.

A 3-month-old infant is referred following an abnormal ultrasound test of the hips.
The infant is the first child of his parents.
He was born by normal vaginal delivery.
His leg lengths are measured from his ASIS (anterior superior iliac spine) to the medial malleolus on both sides and are found to be unequal.
Give the most likely diagnosis.
What bedside test would you use to indicate whether the shortening is femoral or tibial?
Galleazi test
The diagnosis is Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip with a subsequent leg length discrepancy.
Galleazi’s test is used to indicate whether the shortening is femoral or tibial.

A 38-year old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant has abnormal ultrasound results.
The foetus has a thickened nuchal fold and shortened long bones.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following techniques is the most suitable method of antenatal diagnosis?
Chorionic villus sampling
Before 15 weeks, chronic villus sampling is the procedure of choice for obtaining a sample of foetal DNA.
A newborn baby boy receives a full physical examination at 12 hours of life prior to being discharged from hospital.
No abnormalities are detected on the examination.
He is the firstborn child of his parents, and mother asks whether any further checks need to be carried out on him.
When will he need to be further assessed?
He will require a further assessment between 6-8 weeks
As part of newborn screening, a newborn and infant physical examination is performed within the first 72 hours of birth, and again at 6-8 weeks.
This involves a thorough examination of the baby’s systems and anatomical features, in order to assess for any congenital abnormality or pathology.
A 5 year old boy presents to the GP with his father.
He has had a fever, runny nose and cough over the last few days and has now developed a red rash all over his body.
His father is uncertain about which immunisations the boy has received.
On examination the boy has an erythematous, blanching maculopapular rash all over, with grey spots on his buccal mucosa.
What is the diagnosis?
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?
Supportive treatment.
This boy presents with features in keeping with measles infection, which is self-limiting.
A 15 year old girl sees the GP about a rash that has developed in the last two weeks. There are several discrete circular lesions, up to 6cm in diameter, across her upper limbs in an asymmetric pattern which are well circumscribed with an erythematous edge. They are extremely pruritic.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Discoid eczema
Discrete lesions with an erythematous border accompanied with pruritus is classical of discoid eczema.
Eczema generally is a pruritic condition, however discoid eczema is even more pruritic.
It is managed using the same therapies and principles as eczema.
A 13-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents to A&E with his parents as they are concerned that he has been complaining of pain in his chest and back.
The pain started overnight and has progressively gotten worse, despite taking regular Paracetamol and Ibuprofen.
He is now struggling to breathe as the pain is worse on deep inspiration.
He has a known diagnosis of sickle cell disease, and has been admitted to hospital 4 times over the past year with painful crises.
His vital observations are: heart rate 110, blood pressure 137/89mmHg, respiratory rate 35, oxygen saturations 89%, temperature 38.5ºC.
Respiratory examination reveals bronchial breathing and crackles in the bases bilaterally.
Abdominal examination is unremarkable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute Chest Syndrome
This child has presented with fever, chest pain and shortness of breath on a background of sickle cell disease which makes the most likely diagnosis acute chest syndrome.
The pathology usually evolves from the lung bases and produces consolidation which explains the bronchial breathing and crackles.

A 4-year-old boy is brought into the GP with his father, as he is concerned that his son is still having difficulty walking.
On assessment, the boy has a waddling gait with a tendency to walk on his toes.
He also struggles to stand up from lying without walking his arms up his legs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
This is the correct answer.
Gowers’ sign describes a patient that has to use their hands and arms to ‘walk’ up their own body in order to stand up from a supine position. This is classically seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) due to proximal muscle weakness. All boys that are not walking by the age of 1 1/2 years should have creatinine levels measured, to rule out DMD.

A 15-year-old girl presents to the GP requesting oral contraception. The GP consults the Fraser guidelines before deeming the girl competent to start the oral contraceptive pill.
What are the Fraser guidelines?
(5)
- He/she has sufficient maturity and intelligence to understand the nature and implications of the proposed treatment
- He/she cannot be persuaded to tell her parents or to allow the doctor to tell them
- He/she is very likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment
- His/her physical or mental health is likely to suffer unless he/she received the advice or treatment
- The advice or treatment is in the young person’s best interests.
You are a medical student sitting in on a paediatric cardiology clinic.
During a break between patients the consultant is giving some teaching on Tetralogy of Fallot and asks which anatomical anomaly determines the extent of cyanosis in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?
Pulmonary stenosis
The degree of right ventricle outflow obstruction correlates to the extent of cyanosis caused.
The greater the level of obstruction, the less unoxygenated blood reaches the lungs with each beat, the greater the cyanosis will be.
Tetralogy of Fallot is a relatively rare form of congenital cardiac disease. The clinical features of Tetralogy of Fallot are:
- Pulmonary stenosis
- Right ventricular hypertrophy
- Overriding aorta
- Ventricular septal defect.
A concerned mother has brought her 15 month old son into the GP practice because she is very worried that he has not started walking by himself yet even though his older sister was walking independently by 12 months.
On assessment it is noted that he able to pull himself up to stand and is able to walk when his hands are held. No other abnormalities are noted.
What is the most appropriate step for the GP to take?
Reassure the mother and book a follow up appointment for 3 months time
This is the most appropriate response. As the child’s gross motor skills currently show no evidence of delay but it would be good practice to reassess the child at 18 months.
A 10 year old boy presents to his GP with his mother.
Over the last six weeks, he has had four distinct episodes of breathlessness and cough.
Three of these episodes have been after visiting a friend’s house who owns three cats and whose parents smoke, but today he had an episode at his own home. He feels otherwise well and is afebrile, with normal vital observations for his age. On auscultation of the chest, the GP hears widespread wheeze.
If a chest x-ray was performed, what would be the most likely finding?
Hyperinflation
This boy’s presentation is in keeping with asthma. Chest x-rays do not show any specific characteristics of asthma and are most likely to show hyperinflation only.
A 7-year-old presents to the paediatric accident and emergency department complaining of “pain in my tummy”.
His father says his son had a sore throat a few days ago.
On examination there is pain in the right iliac fossa, but there is no guarding.
Urine dipstick is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Mesenteric adenitis
Mesenteric adenitis often presents with a history of pain in the right iliac fossa, usually following an acute viral illness.
There may be a low-grade fever but often children present quite well with no change in appetite.

A 15 year old male presents to the Emergency Department with fever, shortness of breath and a productive cough that has developed over the past week.
He is a frequent attender with 5 chest infections in the past year.
His past medical history includes bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis.
Examination reveals widespread crackles and rhonchi (low pitch wheeze) in both lungs.
Which is the most likely causative organism behind his current presentation?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pseudomonas is a common cause of respiratory tract infections in a patient with cystic fibrosis.
Other common pathogens include Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophilus influenzae.
A 45 year old mother missed most of her antenatal scans and check ups.
She gave birth to her son yesterday in an uncomplicated delivery.
However, during feeding she has noted that her son often tires easily and becomes disinterested in feeding any longer.
Then this morning she became very worried as he appeared to turn very blue especially in the face.
Give the probable cause of these symptoms.
What would be the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
Echocardiogram
ECHO should be ordered in any newborn with a suspected diagnosis of congenital heart disease. Echocardiography is the definitive investigation for diagnosis of TOF.
A 16 year old girl has been referred for review by the orthopaedic specialist by her GP with a 3 month history of worsening pain and swelling around her right knee.
She is a keen athlete and has recently been preparing for football trials.
She believes this may have started following an injury to her knee whilst playing several months ago.
Recently the pain has become so bad that she has had to miss training even though she is now taking regular paracetamol.
She reports the pain is worse at night.
On examination there is a tender mass noted above the right knee and the thigh appears enlarged compared to the left. The patient is also noted to be walking with a limp.
An x-ray of the right knee shows new disorganised bone growth around the distal end of the right femur with a poorly defined border.
There is also area of radiolucent lesions and a sunburst appearance of the periosteum is noted.
Given her presentation what is the most likely diagnosis?
Osteosarcoma
Osteosarcoma is the most common non-haematological primary malignant neoplasm of bone in children and adolescents. Pain and swelling with a prolonged onset are characteristic. The x-ray findings of new bony growth and a periosteal reaction causing a sunburnt appearance are typical of osteosarcoma.











