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Gnireenigne lacimehc > DAY 3 YARN > Flashcards

DAY 3 YARN Flashcards

1
Q

At which range of angle will the scalar product of two vectors be positive?
A. 0 to 90 degrees
B. 90 to 180 degrees
C. 45 to 135 degrees
D. 0 to 180 degrees

A

A. 0 to 90 degrees

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2
Q

Which of the following will have a larger speed value just as before the object hits the ground?
A. Throwing the object upward with the same speed “v” at a level “T”
B. Throwing the object downward with the same speed “v” at the same level “T”
C. None of the above, because they will have the same speed before hitting the ground
D. Cannot be calculated, because the mass of the object is not given

A

C. None of the above, because they will have the same speed before hitting the ground

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3
Q
A
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4
Q

When will the maximum range be achieved?
A. When the flight is parabolic
B. When the object experiences horizontal motion
C. When the maximum height is three time of the range
D. When the object is launched with equal initial horizontal and vertical speeds

A

D. When the object is launched with equal initial horizontal and vertical speeds

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5
Q

Which Newton’s law best explains how rockets can take off?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. None

A

C. Third

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6
Q

A stone is thrown up at a velocity and comes down, what is the change in kinetic energy of the stone?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. Cannot say

A

C. Zero

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7
Q

Who first stated the work-kinetic energy theorem?
A. Isaac Newton
B. Gaspard de Coriolis
C. Jean Victor Poncelet
D. René Descartes

A

B. Gaspard de Coriolis

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8
Q

This is a method of transferring energy to a system by applying a force to the system and causing a displacement at the point of application of the force.
A. work
B. heat
C. momentum
D. kinetic energy

A

A. work

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9
Q

It states that if work is done on a system by external forces and the only change in the system is its speed, then the total work is the difference between the final and initial kinetic energies.
A. Conservation of momentum
B. Conservation of kinetic energy
C. Work-kinetic energy theorem
D. Mechanical energy conservation

A

C. Work-kinetic energy theorem

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10
Q

The moment of inertia of a solid cylindrical rod when rotated about an end is _______ when rotated about its center.
A. the same
B. two times larger
C. three times larger
D. four times larger

A

D. four times larger

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11
Q

These beams simply extend beyond its support.
A. fixed
B. overhanging
C. composite
D. cantilever

A

B. overhanging

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12
Q

In this method of sampling, the population is divided into distinct subgroups based on certain characteristics that are relevant to the research question. Then, random samples are independently drawn from each subgroup.
A. Systematic Sampling
B. Stratified Sampling
C. Composite Sampling
D. Cluster Sampling

A

B. Stratified Sampling

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13
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of a good measure of dispersion?
A. It should be easy to calculate.
B. It should be based on all the observations within a series.
C. It should not be affected by the fluctuations within the sampling.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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14
Q

Which of the following does not correctly describe a normal distribution?
A. The total area under the curve of a normal distribution is 100%.
B. According to empirical rule, around 95% of the data lies within 1 standard deviation away from the mean.
C. The most frequent data is equal to the mean.
D. None of the above.

A

B. According to empirical rule, around 95% of the data lies within 1 standard deviation away from the mean.

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14
Q

It states that for any given value k > 1, at least 1-1/k of the data lies within k standard deviations from the mean.
A. Chebyshev’s theorem
B. Bayesian theorem
C. Central limit theorem
D. Law of Large Numbers

A

A. Chebyshev’s theorem

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15
Q

What is the main purpose of a safety valve in a piping system?
A. To regulate the flow rate
B. To maintain pressure
C. To relieve excess pressure
D. To control the chemical composition of the fluid

A

C. To relieve excess pressure

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16
Q

__________ results when the pressure wave from a blast origin moves at a speed less than the speed of sound in the ambient gas, while __________ results when the pressure wave moves at a speed greater than the speed of sound in the ambient gas.
A. Blast wave; detonation
B. Shock wave; blast wave
C. Deflagration; detonation
D. Detonation; deflagration

A

C. Deflagration; detonation

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the 5P’s of CGMP?
A. Premises
B. Procedure
C. Product
D. Paper trail

A

D. Paper trail

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18
Q

FMEA is a systematic study of the causes of failures and their effects. All causes or modes of failure are considered for each element of a system, and then all possible outcomes or effects are recorded. What does FMEA mean?
A. Fault Mode and Effect Analysis
B. Failure Mode and Element Analysis
C. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
D. Fast Mode and Element Analysis

A

C. Failure Mode and Effects Analysis

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19
Q

In the concept of process safety, IPLs are safeguards in the process that either prevent or mitigate the scenario being evaluated. What does IPL mean?
A. Independent Protection Layer
B. Intensive Protection Layer
C. Independent Process Layer
D. Intensive Process Layer

A

A. Independent Protection Layer

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20
Q

HAZOP is a formal hazard identification and evaluation procedure designed to identify hazards to people, process plants, and the environment. What does HAZOP mean?
A. Hazard and Operability Study
B. Health Optimization Study
C. Hazard Optimization Process
D. Hazard Optimization Process

A

A. Hazard and Operability Study

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21
Q

HIRA has been defined to include all activities required to identify hazards, to identify potential loss event scenarios, and to evaluate the risks of a facility throughout its life cycle, to ensure that all risks to employees, the public, or the environment are properly managed. What does HIRA mean?
A. Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment
B. Hazard Identification and Risk Analysis
C. Hazard Internal Reaction Analysis
D. Hazard Inclusion Reaction Assessment

A

B. Hazard Identification and Risk Analysis

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22
Q

_______ is a systematic approach in which food safety is addressed through the analysis and control of biological, chemical, and physical hazards from raw material production, procurement and handling, to manufacturing, distribution and consumption of the finished product.
A. ISO 45000:2018
B. HACCP
C. OSHA Occupational Health Standards
D. None of the above

A

B. HACCP

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23
Q

The risk is considered tolerable for a given activity by those responsible for managing or regulating the operation of a hazardous facility.
A. Analyzed Risk
B. Activated Risk
C. Accepted Risk
D. Assessed Risk

A

C. Accepted Risk

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24
Q

A temporary group of people who are brought together to perform a specific task or solve a problem. They are normally established for a limited duration of time.
A. Ad Hoc
B. Standing
C. Sinking
D. Joint

A

A. Ad Hoc

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24
Q

Many natural and artificial substances are toxic to humans (can be ingested, or exposure can be through the skin, eyes, or other external passages to the body) and may cause immediate, serious, and sometimes irreversible effects on health. IDLH is inhalation conditions that pose an immediate threat to life or health, including the hindrance of the ability of a worker to escape, or causing serious irreversible, or threatening illness, disorientation, or incapacitation, as a consequence of a 30-minute exposure. What does IDLH mean?
A. Instantaneous detrimental to life and health
B. Immediately dangerous to life and health
C. Immediately detrimental to life and health
D. Instantaneous dangerous to life and health

A

B. Immediately dangerous to life and health

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25
Q

This refers to creating connections among individuals and objects to efficiently direct both human and material resources towards fulfilling the company’s objectives.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling

A

C. Directing

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26
Q

Under engineering management, once an engineer becomes a manager, which of the following may be most difficult to manage?
A. Men
B. Money
C. Materials
D. Method

A

A. Men

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27
Q

If you are an engineer aiming to become a manager, which of the following is the best action to do?
A. Building new skills
B. Embrace new principles
C. Widen your point of view
D. All of these.

A

D. All of these.

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28
Q

Which of the following skills must a project manager acquire in order to become successful?
A. Leadership
B. Human relationships
C. Communication
D. All of these.

A

D. All of these.

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29
Q

What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively?
A. Engineering Management
B. Operations Management
C. General Management
D. They are all the same.

A

B. Operations Management

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30
Q

If an engineer uses less resources to his project and still come out with the same output, he is said to be _______; on the other hand, when an engineer accomplishes his objectives, he is said to be _______.
A. efficient, effective
B. efficient, ineffective
C. efficient, effective
D. effective, efficient

A

C. efficient, effective

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31
Q

Grouping segments of an organization with related jobs, activities or processes to improve efficiency and expertise.
A. Departmentation
B. Division of labor
C. Coordination
D. Hierarchy

A

A. Departmentation

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32
Q

An action-based statement that declares the purpose of an organization and how they serve their stakeholders.
A. Corporate Vision
B. Corporate Mission
C. Corporate Values
D. Corporate Objectives

A

B. Corporate Mission

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33
Q

A method used to establish a standard against which other activities can be measured or evaluated with comparison.
A. Standard technique
B. Modular technique
C. Benchmark job technique
D. Parametric technique

A

C. Benchmark job technique

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34
Q

It is used to reduce the likelihood of an accident or lessen the impact of its consequences.
A. Project management
B. Risk Management
C. Project Management
D. Report Management

A

B. Risk Management

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35
Q

A type of leadership with hierarchical authority coming from its formal position or title.
A. Charismatic
B. Democratic
C. Laissez-faire
D. Bureaucratic

A

D. Bureaucratic

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36
Q

What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
A. Leadership
B. Charisma
C. Communication Skills
D. Knowledge

A

A. Leadership

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37
Q

What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
A. Evaluate project success
B. Develop scope controls
C. Monitor and control the project
D. Select appropriate performance measures

A

C. Monitor and control the project

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38
Q

Management is a/an
A. art
B. science
C. both science and art
D. neither science nor art

A

A. art

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39
Q

In project management, “R & D” stands for:
A. Retail Distribution
B. Research and Development
C. Repair and Develop
D. Reduce and Deduce

A

B. Research and Development

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40
Q

The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Process Layout
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

A. Work-Flow Layout

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41
Q

The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotions
D. Personal selling

A

B. Publicity

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42
Q

This refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways.
A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation

A

A. Operation

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43
Q

Which is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?
A. Overhead cost
B. Type of technology used
C. Location of the project
D. Level of uncertainty in projects

A

C. Location of the project

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44
Q

It is a piece of legislation used to carry out the principle of the Constitution.
A. Presidential Decree
B. Executive Order
C. Republic Act
D. Proclamation

A

C. Republic Act

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45
Q

This is known as the Chemical Engineering Law.
A. RA 9297
B. RA 9729
C. RA 9792
D. RA 9279

A

A. RA 9297

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46
Q

The “Board” mentioned in the IRR of the Chemical Engineering Law is composed of?
A. At least one chairman and one member
B. One chairman and one member
C. At least one chairman and two members
D. One chairman and two members

A

D. One chairman and two members

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47
Q

Which treaty deals with the protection of industrial property rights, such as patents, trademarks, industrial designs, and trade secrets?
A. Patent Cooperation Treaty
B. Berne Convention
C. Paris Convention
D. World Intellectual Property Organization

A

C. Paris Convention

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48
Q

This agreement governs the international registration of industrial designs. It effectively establishes an international system that allows industrial designs to be protected in multiple countries through a single international registration.
A. Hague Agreement
B. Madrid Protocol
C. Strasbourg Agreement
D. TRIPS Agreement

A

A. Hague Agreement

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49
Q

The regulation of all types of waste is handled under ___________ while regulation of hazardous waste is handled under ___________.
A. RA 9003; RA 6996
B. RA 9003; RA 6969
C. RA 11898; RA 9003
D. RA 11898; RA 6969

A

B. RA 9003; RA 6969

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50
Q

Department Administrative Order 2016-08 or the Water Quality Guidelines and General Effluent Standards of 2016 provides the rules and regulations used to maintain and preserve the quality of all water bodies based on their intended beneficial usage in the Philippines. According to DAO 2016-08, what NH3-N concentration must be maintained for most classes of water bodies in the country?
A. 0.04 mg/L
B. 5.00 mg/L
C. 0.05 mg/L
D. 4.00 mg/L

A

C. 0.05 mg/L

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51
Q

Which of the following is a duty of the PRB for chemical engineers?
I. Inspect facilities, faculty, and equipment related to ChE programs of educational institutions.
II. Submit an annual report on proceedings and accomplishments during the year.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I and II

A

C. Both I and II

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52
Q

The number of CPD points issued to a panelist of a 3-hour professional talk as part of a seminar ordered by CHED, an accredited CPD provider, is
A. 12
B. 9
C. 6
D. 3

A

C. 6

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53
Q

The number of CPD points issued to a resource speaker of a 3-hour professional talk as part of a seminar offered by PICHEM, an accredited CPD provider by the PRC, is
A. 12
B. 9
C. 6
D. 3

A

B. 9

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54
Q

Who has the authority to appoint the secretary of the Chemical Engineering?
A. President of the Philippines
B. PRC
C. ChE Board Chairman
D. PICHEM National President

A

B. PRC

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55
Q

A transition period is needed before the full implementation of the CPD law. During this transition period, professionals may still sign an undertaking form to renew their licenses if they don’t have to complete CPD units yet. How many CPD units must an engineer comply with when he/she signs an undertaking?
A. 3 points
B. 5 points
C. 15 points
D. 18 points

A

C. 15 points

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56
Q

When a chemical engineer will renew his/her license, how many CPD points does he/she need for a 3-year renewal?
A. 45
B. 15
C. 9
D. 3

A

A. 45

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57
Q

CPD points may be credited by which of the following ways?
A. Self-directed learning
B. Seminars offered by PRC Accredited CPD providers
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above.

A

C. Both A and B

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58
Q

Which of the following is not part of the qualifications for any person who is applying for admission to the chemical engineering examination?
A. Has a degree of BS ChE
B. Must be a citizen of the Philippines
C. Has good moral character
D. None of the above.

A

D. None of the above.

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59
Q

According to the Chemical Engineering Law, which of the following must an individual practicing the profession of chemical engineering or render chemical engineering service must have?
I. Valid Certificate of Registration
II. Valid Professional Identification Card
III. Valid BIR Tax Registration form
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and III

A

B. I and II only

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60
Q

Which of the following is not under the scope of practice of professional chemical engineering service?
A. Quality Management
B. Chemical Analysis and Certification
C. Teaching and Reviewing
D. Estimation and Planning

A

B. Chemical Analysis and Certification

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61
Q

Mr. Riley, a German chemical engineer, was invited by the Philippine government for a consultancy work for the Pasig River. After the project, Mr. Riley and his long-time friend and business partner, Mr. Santos, commissioned Mr. Riley to design the new wastewater treatment plant of BMW Company. This transaction between Mr. Santos and Mr. Riley is legal?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Not stated

A

B. No

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62
Q

Which of the following may happen when a chemical engineer performs any act of misrepresentation in connection with an alleged performance of chemical engineering services?
A. Suspension or revocation of COR
B. Fine of Php 10,000 to Php 1,000,000
C. Imprisonment of six months to five years
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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63
Q

The PRB for Chemical Engineers can issue subpoenas and subpoena duces tecum to secure the attendance of witnesses for the production of documents in connection with any hearing before the Board.
A. criminal case
B. administrative case
C. company case
D. business tax case

A

B. administrative case

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64
Q

The PRB for Chemical Engineers can issue the following except:
A. Certificate of Registration
B. Personal Identification Card
C. Certificate of Compliance
D. Community Tax Certificate

A

D. Community Tax Certificate

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65
Q

The Chairman and the Members of the Board shall have a term of ___ years.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 3
D. 5

A

C. 3

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66
Q

This is an agreement between parties, creating mutual obligations that are enforceable by law.
A. Property Right
B. Memorandum
C. Contract
D. Tax Certificate

A

C. Contract

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67
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
I. For there to be a valid contract, three elements must be present: consent, object, cause.
II. As long as an agreement satisfies the three elements, then there exists a valid contract regardless of whether or not it is in writing.
A. The first statement is true, but the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is false, but the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are false.
D. Both statements are true.

A

D. Both statements are true.

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68
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding modification of contracts?
A. A contract modification could change the scope of the contract, the price of the contract, or both.
B. A contract modification must always be in writing.
C. Replacing one of the parties in an agreement between two parties with a third party only needs the consent of the two parties.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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69
Q

Determine whether the statement below and its converse are true or false.
Statement: Each angle of a square is a right angle.
Converse: If each angle of a quadrilateral is a right angle, then it is a square.
A. The statement and its converse are both true.
B. The statement and its converse are both false.
C. The statement is true, but its converse is false.
D. The statement is false, but its converse is true.

A

C. The statement is true, but its converse is false.

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70
Q

A theorem that links the concept of integration and differentiation of a function.
A. Pappus’ Theorem
B. Fundamental Theorem of Calculus
C. Squeeze Theorem
D. Triple Product Theorem

A

B. Fundamental Theorem of Calculus

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71
Q

Determine whether the statement below is true or false.
Statement: The order of a differential equation corresponds to the number of arbitrary constants added to the general solution.
A. True
B. False
C. None of these.
D. Insufficient data.

A

A. True

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72
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
A. The degree of the differential equation is represented by the power of the highest order derivative.
B. To define the degree of a differential equation, the differential equation must be a polynomial in the derivatives.
C. The degree of the differential equation dy/dx = tan(x + y) is 1.
D. The degree of the differential equation tan (dy/dx) = x + y is 1.

A

D. The degree of the differential equation tan (dy/dx) = x + y is 1.

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73
Q

Which of the following is an undesirable dynamic characteristic of an instrument?
A. Reproducibility
B. Dead zone
C. Time lag
D. Static error

A

C. Time lag

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74
Q

Which of the following is the dynamic characteristics of an instrument?
A. Reproducibility
B. Sensitivity
C. Dead zone
D. Fidelity

A

D. Fidelity

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75
Q

Which term is used to describe the difference between a measured value and the true or expected value of a variable?
A. Relative error
B. Absolute error
C. Dynamic error
D. Static error

A

B. Absolute error

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76
Q

For two non-interacting first order systems connected in series, the overall transfer function is:
A. product
B. ratio
C. sum
D. difference

A

A. product

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77
Q

Reset rate is the other term used for ___________ time.
A. dead
B. integral
C. derivative
D. none of these

A

B. integral

78
Q

Pick out the wrong statement.
A. There is no transfer lag for a single first order system.
B. Stirred tank with a water jacket exemplifies an interacting system.
C. Transfer lag is a characteristic of all higher order systems (other than first order systems).
D. Transfer lag decreases as the number of stages decreases.

A

D. Transfer lag decreases as the number of stages decreases.

79
Q

Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates
A. elimination of offset
B. reduction of offset
C. reduction of stability time
D. none of these

A

A. elimination of offset

80
Q

When the damping co-efficient (ζ) is unity, the system is
A. Overdamped.
B. Critically damped.
C. Underdamped.
D. Highly fluctuating.

A

B. Critically damped.

81
Q

Cascade control means ________.
A. Feed forward control
B. More than one feedback loop
C. On-Off control
D. One feedback loop

A

B. More than one feedback loop

82
Q

If response of a control system is to be free of offset and oscillation, the most suitable controller is
A. proportional controller.
B. proportional-derivative (PD) controller.
C. proportional-integral (PI) controller.
D. proportional integral-derivative (PID) controller.

A

D. proportional integral-derivative (PID) controller.

83
Q

Response of a linear control system for a change in set point is called
A. frequency response
B. transient response
C. servo problem
D. regulator problem

A

C. servo problem

84
Q

Dry ice is used for __________.
A. storage & shipment of frozen food and ice cream
B. liquefaction of gases
C. liquefaction of natural gas
D. none of these

A

A. storage & shipment of frozen food and ice cream

85
Q

Hydrogenation is also what type of reaction?
A. catalytic oxidation
B. catalytic reduction
C. acid-base reaction
D. complex formation

A

B. catalytic reduction

86
Q

Of all the haloalkanes, these are the most widely known. They are non-toxic, non-flammable, odorless, and non-corrosive. Originally, they seemed to be ideal replacements for hazardous compounds such as ammonia and sulfur dioxide formerly used as heat-transfer agents in refrigeration systems.
A. DDT
B. DHA
C. CFC
D. EDTA

A

C. CFC

87
Q

This alcohol is made by acid-catalyzed hydration of propene. It is also used in hand lotions, aftershave lotions, and similar cosmetics.
A. ethanol
B. glycerol
C. ethylene glycol
D. isopropyl alcohol

A

D. isopropyl alcohol

88
Q

Glycerine is a by-product of the __________ industry.
A. Soap
B. Detergent
C. Paint
D. Oil hydrogenation

A

A. Soap

89
Q

Bakelite is chemically known as
A. polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
B. polybutadiene
C. phenol formaldehyde
D. polyurethane

A

C. phenol formaldehyde

90
Q

This compound is originally used as an explosive for blasting in the construction of canals, tunnels, roads, mines, and for warfare. Alfred Nobel mixed it with diatomaceous earth and sodium carbonate producing dynamite. In medicine, it is used to treat angina pectoris.
A. ethylene glycol
B. ethyl alcohol
C. nitroglycerin
D. stearyl alcohol

A

C. nitroglycerin

91
Q

Which of the following is(are) TRUE?
I. Natural soaps are sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids.
II. Soaps remove grease, oil, and fat stains by incorporating these substances into the nonpolar interior of soap micelles.
III. The structure of synthetic detergents is patterned after that of natural soaps.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III are all true

A

D. I, II, and III are all true

92
Q

Which of the following is a Grignard reagent?
A. Pyridinium chlorochromate
B. Ethyl magnesium chloride
C. Lithium diethyl copper
D. Sodium thiosulfate

A

B. Ethyl magnesium chloride

93
Q

Dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene produces
A. styrene
B. naphthalene
C. phenol
D. benzoic acid

A

A. styrene

94
Q

Hydrolysis of sugar is called
A. hydration
B. inversion
C. esterification
D. none of these

A

B. inversion

95
Q

Yeast is used in the manufacture of
A. penicillin
B. antibiotics
C. wine
D. pasteurized milk

A

C. wine

96
Q

Magnesium and calcium __________ cause temporary hardness of water.
A. carbonates
B. bicarbonates
C. phosphates
D. sulfates

A

B. bicarbonates

97
Q

The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high __________ content.
A. cellulose
B. lignin
C. both (A) & (B)
D. none of these

A

A. cellulose

98
Q

It is the main constituent of limestone.
A. CaCO3
B. MgCO3
C. Na2CO3
D. CaSO4

A

A. CaCO3

99
Q

Kaolin is a/an
A. refractory material
B. synthetic resin
C. artificial abrasive
D. blue pigment

A

A. refractory material

100
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about projectile motion?
A. The maximum height is reached at initial velocity of zero.
B. The range and the initial velocity angle with respect to horizontal are directly proportional.
C. The initial vertical velocity is equal to the velocity just as before the object hits the ground.
D. None of the statements above is true.

A

D. None of the statements above is true.

101
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
A. The weight is doubled if the mass is halved.
B. The gravitational constant is 9.8 m/s2.
C. The value of the weight is greater on a mountain/top than on sea level.
D. All of the statements above are false.

A

D. All of the statements above are false.

102
Q

Which of the following refers to the force that holds a rigid body together?
A. concentrated
B. external
C. internal
D. distributed

A

C. internal

103
Q

Which industry uses carbon black the most?
A. Rubber
B. Lubricant
C. paint
D. steel

A

A. Rubber

104
Q

Process of converting large molecules into smaller ones by the application of heat and/or catalysts:
A. cracking
B. hydrolysing
C. polymerization
D. catalytic dehydrogenation

A

A. cracking

105
Q

This polymer is composed of linear aliphatic chains that align in the same direction and has a molecular mass ranging from 3.5 to 7.5 million amu. It derives its strength largely from the length of each chain. This material is used in ropes, flimsier, and bulletproof vests, and can withstand high temperatures:
A. low-density polyethylene (LDPE)
B. polyethylene terephthalate (PET)
C. polystyrene teraphthalate (PBT)
D. high molecular polyethylene (HMPE)

A

D. high molecular polyethylene (HMPE)

106
Q

In 1953, Karl Ziegler and Giulio Natta developed a new method of polymerizing alkene monomers using metal catalysts to promote chain-growth polymerization. These catalysts contained an organometallic compound (CH3CH2)2AICl and which Lewis acid?
A. AlCl3
B. FeBr3
C. FeCl3
D. TiCl4

A

D. TiCl4

107
Q

The process of combining rubber and sulfur under the influence of heat and pressure to change the rubber to an elastic, strong, thermoplastic, and vulcanized material:
A. Inflation
B. Propagation
C. Polymerization
D. Vulcanization

A

D. Vulcanization

108
Q

It is the purest clay type known to man, also known as the porcelain clay of china clay. It is used in the production of porcelain, with non-ceramic applications in papermaking and in the production of plastics:
A. kaolinite
B. ball clay
C. stoneware clay
D. earthenware clay

A

A. kaolinite

109
Q

Cement mainly contains:
A. NaO, MgO, CaO
B. MgO, SiO2, K2O
C. CaO, SiO2, Al2O3
D. Al2O3, Fe2O3, MgO

A

C. CaO, SiO2, Al2O3

110
Q

Portland cement is a closely controlled chemical combination of lime, silica, alumina, iron oxide, and small amounts of other compounds, to which gypsum is added in the final grinding process to regulate the setting time of the concrete. Which type of Portland cement is a sulfate-resisting cement used only in concrete exposed to severe sulfate action - principally where soils or groundwaters have a high sulfate content?
A. Type I
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type V

A

D. Type V

111
Q

This class of commercial glass is by far the largest tonnage of glass made today and serves for the manufacture of containers of all kinds (flat glass, tumblers and tableware).
A. lead glass
B. silicate glass
C. vitreous silica
D. all of the above

A

B. silicate glass

112
Q

Glass manufacturing process may be divided into four major phases. What is the correct order of these phases?
A. annealing, finishing, melting, shaping
B. finishing, melting, shaping, annealing
C. melting, shaping, annealing, finishing
D. shaping, melting, annealing, finishing

A

C. melting, shaping, annealing, finishing

113
Q

Essential oils are usually obtained by:
A. expression
B. enfleurage
C. steam distillation
D. extraction with volatile solvents

A

C. steam distillation

114
Q

One of the most widely used flavor, it is used in perfumery and for deodorizing in the smallest amounts.
A. Vanilla
B. Cinnamon
C. benzaldehyde
D. dimethylsulfide

A

A. Vanilla

115
Q

The first all-synthetic fiber created by W. Carothers of the Du Pont Company. It is stronger than any natural fiber, has good flexing qualities, and has high tensile It can be dyed by all acids, acetate, pigment, and chrome dyes.
A. Kevlar
B. Nylon
C. Dyneema
D. Spandex

A

B. Nylon

116
Q

All of the following are properties of soaps EXCEPT:
A. From natural sources (fats, oils)
B. Sodium salts of long chain fatty acids
C. Calcium and magnesium salts are insoluble in water
D. Have weak cleansing action in hard water (produces scum)

A

C. Calcium and magnesium salts are insoluble in water

117
Q

Alkyl benzene sulfonate (ABS) is a:
A. soap
B. resin
C. detergent
D. plasticizer

A

C. detergent

118
Q

The dry pulpy residue left after the extraction of juice from sugar cane. It is often used as fuel for electrically generators.
A. bagasse
B. molasses
C. massecuite
D. Invert sugar

A

A. bagasse

119
Q

This is the current method of producing sulfuric acid in high concentrations. Platinum used to be the catalyst for the reaction but V2O5 is now preferred. This process also produces SO2 and obtain.
A. Dorr process
B. Frasch process
C. Contact process
D. Lead chamber process

A

C. Contact process

120
Q

It is an artificial nitrogen fixation process and is the main industrial procedure for the production of ammonia today. The process converts atmospheric nitrogen to hydrogen using a metal catalyst under high T and P.
A. Frank-Caro process
B. Haber-Bosch process
C. Birkelaind-Eyde process
D. Claude-Casale process

A

B. Haber-Bosch process

121
Q

It is the most widely used white pigment because of its brightness and very high refractive index. It is also an effective opacifier in powder form, where it is employed as a pigment to provide whiteness and opacity to products such as paints, coatings, plastics, foods, and medicines as well as most toothpaste.
A. Zinc oxide
B. Lead oxide
C. Titanium dioxide
D. Magnesium oxide

A

C. Titanium dioxide

122
Q

It is the art and science of planning, organizing, directing, and controlling activities which have a technological component.
A. Operations Management
B. Human Resource Management
C. Management
D. Engineering

A

A. Operations Management

123
Q

Which activity does NOT belong in productive management operations?
A. Product Design
B. Production planning
C. Purchasing and Materials Management
D. Managing Production and Sales

A

D. Managing Production and Sales

124
Q

What is the ratio of production output to the input required to produce a product?
A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Productivity
D. Operations

A

C. Productivity

125
Q

What refers to the management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with great commitment and conviction?
A. Staffing
B. Budgeting
C. Motivating
D. Leading

A

D. Leading

126
Q

When an engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
A. Learning to trust others
B. Learning how to work through others
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

127
Q

What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?
A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Ability to manage
D. Decision-making ability

A

B. Effectiveness

128
Q

What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in terms of products, services, and market?
A. Corporate mission
B. Corporate vision
C. Corporate character
D. Corporate identity

A

A. Corporate mission

129
Q

What network model enables engineer manager to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique

A

B. Critical path method

130
Q

Which of the following is not part of the 4M Method?
A. Method
B. Material
C. Machine
D. Management

A

D. Management

131
Q

What is the third step in hazard identification and risk assessment procedure?
A. System Description
B. Hazard Identification
C. Risk Assessment
D. Scenario Identification

A

D. Scenario Identification

132
Q

What does QRA stands for?
A. Qualitative Risk Assessment
B. Quantitative Risk Assessment
C. Qualitative Risk Action
D. Quantitative Risk Action

A

B. Quantitative Risk Assessment

133
Q

. Which can be prevented by having a HACCP plan?
A. Food-Borne Disease
B. Good Quality of Food
C. Long Shelf Life of Foods
D. Proper Documentation of Process

A

A. Food-Borne Disease

134
Q

It is a non-reclosing pressure relief valve actuated by static differential pressure and designed to function by bursting a pressure-containing disk.
A. Pressure Relief Valve
B. Rupture Valve
C. Rupture Disk
D. Gate Valve

A

C. Rupture Disk

135
Q

ABC Electronics hired you to be their safety officer as you are DOLE Certified. Room A is a cafeteria, where food is cooked and eaten. Room B is the manufacturing heart of the company, the place is full of electronic component and electricity testing instrument. Room C is the admin’s office, where most of the documents, requests and purchase order are kept. Which type of fire extinguisher should be properly placed in respective rooms?
A. Room A: Type C, Room B: Type E, Room C: Type A
B. Room A: Type K, Room B: Type C, Room C: Type A
C. Room A: Type K, Room B: Type C, Room C: Type B
D. Room A: Type C, Room B: Type B, Room C: Type K

A

B. Room A: Type K, Room B: Type C, Room C: Type A

136
Q

Which is a proper practice that a chemical engineer should follow?
A. Properly labelling the containers/beakers.
B. Keeping the accident/incident among yourself so that you will not be fired.
C. Disposing of chemicals without checking of MSDS.
D. Documentation of process only if the manager/supervisor is present.

A

A. Properly labelling the containers/beakers.

137
Q

Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The correct color of piping legend for air is white.
B. Arrows in pipes should be always point to where the flow is.
C. Safety valves are one of the safety features of vessels and columns.
D. Fire extinguishers should be regularly checked, and the pressure maintained.

A

A. The correct color of piping legend for air is white.

138
Q

Boilers are all standardized by these codes except for one based on DOLE.
A. ASME Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code
B. Philippine Institute of Chemical Engineering (PICHE) Code
C. API Code for Petroleum Gases and Liquids
D. The Philippine Society of Mechanical Engineers (PSME) Code

A

B. Philippine Institute of Chemical Engineering (PICHE) Code

139
Q

LOPA stands for:
A. Layer of Protection Assessment
B. Layer of Protection Analysis
C. Layer of Protective Assessment
D. Layer of Protective Analysis

A

B. Layer of Protection Analysis

140
Q

ALARP stands for:
A. As low as reeptively possible
B. As low as reasonably possible
C. As low as reeptively practicable
D. As low as reasonably practicable

A

D. As low as reasonably practicable

141
Q

PSM stands for:
A. Process Standard Minimum
B. Process Sample Minimum
C. Process Sustainability Management
D. Process Safety Management

A

D. Process Safety Management

142
Q

What is the color of the pipe that carries air?
A. light blue
B. white
C. green
D. silver gray

A

A. light blue

143
Q

These are variables that allow a controlled parameter to deviate from its set point.
A. Controller
B. Disturbance
C. Manipulated
D. Random

A

B. Disturbance

144
Q

Which of the following is not a common process control?
A. Closed loop
B. Random
C. SCADA
D. Open loop

A

B. Random

145
Q

Which of the following best describes a second-order transfer function?
A. Damping coefficient, overshoot
B. Damping coefficient, oscillations
C. Damping coefficient, time constant
D. Damping coefficient, step input

A

C. Damping coefficient, time constant

146
Q

It accounts for the difference between successive measured values under a single process condition.
A. Reproducibility
B. Repeatability
C. Accuracy
D. Precision

A

D. Precision

147
Q

It involves the application of statistical methods and techniques to determine if the process is normally operating or not.
A. Statistical Process Control
B. Process Capability
C. Cumulative Sum
D. Linear Programming

A

A. Statistical Process Control

148
Q

Dead Zone in an instrument must be less than _____ of the scale.
A. 0.2%
B. 1.5%
C. 4%
D. 8%

A

A. 0.2%

149
Q

Which of the following is not a speed measuring instrument?
A. Pedometer
B. Stroboscope
C. Psychrometer
D. Tachometer

A

C. Psychrometer

150
Q
  1. A solution of a differential equation in which the number of arbitrary constants is equal to the order of the differential equation.
    A. Particular solution
    B. General solution
    C. Boundary value solution
    D. Initial value solution
  2. Which of the following is a logical way of processing data under statistics?
    A. Collect data → Describe data → Analyze data → Draw conclusions from data
    B. Analyze data → Describe data → Collect data → Draw conclusions from data
    C. Describe data → Draw conclusions from data → Collect data → Analyze data
    D. Draw conclusions from data → Describe data → Analyze data → Collect data
A

D. Initial value solution

A. Collect data → Describe data → Analyze data → Draw conclusions from data

151
Q

This type of sampling divides a population into subgroups sharing common characteristics, then randomly selects samples from each subgroup.
A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling
C. Mixed Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

This is a statistical method used to compare the means of three or more groups to determine if there are significant differences among them, based on sample data.
A. Chebyshev’s Test
B. Regression Analysis
C. Triangle Test
D. Analysis of Variance

A

D. Stratified Sampling

D. Analysis of Variance

152
Q

In a certain experiment conducted with a level of significance of 0.05, the p-value obtained was 0.03. What will be the conclusion of the experiment?
A. Reject the null hypothesis
B. Accept the null hypothesis
C. Both conclusions are valid
D. More tests should be conducted

A

A. Reject the null hypothesis

153
Q

When choosing between different sample sets, each having their respective sample mean and standard deviation, in estimating the population mean, it is best to use the:
A. Highest sample mean
B. Lowest sample mean
C. Highest sample standard deviation
D. Lowest sample standard deviation

A

B. Lowest sample mean

154
Q

When an object undergoes acceleration,
A. a force always acts on it
B. it always moves down
C. it always moves to the left or right
D. it always falls towards the Earth

Which velocity refers to the derivative of the position vector with respect to time?
A. average
B. increasing
C. decreasing
D. instantaneous

A

A. a force always acts on it

D. instantaneous

155
Q

What is the branch of mechanics that deals with the study of rigid body in motion under the action of forces?
A. Statics
B. Kinematics
C. Strength of Materials
D. Dynamics

Which Newton’s law best explains why rockets can take off?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. None

A

D. Dynamics

C. Third

156
Q

A fixed support has:
A. 1 reaction, 1 moment
B. 2 reactions, 1 moment
C. 1 reaction, 2 moments
D. 2 reactions, 2 moments

The resulting force of a distributed load is always acting at:
A. the center of the beam
B. the centroid of the area of the loading curve
C. the 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
D. the 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve

A

B. 2 reactions, 1 moment

B. the centroid of the area of the loading curve

157
Q

The sum of the individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces is equal to:
A. Pappus Theorem
B. Newton’s theorem
C. Varignon’s Theorem
D. D’Alembert’s principle

The second moment of area is the product of:
A. area and square of the distance from the reference axis
B. area and distance from the reference axis
C. square of the area and the distance from the reference axis
D. square of the area and the square of the distance from the reference axis

A

C. Varignon’s Theorem

A. area and square of the distance from the reference axis

158
Q

A Permit to work:
A. addresses personal safety hazards
B. addresses process safety hazards
C. addresses personnel and process safety hazards
D. none of the above

The design stress, which is more than the damaging stress, is the least unit stress that will render a member unfit for service before the end of its normal life. The design stress factor or safety indicates the margin between design stress and the ultimate stress.
A. Working
B. Allowable
C. Admissible
D. None of thes

A

C. addresses personnel and process safety hazards

B. Allowable

159
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the 5P’s of cGMP?
A. Premises
B. Personnel
C. Product
D. Paper trail

It is a systematic approach in which food safety is addressed through the analysis and control of biological, chemical, and physical hazards from raw material production, procurement and handling, to manufacturing, distribution and consumption of the finished product.
A. ISO 45000:2018
B. HACCP
C. DOLE Occupational Health Standards
D. cGMP

A

D. Paper trail
B. HACCP

160
Q

What is the purpose of a Job Safety Analysis (JSA)?
A. To evaluate the safety of a workplace
B. To identify hazardous tasks and the steps to perform them safely
C. To determine the root cause of accidents
D. To develop safety training programs

Which of the following building damage level is being described as follows? Reflected wall components are collapsed or very severely damaged. Other walls and roof have permanent damage requiring replacement.
A. Light
B. Moderate
C. Major
D. Collapse

A

B. To identify hazardous tasks and the steps to perform them safely

B. Moderate

161
Q

This term refers to having the ability to ignite a combustion reaction in a flammable material.
A. combustible
B. insulative
C. flammable
D. incendive

A

D. incendive

162
Q

The acronym REL in industrial process safety means _________.
A. Radioactive exposure limit
B. Recommended exposure limit
C. Radioactive energy loss
D. Recommended energy loss

A

B. Recommended exposure limit

163
Q

What is the piping color designation for oils?
A. yellow
B. white
C. gray
D. brown

Which of the following is not a factor in calculating the fatal accident rate (FAR)?
A. frequency of event
B. fraction of time spent at a specific location
C. probability of getting killed by the event a specific location
D. frequency of replacing faulty equipment at a specific location

A

D. brown
D. frequency of replacing faulty equipment at a specific location

164
Q

What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling resources?
A. Directing
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Leading

Which refers to the collection of the tools and techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
A. Project Management
B. Engineering Management
C. Management
D. Planning

A

A. Directing
A. Project Management

165
Q

What organization structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

  1. What network model enables engineer management to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using one time factor per activity?
    A. Forecasting
    B. Critical path method
    C. Program evaluation review technique
    D. Simulation
A

B. Matrix organization
B. Critical path method

166
Q

What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
A. Planning and design
B. Feasibility
C. Production
D. Turnover and start-up

Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.
A. Decision-making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem-solving

A

B. Feasibility

A. Decision-making

167
Q

A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial statement

A permanent committee that deals on issues on an ongoing basis.
A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

A

B. Budget
B. Standing committee

168
Q

Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal.
A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Volition

  1. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.
    A. Advertisement
    B. Commercial
    C. Marketing
    D. Sales
A

B. Motivation
C. Marketing

169
Q

_______ is produced using molasses as the starting raw material.
A. Methyl alcohol
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Benzol
D. Dimethyl ether

  1. Percentage of alcohol in beer may be around _______ percent.
    A. 2-8
    B. 18-23
    C. 27-32
    D. 1-4
A

B. Ethyl alcohol

A. 2-8

170
Q

Which of the following is an ore of iron?
A. Galena
B. Chalcopyrite
C. Hematite
D. Bauxite

  1. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have high _______ content.
    A. Cellulose
    B. Lignin
    C. Both A & B
    D. None of these
A

C. Hematite

A. Cellulose

171
Q

The most popular and common detergent i.e., alkyl benzene sulfonate (ABS) is a/an _______ detergent.
A. Cationic
B. Anionic
C. Amphoteric
D. Semi polar

  1. Catalytic oxidation of toluene produces _______.
    A. Styrene
    B. Phenol
    C. Phenol
    D. Tri-nitro-toluene
A

B. Anionic
B. Phenol

172
Q

Liquor poisoning generally occurs due to the presence of _______ in it.
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. Impurities
C. Methyl alcohol
D. Carbonic acid

  1. Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary, as it _______.
    A. minimizes its turbidity
    B. helps in controlling its taste and odor
    C. minimizes its corrosiveness
    D. none of these
A

C. Methyl alcohol
C. minimizes its corrosiveness

173
Q
  1. Solvent used for extraction of oil is _______.
    A. Hexane
    B. Methyl ethyl ketone
    C. Furfural
    D. None of these
  2. Titanium dioxide is a/an _______ color pigment.
    A. white
    B. black
    C. yellow
    D. blue
A

A. Hexane
A. white

174
Q
  1. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4, and not in water, because
    A. SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water
    B. Water forms an acid mist, which is difficult to absorb
    C. The purity of acid is affected
    D. Scale formation in the absorber is to be avoided
  2. Main constituent of dolomite is
    A. CaCO3
    B. MgCO3
    C. K2CO3
    D. Na2CO3
A

B. Water forms an acid mist, which is difficult to absorb
B. MgCO3

175
Q
  1. Digestion of wood-base materials (for manufacture of pulp) is done to
    A. Remove lignin
    B. Produce long fibres
    C. Prevent deterioration on storage
    D. None of these
  2. The noble gas which occurs most abundantly in the atmosphere is
    A. Helium
    B. Neon
    C. Krypton
    D. Argon
A

A. Remove lignin
D. Argon

176
Q
  1. _____ refers to methods used for the collection, presentation and analysis of data while the basis of given answer.
    A. Refers to methods by which conclusion are drawn relating to the population on
    B. Differential statistics, inferential statistics
    C. Descriptive statistics, inferential statistics
    D. Integrative statistics, differential statistics
  2. _____ is the proportion of the variance in the dependent variable that is predicted from the independent variable.
    A. Coefficient of variation
    B. Coefficient of determination
    C. Correlation coefficient
    D. Contradiction coefficient
A

C. Descriptive statistics, inferential statistics
B. Coefficient of determination

177
Q
  1. Which of the following devices is best suited for measuring the temperature inside a metallurgical furnace?
    A. Thermistor
    B. Thermocouple
    C. Thermometer
    D. Pyrometer
  2. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
    I. A feedforward control system does not require an explicit process model.
    II. A feedback control system is not able to cope with any unaccounted disturbances.
    III. A self/recovery control system is required for systems with large dead times.
    IV. A feedback control system will only have a control action when the effect of the disturbance is felt.
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. III and IV
    D. I, III, and IV
A

D. Pyrometer
D. I, III, and IV

178
Q
  1. Response of a linear control system for a change in set point is called
    A. Frequency response
    C. Servo problem
    B. Transient response
    D. Regulator problem
  2. The open loop transfer function of a control system is KR/(1+TS) represents
    A. A first order time lag system
    C. A second order time lag system
    B. Dead time system
    D. A second order system
A

C. Servo problem
A. A first order time lag system

179
Q

Which of the following controllers has the least maximum deviation?
A. P-controller
C. P-D controller
B. P-I controller
D. P-D controller

  1. (A/P, i%, n) is also known as the _____ factor.
    A. Sinking Fund
    C. Capital Recovery
    B. Present Worth
    D. Compound Amount
A

D. P-D controller
C. Capital Recovery

180
Q
  1. Defined as the creative problem-solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and
    controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.
    A. Management
    C. Organizing
    B. Planning
    D. Supervising
  2. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and
    coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”
    A. Engineering Management
    C. Engineering Organization
    B. Engineering Materials
    D. Engineering Club
A

A. Management
A. Engineering Management

181
Q

The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:
A. Willingness to do a job
C. Needs satisfaction
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
D. Inferiority complex

A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in order
that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.
A. Feed forward control
C. Concurrent control
B. Preventive control
D. Feedback control

A

D. Inferiority complex
D. Feedback control

182
Q

Engineers can become good managers only through _______.
A. Experience
C. Effective career planning
B. Taking master’s degree in management
D. Trainings

  1. What does the acronym HEC stand for?
    A. Human equivalent concentration
    C. Harmful equivalent concentration
    B. Human equivalent capacity
    D. Harmful equivalent capacity
A

C. Effective career planning
A. Human equivalent concentration

183
Q
  1. Which of the following hierarchy level is incorrectly matched?
    A. 0 - Maybe decline for safety
    B. 1 - Reacting to incidents as they occur
    C. 2 - Complying with rules and regulations
    D. 3 - Performance monitoring using metrics to drive continuous improvement
A

D. 3 - Performance monitoring using metrics to drive continuous improvement

184
Q

What should you do before using a chemical for the first time?
A. Store it in a secure location
B. Read and understand the label and MSDS
C. Mix it with other chemicals to enhance its properties
D. Dispose of any excess chemicals

  1. Which of the following is not a type of food hazard under HACCP?
    A. microbiological
    B. chemical
    C. physical
    D. radiation
A

B. Read and understand the label and MSDS
D. radiation

185
Q
  1. This term pertains to any visual and/or auditory signals that hint an error.
    A. alarm
    B. interlock
    C. hazard
    D. risk
A

A. alarm

186
Q
  1. Which of the following is an incorrect correspondence?
    A. Rocker: vertical force
    B. Link: force along the line of action
    C. Pin: vertical force
    D. Fixed: horizontal and vertical forces and moment
A

C. Pin: vertical force

187
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are true about zero-force members in a truss?
    I. If two non-collinear members meet in an unloaded joint, both are zero-force members.
    II. If three members meet in an unloaded joint of which two are collinear, then the third
    member is a zero-force member.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II
    D. none
A

C. I and II

188
Q
  1. Paper pulp produced by kraft/sulphate process is
    A. bleached easily
    B. dull white in color
    C. strong fibrous
    D. dark colored
A

C. strong fibrous

189
Q

Very fine suspended and colloidal impurities are removed from water by a process called
A. sedimentation
B. coagulation
C. disinfection
D. softening

A

B. coagulation

190
Q

Epoxy resin
A. is a good adhesive.
B. is an elastomer.
C. cannot be used for surface coatings.
D. is a polyester.

A

A. is a good adhesive.

191
Q

In primitive days, _______ was being manufactured by Leblanc Process.
A. alum
B. washing soda
C. soda ash
D. calcium carbide

A

C. soda ash

192
Q

Bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to its _______ properties.
A. reducing
B. oxidizing
C. disinfecting
D. none of these

A

B. oxidizing

193
Q
A

Gnireenigne lacimehc (7 decks)

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