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Gnireenigne lacimehc > DAY 1 YARN > Flashcards

DAY 1 YARN Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of colloid is whipped cream?
A. sol
B. aerosol
C. foam
D. emulsion

A

C. foam

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2
Q

What is the orbital angular momentum quantum number of the electron that is most easily removed when ground-state chlorine is ionized?

A 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0

A

C. 1

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3
Q

What is the Balmer series limit?
A. 122 nm
B. 365 nm
C. 477 nm
D. 656 nm

A

B. 365 nm

The Balmer series limit corresponds to the shortest possible wavelength, which occurs when an electron transitions from infinity (n = ∞) to n = 2.

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4
Q

Which is the largest?
A. Sulfide
B. Chloride
C. Argon
D. Potassium ion

A

A. Sulfide

Sulfide (S²⁻): When sulfur gains two electrons to become a sulfide ion, its size increases significantly because of electron-electron repulsion in the outer shell.

Chloride (Cl⁻): When chlorine gains one electron to form a chloride ion, its size also increases, but not as much as the sulfide ion because it only gains one electron.

Argon (Ar): Argon is a neutral noble gas with a relatively small atomic radius because it has a full outer shell and no electron-electron repulsion.

Potassium ion (K⁺): When potassium loses one electron to become a 𝐾+ ion, its size shrinks significantly, as it loses its entire outer shell.

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5
Q

Which of the following is isoelectronic with azide ion?
A. NO2-
B. CO2
C. SO2
D. O3

A

B. CO2

Azide= N3^-

Each nitrogen atom contributes 7 electrons, so
3×7=21 electrons.

The negative charge (−1) adds 1 electron, so the total becomes 22 electrons.

CO2 = 6 +2(8) = 22 electrons

Atomic number = no of electrons (except for ions) = no of protons

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6
Q

What is the molecular geometry of bromine trifluoride?
A. trigonal planar
B. trigonal pyramidal
C. t-shaped
D. trigonal bipyramidal

A

C. t-shaped

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7
Q

What is the electron pair geometry of sulfur tetrafluoride?
A. tetrahedral
B.see-saw
C. square planar
D. trigonal bipyramidal

A

D. trigonal bipyramidal

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8
Q

What is the bond order of the C-O bond in the carbonate ion?
A. 1
B 1.33
C 1.5
D. 2

A

B 1.33

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9
Q

It is the sum of the average mass of atoms in an ionic compound.
A. atomic mass
B. molar mass
C. formula mass
D. molecular mass

A

C. formula mass

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10
Q

Which can be reacted to magnesium to form magnesium nitride.
A. ammonia
B. sodium nitrate
C. hydrazine
D. none of these

A

A. ammonia

Ammonia (NH₃) can react with magnesium to form magnesium nitride (Mg₃N₂). The reaction can be represented as:

3Mg +N2→Mg3N2

However, ammonia can provide nitrogen in the presence of magnesium under certain conditions.

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11
Q

It has been observed that there are more dead fish in a lake in summer compared to the colder season. Which of the following best explains the situation?

A. More food is dissolved in the lake during warmer season
B. More food is dissolved in the lake during colder season
C. Less oxygen is dissolved in the lake during warmer season
D. Less oxygen is dissolved in the lake during colder season

A

C. Less oxygen is dissolved in the lake during warmer season

The solubility of gases in liquids generally decreases with increasing temperature. As the temperature of water rises, the kinetic energy of water molecules increases, causing gas molecules (like oxygen) to escape more easily from the water.

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12
Q

In the equilibrium reaction above, the [Co(H2O)]2* exhibits pink color, while [CoCl1]2 exhibits blue color. Which of the following is true?

A. Upon heating, the purple solution turned blue, therefore the reaction is exothermic.
B. Upon heating, the purple solution turns blue, therefore the reaction is endothermic.
C. Upon cooling, the purple solution turns pink, therefore the reaction is exothermic.
D. Upon cooling, the purple solution turned blue, therefore the reaction is endothermic

A

B. Upon heating, the purple solution turns blue, therefore the reaction is endothermic.

When you heat the solution and it turns blue, this means that the reaction is shifting to produce more of the blue species ([CoCl₄]²⁻). According to Le Chatelier’s principle, if heating causes the reaction to shift to the right (producing more blue), it indicates that the forward reaction absorbs heat — meaning the reaction is endothermic.

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13
Q

Carbon-14 most likely decays into
A. C-12
B. N-14
C. C-13
D. N-15

A

B. N-14

Carbon-14 undergoes beta decay, where one of its neutrons is converted into a proton, emitting an electron (beta particle) in the process. As a result, the element changes from carbon to nitrogen.

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14
Q
  1. Uranium-235 is one of the most common fuels used in nuclear power plants. On the other hand, Uranium-238 cannot be used as a fuel in a nuclear power plant. Which of the following best explains why Uranium-238 cannot be used as a fuel?

A. Uranium-238 does not undergo radioactive decay.
B. Uranium-238 does not undergo fission easily enough to be used as a fuel.
C. There is not enough Uranium-238 in naturally occurring uranium to use it as a fuel.
D. Uranium-238 is not a naturally occurring isotope of uranium.

A

B. Uranium-238 does not undergo fission easily enough to be used as a fuel.

Uranium-235 readily undergoes fission when bombarded with thermal neutrons, releasing large amounts of energy. However, Uranium-238 does not undergo fission under the same conditions because it is much more stable and requires fast neutrons to fission, which are harder to control in nuclear reactors.

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15
Q

What is the oxidation state of chromium in dichromic acid?
A. +2
B. +3
C. +6
D. +12

A

C. +6

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16
Q

In the reaction: 6 Na2S2O3 + 3I2→3 Na2S406 +6 Nal, which of the following is the reducing agent?
A. I
B. S
C. I2
D. Na2S2O3

A

D. Na2S2O3

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17
Q

Which of the following material/s is/are used in rechargeable batteries?
A. zinc-carbon
B. silver oxide
C nickel-cadmium
D. none of the above

A

C nickel-cadmium

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18
Q

Which of the following effuses almost four times slower than hydrogen?
A. helium
B. chlorine
C. ethane
D. water vapor

A

C. ethane

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19
Q

A mole of which gas has the smallest volume at 0°C and 1 atm?
A. He
B. CO2
C. SO2
D. Xe

A

C. SO2

At 0°C and 1 atm, one mole of any ideal gas occupies about 22.4 liters. However, real gases can behave differently.

He (Helium): Ideal behavior, weak forces.
CO₂ (Carbon Dioxide): Heavier, but still close to ideal.
SO₂ (Sulfur Dioxide): Stronger forces, behaves less ideally.
Xe (Xenon): Heavy noble gas, behaves similarly to He.

SO₂ has the strongest intermolecular forces, so it will occupy a smaller volume than the others.

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20
Q

Given that dU = TdS - PdV and that H = U + PV, which of the following is TRUE?
A. dH = TdS + VdP
B. dH = S&T - VdP
C. dH = dU + PdV
D. dH = dU TdS

A

A. dH = TdS + VdP

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21
Q

At constant T and P, a system will be in equilibrium when which of the following quantities is at minimum?
A. W
B. H
C. A
D. G

A

D. G

At constant temperature and pressure, the Gibbs free energy (G) is a measure of the maximum reversible work that can be performed by a thermodynamic system.

Spontaneity: A reaction happens naturally if it lowers Gibbs free energy (G). If G is at a minimum, small changes will make it go up, meaning the system is stable.

Equilibrium Condition: At equilibrium, reactions go forward and backward at the same rate. This balance happens when G is at its lowest.

Thermodynamic Stability: When G is minimized, the system is stable and won’t change on its own unless something disrupts it.

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22
Q

The Helmholtz free energy is positive when changes in internal energy and entropy are both positive at
A. high temperatures
B. low temperatures
C. all temperatures
D. only at absolute zero temperature

A

B. low temperatures

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23
Q

Liquid water is injected into an oven at 400 K. What are the signs of AG, AH, and AS of the process?
A. +, + +
B. - - -
C. - + +
D. +, -, +

A

C. - + +

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24
Q

Which of the following is TRUE at extremely high temperatures?
A. The chemical potential of solid, liquid, and gas are all equal.
B. The chemical potential of the gas is the lowest.
C. Solid is the most stable phase
D. None of the above.

A

B. The chemical potential of the gas is the lowest.

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25
Q

What will happen if liquid water is immediately transferred in a vacuum container?
A. It will freeze.
B. Nothing will happen.
C. It will decompose
D. It will vaporize.

A

D. It will vaporize.

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26
Q

It means “easily melted”.
A. azeotrope
B. eutectic
C. peritectic
D. plait

A

B. eutectic

A eutectic mixture is a combination of substances that has a lower melting point than any of the individual components, allowing it to melt easily.

Azeotrope:
A mixture of two or more liquids that has a constant boiling point and composition throughout the distillation process.

Peritectic:
A reaction in which a solid and a liquid phase combine upon cooling to form a different solid phase.

A plait point refers to a specific point on a phase diagram that indicates the composition at which two phases (typically liquid and vapor) are in equilibrium.

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27
Q

EDTA

A

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

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28
Q

This law regulates the use and disposal of chemical substances that present unreasonable risk to health and the environment in the Philippines.
A. RA 11898
B. RA 9003
C. RA 6969
D. RA 9275

A

C. RA 6969

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29
Q

The following are primary parameters monitored based on DAO 2016-08 except
A. Sulfate
B. BOD
C. Chloride
D. Temperature

A

A. Sulfate

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30
Q

A rise in the BOD curve is observed after 8-10 days of decomposition due to

A. additional oxygen consumed by bacteria to oxidize nitrogen
B. additional organics produced by bacteria due to longer sample preparation
C. additional oxygen consumed by bacteria to produce CO
D. additional organics produced by bacteria due to more bacteria population

A

A. additional oxygen consumed by bacteria to oxidize nitrogen

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31
Q

Which of the following is used to measure suspended solids?
A. Turbidity rod
B. Gravimetric test
C. Jackson’s turbidity meter
D. Chromatography

A

B. Gravimetric test

To measure suspended solids in water, the most common method is the gravimetric test, which involves filtering a sample, drying the residue, and weighing it to determine the mass of the suspended solids.

A. Turbidity rod: This is used to assess turbidity, not directly to measure suspended solids quantitatively.

C. Jackson’s turbidity meter: This measures the turbidity of a liquid, which is an indirect measure of suspended solids, but not a direct measurement.

D. Chromatography: This technique is primarily used for separating mixtures, not for measuring suspended solids.

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32
Q

Which of the following causes eutrophication?
A. Increase in nutrients
B. Increase in dissolved salts
C. Reduction in dissolved oxygen
D. Reduction in water pollution

A

A. Increase in nutrients

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33
Q

The following are examples of aerobic biological treatments except
A. Aerated lagoon
B. Septic tank
C. Trickling filter
D. Activated sludge

A

B. Septic tank

A. Aerated lagoon: An open lagoon with aeration to support aerobic bacteria.
B. Septic tank: This is primarily an anaerobic treatment method, as it operates without oxygen.
C. Trickling filter: A method that uses a fixed film of microorganisms that treat wastewater aerobically.
D. Activated sludge: A process that involves aerating the wastewater to promote the growth of aerobic microorganisms.

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34
Q

The waste generated from treating water for drinking and wastewater for environmental discharge is called
A. flocs
B. volatile solid
C. sludge
D. biogas

A

C. sludge

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35
Q

Layer of the atmosphere in which ozone layer is located
A. Thermosphere B. Stratosphere C. Troposphere D. None of these

A

B. Stratosphere

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36
Q

After carbon dioxide, which of the following accounts for the most fraction of greenhouse gas emissions?
A. Nitrous oxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Methane
D. Ozone

A

C. Methane

A. Nitrous oxide (N₂O): While it is a significant greenhouse gas, its overall emissions are lower than methane.
B. Carbon monoxide (CO): This is not a greenhouse gas; it is primarily a pollutant that can contribute to the formation of ground-level ozone.
D. Ozone (O₃): Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed by reactions between volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and sunlight, but it is not emitted directly in significant quantities like methane.

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37
Q

In which atmosphere are typhoons most likely to occur?
A. Stable
B. Unstable
C. Inversion
D. Isothermal

A

B. Unstable

Typhoons, which are intense tropical cyclones, are most likely to occur in an unstable atmosphere. An unstable atmosphere promotes the vertical development of thunderstorms, which are crucial for the formation and intensification of typhoons.

An unstable atmosphere provides the necessary conditions for rapid vertical movement of air, which is essential for the formation of typhoons. The combination of warm sea surface temperatures, high humidity, and the dynamics of rising air creates a conducive environment for these powerful storms to develop and strengthen.

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38
Q

A cyclone separator is used for separating
A. Particles from liquids
B. Liquid droplets from gases
C. Fine particles from solids
D. None of the above

A

C. Fine particles from solids

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39
Q

The three pillars of sustainable development are
A inclusivity, interaction, infinity
B. transparency, adaptation, conservation
C. social, economic, environmental
D. plan, people, profit

A

C. social, economic, environmental

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40
Q

Why is it important to collect leachate from municipal solid waste landfills?
A. To prevent the leachate from contaminating water supplies
B. To recover important minerals from the landfill
C. To determine the capacity of the landfill
D. To prevent greenhouse gas emissions

A

A. To prevent the leachate from contaminating water supplies

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41
Q

By definition, which of the following is not considered as characteristic of hazardous waste?
A. Ignitable
B. Corrosive
C. Toxic
D. Recyclable

A

D. Recyclable

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42
Q
  1. The continuous application of an integrated preventative environmental strategy applied to processes, products, and services to increase overall efficiency and reduce risks to humans and the environment
    A. Eco-Efficiency
    B. Cleaner Production
    C. Zero Emissions
    D. Circular Economy
A

B. Cleaner Production

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43
Q

During the complete combustion of methane, what change in hybridization does the carbon atom undergo?
A. sp3 to sp
B. sp3 to sp2
C. sp2 to sp3
D. sp2 to sp3

A

A. sp3 to sp

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44
Q

Which of the following statements describes enantiomers?
A. They are achiral stereoisomers.
B. They are stereoisomers having a mirror plane of symmetry.
C. They are stereoisomers having non-identical mirror image configurations.
D. They are stereoisomers that do not have non-identical mirror image configurations.

A

C. They are stereoisomers having non-identical mirror image configurations.

Enantiomers are stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. These molecules are chiral, meaning they lack a plane of symmetry and cannot be overlapped onto their mirror images.

Explanations:
A. They are achiral stereoisomers: Enantiomers are chiral, not achiral.
B. They are stereoisomers having a mirror plane of symmetry: Enantiomers do not have a plane of symmetry; this is a feature of achiral molecules.
D. They are stereoisomers that do not have non-identical mirror image configurations: This describes molecules that are not enantiomers, such as meso compounds, which have identical mirror images.

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45
Q

Compared to ionic compounds of similar molar mass, hydrocarbons typically have
I. Higher water solubility
II. Higher melting points

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

A

D. Neither I nor II

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46
Q

Which of the following is false?
A. Molecules with symmetrical arrangements (e.g. CH4 or CCl4) are nonpolar.
B. Generally, nonpolar compounds are chemically inactive, conduct electricity poorly and do not ionize.
C. Hydrocarbons are nonpolar.
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

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47
Q

Alkanes are also known as
A. paraffins
B. olefins
C. acetylenes
D. arenes

A

A. paraffins

Paraffins (Alkanes): Saturated hydrocarbons with single bonds between carbon atoms.

Olefins (Alkenes): Unsaturated hydrocarbons with at least one double bond between carbon atoms.

Acetylenes (Alkynes): Unsaturated hydrocarbons with at least one triple bond between carbon atoms.

Arenes (Aromatic compounds): Hydrocarbons with alternating single and double bonds in a ring structure, such as benzene.

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48
Q

Which among the conformations of butane is the most stable?
A. anti
B. gauche
C. eclipsed
D. totally eclipsed

A

A. anti

Anti: The two largest groups (the methyl groups in butane) are positioned opposite each other, minimizing steric repulsion, making this the most stable conformation.

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49
Q

Halogenation of alkanes proceeds via
A. Electrophilic addition
B. Nucleophilic addition
C. Nucleophilic substitution
D. Free-radical substitution

A

D. Free-radical substitution

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50
Q

Which set of reagents can transform 1-butene into formaldehyde and acetaldehyde?
A. KMnO4
B. Oз, Zn/H+
C. BH3. NaOH
D. Pyridinium dichromate

A

B. Oз, Zn/H+

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51
Q

When an alkyne undergoes hydration, the product is a/an
A. ether
B. ketone
C. alcohol
D. aldehyde

A

B. ketone

The hydration of an alkyne typically occurs via an acid-catalyzed reaction, resulting in the addition of water across the triple bond. For terminal alkynes, the product is often an aldehyde (if the reaction occurs under specific conditions), but for internal alkynes, the product is generally a ketone.

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52
Q

This aromatic hydrocarbon is formed by the incomplete combustion of organic materials. It is found in cigarette smoke, automobile exhaust, and the fumes from charcoal grills.
A. toluene
B. polystyrene
C. naphthalene
D. benzopyrene

A

D. benzopyrene

Benzopyrene: A polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon (PAH) that is a known carcinogen and is produced during the incomplete combustion of organic matter.

Toluene: A solvent commonly used in paints and thinners, but it is not specifically related to combustion products.

Polystyrene: A polymer made from styrene monomers, used in packaging and insulation, but not a product of incomplete combustion.

Naphthalene: Another PAH that can be formed from combustion but is more commonly associated with mothballs and certain chemical applications.

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53
Q

Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?
A. ortho-nitrophenol
B. meta-nitrophenol
C. para-nitrophenol
D. These isomers have identical boiling points.

A

A. ortho-nitrophenol

Ortho-nitrophenol can form intramolecular hydrogen bonds, which can stabilize the molecule and lower its boiling point compared to the others.
Meta- and para-nitrophenol do not have this possibility for intramolecular hydrogen bonding. Ortho-Nitrophenol: Likely has a lower boiling point due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

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54
Q

Which of the following exhibit dipole-dipole forces of attraction?
A. alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. alkyl halides
D. aromatic hydrocarbons

A

C. alkyl halides

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55
Q

All of the following are uses of alkyl halides EXCEPT
A. solvents
B. fertilizers
C. pesticides
D. refrigerants

A

B. fertilizers

Alkyl halides are not typically used as fertilizers. Fertilizers are usually composed of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, rather than halogenated compounds.

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56
Q

This compound is generally obtained from plant and animal sources. It has wide-ranging uses in the food, medical, and pharmaceutical industries. In food and beverages, it serves as a humectant, solvent, and sweetener, and may help preserve foods. It is also mildly antimicrobial and antiviral and is an FDA approved treatment for wounds.
A. phenol
B. ethanol
C. glycerol
D. ethylene glycol

A

C. glycerol

Glycerol (or glycerin) is a colorless, odorless, viscous liquid that is sweet-tasting and non-toxic. It is derived from both plant and animal sources, often as a byproduct of soap production.

A. Phenol: Used in antiseptics and as a precursor to other chemicals but is not commonly used in food and has higher toxicity.
B. Ethanol: Commonly used as a beverage alcohol and solvent, but it is not a sweetener or humectant in the same way as glycerol.
D. Ethylene Glycol: Primarily used as antifreeze and is toxic to humans; not used in food or pharmaceutical applications in the same way as glycerol.

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57
Q

Which of the following reagents can form yellow to red-colored derivatives with carbonyl compounds?
A. 2.4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
B. Tollens reagent
C. I2/KI, NaOH
D. KMnO4

A

A. 2.4-dinitrophenylhydrazine

2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine (DNPH): This reagent reacts with carbonyl compounds (both aldehydes and ketones) to form hydrazones, which often precipitate out of solution as brightly colored derivatives (yellow to red).

B. Tollens’ reagent: This is used for the detection of aldehydes and forms a silver mirror but does not produce a colored derivative.

C. I₂/KI, NaOH: This is a test for reducing sugars (iodine test)

D. KMnO₄: This is a strong oxidizing agent used to oxidize alcohols and aldehydes but does not form colored derivatives specifically with carbonyls.

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58
Q

Which of the following exhibit hydrogen bonds?
A. hydrocarbons
B. alkyl halides and ethers
C. alcohols, amines, and carboxylic acids
D. esters, amides, anhydrides, and acid halides

A

C. alcohols, amines, and carboxylic acids

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59
Q

Ester is formed when an alcohol reacts with
A. Carboxylic acid
B. Aldehyde
C. Ketone
D. ether

A

A. Carboxylic acid

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60
Q

Arrange the four compounds below in order of decreasing acidity.
I. CH3CH2COOH
II. CH3CH2CH2OH
III. C6H5OH
IV. CH3C(triple bond)CH

A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, II, IV
C. III, I, IV, II
D. III, IV, I, II

A

B. I, III, II, IV

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61
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about starch, glycogen, cellulose, and chitin?

A. All have a-1,4-linkages.
B. Each is built from a single type of monomer.
C. Starch is built from a different monomer than the others.
D. Chitin and cellulose differ from each other only in the extent of their branching.

A

B. Each is built from a single type of monomer.

Starch is built from α-glucose.
Glycogen is also built from α-glucose.
Cellulose is built from β-glucose.
Chitin is built from N-acetylglucosamine (an amino sugar). Each polysaccharide is constructed from one specific type of monomer.

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62
Q

Which of the following is an epimeric pair?
A. glucose and gulose
B. galactose and idose
C. glucose and mannose
D. galactose and mannose

A

C. glucose and mannose

A. Glucose and Gulose:

These differ at two carbons (C2 and C4), so they are not epimers.
B. Galactose and Idose:

These differ at two carbons (C2 and C4), so they are not epimers.
C. Glucose and Mannose:

These differ only at C2. Glucose has the hydroxyl group on the right (D-glucose), while mannose has it on the left (D-mannose). Therefore, they are epimers.
D. Galactose and Mannose:

These differ at C2 and C4, so they are not epimers.

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63
Q

The general test for detection of carbohydrates is
A. Iodine test
B. Molisch test
C. Fehling’s test
D. Benedict’s test

A

B. Molisch test

Molisch Test:
This test can detect all types of carbohydrates. It produces a purple ring when carbohydrates are present.
Other Options:
A. Iodine test: Only tests for starch.
C. Fehling’s test: Tests for reducing sugars (like glucose).
D. Benedict’s test: Also tests for reducing sugars.

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64
Q

The polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of invertebrates is
A. chitin
B. pectin
C. trehalose
D. hyaluronic acid

A

A. chitin

Chitin: A structural polysaccharide that makes up the exoskeletons of arthropods (like insects and crustaceans) and the cell walls of fungi.

Pectin: A polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants, used in making jams and jellies.

Trehalose: A disaccharide sugar found in some fungi and invertebrates, but not a structural component of exoskeletons.

Hyaluronic acid: A polysaccharide found in connective tissues, skin, and the vitreous humor of the eye, but not in invertebrate exoskeletons.

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65
Q

Glycogen is present in all body tissues except
A. liver
B. brain
C. kidney
D. stomach

A

B. brain

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66
Q

The major fat in adipose tissues in mammals is
A. cholesterol
B. sphingolipids
C. phospholipids
D. triacylglycerols

A

D. triacylglycerols

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67
Q

Which fatty acid has 16C?
A. myristic acid
B. palmitic acid
C. stearic acid
D. arachidonic acid

A

B. palmitic acid

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68
Q

Fatty fish, like salmon and albacore, are known to be rich in
A. omega-3 fatty acids
B. omega-6 fatty acids
C. saturated fatty acids
D. polyunsaturated fatty acids

A

A. omega-3 fatty acids

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69
Q

All of the following are unsaturated fatty acids EXCEPT
A. Oleic acid
B. Stearic acid
C. Linolenic acid
D. Arachidonic acid

A

B. Stearic acid

A. Oleic acid: An unsaturated fatty acid with one double bond (monounsaturated).
B. Stearic acid: A saturated fatty acid with no double bonds.
C. Linolenic acid: An unsaturated fatty acid with three double bonds (polyunsaturated).
D. Arachidonic acid: An unsaturated fatty acid with four double bonds (polyunsaturated).

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70
Q

Carnitine is synthesized from
A. Lysine
B. Serine
C. Choline
D. Arginine

A

A. Lysine

Carnitine is primarily derived from the amino acid lysine, with the help of vitamin C and other cofactors in the synthesis process.

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71
Q

What is the isoelectric point of alanine? pKa (NH3+) 9.69, pKa (COOH) 2.34
A. 2.34
B. 6.02
C. 9.69
D. 12.03

A

B. 6.02

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72
Q

Alpha-helix is stabilized by
A. Disulfide bonds
B. Non-polar bonds
C. Salt bonds
D. Hydrogen bonds

A

D. Hydrogen bonds

Hydrogen bonds are the key stabilizing forces in the alpha-helix. In an alpha-helix, the carbonyl oxygen of one amino acid forms a hydrogen bond with the amide hydrogen of another amino acid that is four residues earlier in the sequence (n to n+4). This pattern of hydrogen bonding is what gives the alpha-helix its helical structure and stability.

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73
Q

The unwound strands of DNA are held apart by
A. Single strand binding protein
B. Double strand binding protein
C. DNA gyrase
D. DNA ligase

A

A. Single strand binding protein

These proteins bind to the single-stranded DNA after it has been unwound during DNA replication. They prevent the strands from re-annealing (coming back together) and protect them from degradation, ensuring that the DNA replication machinery can access the template strands.

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74
Q

Recently scientists reported a bacterium that they believe incorporates arsenic into its DNA by substituting it for another element. Which element in DNA is arsenic most likely to replace?
A. carbon
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. phosphorus

A

D. phosphorus

DNA Structure: DNA is made up of nucleotides, which consist of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. The phosphate group contains phosphorus.

Role of Phosphorus: Phosphorus is a crucial component of the backbone of DNA, connecting the sugar molecules of adjacent nucleotides.

Arsenic Substitution: The reported ability of certain bacteria to incorporate arsenic into their DNA suggests that arsenic can mimic phosphorus due to its similar chemical properties. This allows arsenic to replace phosphorus in the DNA structure.

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75
Q

Before pyruvic acid enters the TCA cycle, it must be converted to
A. acetyl-CoA
B. lactate
C. malate
D. citrate

A

A. acetyl-CoA

Conversion to Acetyl-CoA: Pyruvic acid (pyruvate) is converted to acetyl-CoA by the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase. This conversion is crucial as acetyl-CoA is the substrate that enters the TCA cycle (Krebs cycle).
Process: During this conversion, one molecule of carbon dioxide is released (decarboxylation), and NAD+ is reduced to NADH.

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76
Q

Glycolysis gives a net yield of
A. 1 ATP per glucose
B. 2 ATP per glucose
C. 4 ATP per glucose
D. 8 ATP per glucose

A

B. 2 ATP per glucose

Glycolysis starts with one molecule of glucose and ends with two molecules of pyruvate.
During the process, a total of 4 ATP molecules are produced, but 2 ATP are consumed in the initial steps of glycolysis.
Therefore, the net gain is:
NetATP=TotalATPproduced−ATPconsumed=4−2= 2 ATP

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77
Q

ATP is formed in glycolysis and citric acid cycle through
A. isomerization
B. redox reaction
C. oxidative phosphorylation
D. substrate level phosphorylation

A

D. substrate level phosphorylation

This process involves the direct transfer of a phosphate group to ADP to form ATP from a phosphorylated intermediate.

In glycolysis, ATP is produced during specific reactions where substrates directly donate a phosphate group to ADP.

In the citric acid cycle (TCA cycle), ATP (or GTP, which can be converted to ATP) is also formed via substrate-level phosphorylation during the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate.

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78
Q

_____ is a special constituent of chlorophyll without which photosynthesis is not possible.
Calcium
Nitrogen
Phosphorus
hydrogen

A

Nitrogen

Chlorophyll is a pigment essential for photosynthesis in plants. Its structure contains a porphyrin ring that includes a central magnesium atom, but nitrogen is an essential component of the amino acids and other structures that make up the chlorophyll molecule.

Role in Photosynthesis: Without nitrogen, chlorophyll cannot be synthesized, which means that photosynthesis cannot occur effectively.

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79
Q

Gluconeogenesis involves the conversion of
A. Glucose to pyruvate
B. Pyruvate to glucose
C. Phosphoenolpyruvate to glucose
D. Pyruvate to fructose

A

B. Pyruvate to glucose

This is the metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors. It primarily occurs in the liver and, to a lesser extent, in the kidney.

Key Process: In gluconeogenesis, pyruvate is converted into glucose through a series of enzymatic reactions. This process is essentially the reverse of glycolysis, although some steps are bypassed due to irreversible reactions in glycolysis.

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80
Q

Which of the following is not a STOP codon?
A. UAG
B. UGA
C. UAA
D. AUG

A

D. AUG

D. AUG: This codon is actually the START codon that initiates translation. It codes for the amino acid methionine and is the first codon of an mRNA transcript that is translated into protein.

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81
Q

An open system in which the growth rate is maintained by adding a nutrient (present in limiting quantities) at the same rate as that medium containing micro-organism is removed is called
A. Manostat
B. Chemostat
C. Turbidostat
D. Culturostat

A

B. Chemostat

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82
Q

Fermentor should be filled with medium up to
A. 65-70%
B. 70-75%
C. 75-80%
D. 80-85%

A

C. 75-80%

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83
Q

The Monod Model relates
A. Substrate utilized with the biomass consumption
B. Specific growth rate to the substrate availability
C. Yield with the biomass utilization
D. The biomass concentration with specific growth rate

A

B. Specific growth rate to the substrate availability

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84
Q

Which of the following is correct for the prediction of time requirement in a batch fermenter?
A. Carrying out experiments
B. Mathematical modeling of fermentation process
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. It is impossible to predict the time required for fermentation

A

C. Both (a) and (b)

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85
Q

The number of baffles in a standard stirred tank bioreactor is
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2

A

C. 4

These are vertical plates mounted inside the bioreactor. Their primary function is to prevent the formation of a vortex during stirring and to enhance mixing by promoting a more uniform flow pattern.

Standard Configuration: In a typical stirred tank bioreactor, there are usually four baffles evenly spaced around the tank to achieve optimal mixing and aeration.

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86
Q

Chemostat works on the principle of
A. Maintaining constant volume of culture medium
B. Continuous flow of nutrients
C. Maintaining uniform nutrients concentration
D. Operating at higher pressure

A

C. Maintaining uniform nutrients concentration

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87
Q

Yield coefficient represents
A. Total biomass or product produced
B. Conversion efficiency of a substrate into product
C. Conversion rate of a substrate into biomass or product
D. Production time of biomass product

A

B. Conversion efficiency of a substrate into product

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88
Q

Saccharomyces cerevisiae is being grown in a chemostat converts glucose to biomass, ethanol, glycerol and carbon dioxide. At steady state, the concentration of glucose, biomass, ethanol and glycerol will
A. Decrease with time
B. Increase with time
C. Be constant
D. Change randomly with time

A

C. Be constant

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89
Q

Which of the following is used to calculate mass of substrate in the reactor?
A. Flow rate x substrate concentration in the reactor
B. Volume of reactor x substrate concentration in reactor
C. Flow rate x mass of reactor
D. Volume of reactor x Flow rate

A

B. Volume of reactor x substrate concentration in reactor

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90
Q

Low dissolved oxygen concentrations lead to
A. Low biomass yields
B. High biomass yields
C. No effect on biomass yields
D. None of the above

A

A. Low biomass yields

Dissolved Oxygen in Bioprocesses: Oxygen is essential for aerobic organisms, including many microorganisms and cell cultures, as it is required for cellular respiration and energy production.

Effect of Low Oxygen: When dissolved oxygen concentrations are low, aerobic respiration is inhibited, leading to:

Reduced growth rates of cells.
Lower overall biomass production because the cells cannot efficiently produce energy.

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91
Q

In fed-batch fermentation, mass of substrate utilized is calculated using the relationship
A. Initial mass of substrate in the reactor + final mass of substrate in the reactor + flow rate x[substrate in the feed]
B. Initial mass of substrate in the reactor - final mass of substrate in the reactor + flow rate x [substrate in the feed]
C. Initial mass of substrate in the reactor + final mass of substrate in the reactor - flow rate x [substrate in the feed]
D. Initial mass of substrate in the reactor + final mass of substrate in the reactor - flow rate

A

B. Initial mass of substrate in the reactor - final mass of substrate in the reactor + flow rate x [substrate in the feed]

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92
Q

A culture system with constant environmental conditions maintained through continual provision of nutrients and removal of wastes is called ____ culture system.
A. Continuous
B. Batch
C. Fed-batch
D. Semi continuous

A

A. Continuous

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93
Q

The main reason for production of antibiotics in fed batch reactors is
A. The presence of precursors is often toxic to the cells
B. Higher yields when cells enter the stationary phase
C. Higher yields when cell growth slows
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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94
Q

In an activated sludge process, the biomass is recycled to
A. Increase the efficiency of the process
B. Reduce sludge volumes
C. Increase the concentration of cells
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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95
Q

It is designed to provide information needed to protect users from any associated with the chemical.
A. Chemical Hygiene Plan
B. Globally Harmonized System
C. Material Safety Data Sheets
D. Laboratory Chemical Safety Summaries

A

C. Material Safety Data Sheets

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96
Q

As per the Diamond Symbol of chemical label, the color blue represents
A. health hazard
B. fire hazard
C. reactivity hazard
D. radioactive hazard

A

A. health hazard

Red- fire hazard
Yellow- reactivity hazard
White- specific hazard (includes radioactive)

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97
Q

It refers to the lowest temperature at which a substance can vaporize to form an ignitable mixture in air.
A. ignition point
B. combustion point
C. deflagration point
D. flash point

A

D. flash point

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98
Q

What is the color coding for the CO2 gas cylinder?
A. black with white band
B. brown
C. gray with black band
D. green

A

C. gray with black band

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99
Q

Cylinders that contain corrosive gases should not be stored for longer the
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months

A

B. 6 months

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100
Q

Compressed gas cylinder must be stored in:
A. an upright position
B. a dry area
C. a well-ventilated area
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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101
Q

Which hazard is associated with liquid nitrogen?
A. oxygen deficiency
B oxygen enrichment
C. cold burn
D. gravity

A

C. cold burn

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102
Q

When heating substances:
A. never heat sealed containers
B. use tongs and insulated gloves
C. point the opening away from people
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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103
Q

Flammable chemicals are stored
A. in special flammable storage lockers
B. wherever it is easy to get to
C. near water sources
D. in glass containers

A

A. in special flammable storage lockers

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104
Q

Solid calcium occurs as either cubic closest packing or hexagonal closest packing. What is the most significant difference between these two structures?
A. the placement of layers of calcium atoms
B. the distance between calcium atoms in a single layer
C. the distance between calcium atoms in adjacent layers
D. the coordination number of the calcium atoms in a single layer

A

A. the placement of layers of calcium atoms

In CCP, the layers of atoms are arranged in a repeating pattern of ABC, while in HCP, the arrangement follows an ABAB pattern. This difference in stacking leads to variations in symmetry and coordination.

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105
Q

What is the coordination number of each atom in a hexagonal close-packed solid?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8.
D. 12

A

D. 12

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106
Q

Which of the following is an alloy of iron?
A. vitallium
B. brass
C. invar
D. solder

A

C. invar

Invar is a nickel-iron alloy known for its low coefficient of thermal expansion.

A. Vitallium: An alloy made of cobalt and chromium, used in medical implants.

B. Brass: An alloy of copper and zinc, often used for things like musical instruments and plumbing.

C. Invar: An alloy of iron and nickel, known for not expanding much with heat; used in precise instruments.

D. Solder: A mix of tin and lead (or other metals), used to join metal parts together in electronics and plumbing.

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107
Q

Traces of which of the following elements are considered undesirable in steel?
A. chromium
B. copper
C. boron
D. titanium

A

B. copper

B. copper is considered undesirable in steel. While chromium, boron, and titanium can be beneficial for enhancing properties like strength and corrosion resistance, excessive copper can lead to brittleness and affect the steel’s overall performance.

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108
Q

Which of the following metals is highly prone to corrosion?
A. aluminum
B. copper
C. iron
D. zinc

A

D. zinc

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109
Q

Which of the following bonds are present in ceramic structures?
A. Ionics bonds only
B. Covalent bonds only
C. Ionic, covalent and a mix of ionic and covalent bond
D. Mix of ionic and covalent bond only

A

C. Ionic, covalent and a mix of ionic and covalent bond

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110
Q

Which of the following can be used for lubrication?
A. Graphite
B. Diamond
C. Brass
D. Bronze

A

A. Graphite

A. Graphite can be used for lubrication. It has a layered structure that allows the layers to slide over each other, making it an effective dry lubricant.

Diamond, while very hard, is not used for lubrication. Brass and bronze are alloys that can be used in mechanical applications, but they are not typically used as lubricants themselves.

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111
Q

Which of the following tests are done to find out the mechanical behavior of ceramics?
A. Tensile test
B. Compressive test
C. Shearing test
D. Transverse bending test

A

D. Transverse bending test

The compressive test assesses how a ceramic material withstands axial loads, while the transverse bending test evaluates its ability to resist bending forces. Tensile tests are less common because ceramics typically have low tensile strength, and shearing tests are also less frequently used for ceramics.

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112
Q

Which of the following is true for polymers?
A. They have very high molecular mass
B. They do not have a linear stress-strain curve
C. They have high strength to mass ratio
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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113
Q

What is the relation between fracture toughness and thickness?
A: Fracture toughness increases with increase in thickness.
B. Fracture toughness increases with increase in thickness.
C. Fracture toughness does not depend on the thickness.
D. Fracture toughness increases linearly with an increase in thickness.

A

A: Fracture toughness increases with increase in thickness.

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114
Q

Up to which point on the stress-strain curve is Hooke’s law valid?
A Elastic limit
B. Yield point
C. Proportionality limit
D. Fracture point

A

C. Proportionality limit

Hooke’s law is valid up to the proportionality limit (C) on the stress-strain curve. This is the point where the relationship between stress and strain remains linear. Beyond this limit, the material may exhibit non-linear behavior.

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115
Q

Glue and starch paints are examples of which type of colloid?
A. emulsion
B. gel
C. sol
D. aerosol

A

C. sol

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116
Q

It is developed due to the separation of positive and negative charges by a distance.
A. p-n bond
B. sigma bond
C. dipole moment
D. bond energy

A

D. bond energy

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117
Q

It is formed when two atoms participating in a bond formation share equally (i.e. same electronegativity) their electrons to produce a molecule of an element or a compound.
A. ionic bond
B. metallic bond
C. polar covalent bond
D. nonpolar covalent bond

A

D. nonpolar covalent bond

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118
Q

Which functional group has the largest bond energy?
A. alkene
B. alkyne
C. carbonyl
D. ether

A

B. alkyne

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119
Q

Between dimethyl ether and ethanol, which is less volatile? Why?

A. Ethanol is less volatile because it can exhibit hydrogen bonding.
B. Ethanol is less volatile because it weighs less than dimethyl ether.
C. Dimethyl ether is less volatile because of the C-O-C bent geometry.
D. Dimethyl ether is less volatile because it can exhibit dipole-dipole interaction.

A

A. Ethanol is less volatile because it can exhibit hydrogen bonding.

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120
Q

All of the following properties of alkaline earth metals increase going down the group except:
A. ionic radius
B. atomic mass
C. atomic radius
D. first ionization energy

A

D. first ionization energy

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121
Q

In nuclear chemistry, which are considered “magic numbers”?
A. 1,3,7,9,15,…
B. 1,2,3,6,9,…
C. 2,8,20,28,50,…
D. 2,10,28,50,…

A

C. 2,8,20,28,50,…

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122
Q

Which of the following can be penetrated by gamma rays but not beta rays?
A. 0.5-cm lead
B. paper
C. 5-cm lead
D. 10-cm lead

A

C. 5-cm lead

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123
Q

Which of the following is correctly paired medical radio-isotope to its function?
I. Co-60 - cancer therapy
II. Tl-201 - heart scans and exercise stress
III. H-3 - measurement of water content in the body
IV. Hg-197 - kidney scans

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, III, and IV only
D. All I, II, III, and IV

A

D. All I, II, III, and IV

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124
Q

When Pb-208 is bombarded with Ni-64, a new element is formed along with six neutrons. Identify the new nuclide.
A. Ds-266
B. Ds-272
C. Rf-266
D. Rf-272

A

A. Ds-266

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125
Q

Which of the following is not used as a moderator in nuclear reactors?
A. D2O
B. graphite
C. beryllium
D. boron

A

D. boron

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126
Q

What is the oxidation number of sulfur in potassium sulfite?
A. +2
B. +3
C. +4
D. +6

A

C. +4

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127
Q

This type of corrosion involves direct chemical action between metals and gases.
A. dry
B. wet
C. chemical
D. electrochemical

A

C. chemical

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128
Q

What is the fundamental frequency of a 3.0 cm ear canal?
A. 1430 Hz
B. 2145 Hz
C. 2860 Hz
D. 3575 Hz

A

C. 2860 Hz

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129
Q

Which of the following best explains why sky is blue during the day?
A. interference
B. refraction
C. diffraction
D. scattering

A

D. scattering

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130
Q

Who discovered positron?
A. Bohr
B. Pauli
C. Anderson
D. Heisenberg

A

C. Anderson

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131
Q

What is the second most abundant element in the earth’s crust?
A. Si
B. O
C. H
D. Ca

A

A. Si

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132
Q

What is the third most abundant element in the human body?
A. Si
B. O
C. H
D. Ca

A

C. H

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133
Q

What is the name of the acid with a chemical formula of HN3?
A. hydrazoic acid
B. hydronitric acid
C. hydroazidic acid
D. hydrazic acid

A

A. hydrazoic acid

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134
Q

Brucite is the mineral form of which compound?
A. lead oxide
B. sodium nitride
C. zinc chloride
D. magnesium hydroxide

A

D. magnesium hydroxide

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135
Q

What is the most common commercial form of manganous sulfate?
A. trihydrate
B. tetrahydrate
C. pentahydrate
D. hexahydrate

A

B. tetrahydrate

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136
Q

Which of the following is an allowed set of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms)?
A. 3, 4, 2, +1/2
B. 2, 1, -2, +1/2
C. 1, -1, 0, -1/2
D. 4, 3, -2, -1/2

A

D. 4, 3, -2, -1/2

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137
Q

What is the valence electron configuration of tellurium?
A. 5p4
B. 5s2 5p4
C. 6p4
D. 6s2 6p4

A

B. 5s2 5p4

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138
Q

Which of the following is the correct arrangement of increasing affinity of electrons?
A. Rb<Se<Br<Kr
B. Kr<Br<Se<Rb
C. Kr<Rb<Se<Br
D. Se<Br<Rb<Kr

A

C. Kr<Rb<Se<Br

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139
Q

Which of the following species is the largest?
A. iodine atom
B. iodide
C. bromine atom
D. bromide

A

B. iodide

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140
Q

What is the formal charge of a chlorine atom in carbon tetrachloride?
A. 0
B. +1
C. -1
D. +7

A

A. 0

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141
Q

Which of the following molecular geometry is always polar?
A. trigonal bipyramidal
B. square planar
C. trigonal planar
D. see-saw

A

D. see-saw

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142
Q

Which of the following has the lowest bond angle?
A. methane
B. carbon dioxide
C. water
D. ammonia

A

C. water

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143
Q

Which will have the strongest interaction with methanol?
A. benzene
B. cyclohexane
C. acetic acid
D. diethyl ether

A

C. acetic acid

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144
Q

Which of the following is TRUE given the two organic compounds? I. CH3(CH2)8CH3 II. CH3(CH2)7OCH3
A. I has higher boiling point than II.
B. I is more volatile than II.
C. Il has lower viscosity than I.
D. Il needs less energy to vaporize than I.

A

B. I is more volatile than II.

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145
Q

Element X has a molar mass of 40.0 g/mol. What compound is formed with oxygen if the mass ratio of element X to oxygen is closest to 2.5 to 1?
A. X302
B. X2O
C. XO2
D. XO

A

D. XO

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146
Q

What is the percentage of oxygen in vanadium oxide?
A. 36
B. 40
C. 44
D. 48

A

C. 44

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147
Q

A compound was subjected to analysis. It has been found that it is composed of 57.14%C, 6.16%H, 9.52%N, and 27.18%0. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
A. C7H9NO2
B. C7H9NO3
C. C14H18N2O5
D. C28H36N4O10

A

C. C14H18N2O5

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148
Q

Which of the following is the most probable solute-solvent pair?
A. ethanol-kerosene
B. isooctane-heptane
C. benzene-water
D. NaBr-diesel

A

B. isooctane-heptane

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149
Q

A 35% aqueous solution of saltpeter at 30°C is
A. unsaturated
B. saturated
C. supersaturated
D. cannot be determined

A

C. supersaturated

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150
Q

Convert 50 gr/m3 to ppm.
A. 3.24
B. 4.15
C. 5.28
D. 6.09

A

A. 3.24

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151
Q

Determine whether the following solutions will precipitate or not after mixing.
NaCl and AgNO3
Pb(NO3)2 and KI
KCI and NaNO3
A. P, NP, NP
B. NP, NP, NP
C. P, P, NP
D. P, NP, P

A

C. P, P, NP

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152
Q

What is the equilibrium constant expression for CO2(g) + C(s) ⇌ CO(g)
A. [CO]2/ [CO2]
B. [CO] / [CO2]
C. [CO2] / [CO][C]
D. [CO]2 / [C][CO2]

A

A. [CO]2/ [CO2]

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153
Q

Consider the endothermic reaction A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g). Which will cause a backward shift?
A. increasing the volume
B. removal of B
C. addition of catalyst
D. decreasing the temperature

A

D. decreasing the temperature

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154
Q

Consider the endothermic reaction A(g) ⇌ B(g) + C(g). What shift will occur if a small amount of neon was added at constant volume?
A. forward
B. backward
C. no shift
D. equal shift

A

C. no shift

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155
Q
  1. Evaluate whether the following statements are true or false.
    I. Nuclear fission combines light nuclides to produce a heavier one.
    II. Nuclear fusion splits heavier nuclide to lighter ones.
    III. Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion both produce nuclear energy.
    IV. Nuclear fission is mostly used in nuclear power plants compared to fusion.
    A. T,T,T,T
    B. F,F,T,T
    C. T.T,F,T
    D. F,F,T,F
A

B. F,F,T,T

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156
Q

Which part of the nuclear reactor regulates the nuclear reaction by absorbing excess neutrons?
A. fuel element
B. moderator
C. control rods
D. pressurizer

A

C. control rods

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157
Q

Which set of materials is used as a moderator in nuclear reactor?
A. zircalloy & beryllium
B. zircalloy & heavy water
C. zirconium & beryllium
D. heavy water & beryllium

A

D. heavy water & beryllium

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158
Q

The world’s worst radioactive pollution was caused by reactor disaster that occurred in:
A. Arizona
B. Chernobyl
C. Pennsylvania
D. Moscow

A

B. Chernobyl

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159
Q

What are the oxidation numbers of Mn in MnO4 and MnO2, respectively?
A. +7, +4
B. +7, +2
C. +8, +4
D. +8, +2

A

A. +7, +4

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160
Q

Metallic aluminum is obtained from pure alumina in the presence of fused cryolite by
A. electrolysis
B. electrolytic reduction
C. electrolytic oxidation
D. none of these

A

B. electrolytic reduction

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161
Q

When exposure to hazards cannot be engineered completely out of normal operations administrative control cannot provide sufficient additional protection, this supplementary method of control can be used.
A. Elimination
B. Substitution
C. Administrative control
D. Use of PPE

A

D. Use of PPE

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162
Q

A researcher working in the lab where hazardous liquid chemicals are present. Which of the following is NOT considered appropriate PPE for this situation?
A. Wire mesh glove
B. Lab coat
C. Chemical resistant glove
D. Chemical splash goggles

A

A. Wire mesh glove

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163
Q

The area around surrounding a safety shower/eyewash:
A. Can be used to store boxes if they can be removed quickly
B. Must remain clear of all items at all items
C. Is typically marked with yellow and black floor tape as a reminder to keep it clear
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

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164
Q

Which of the following is not suitable safety attire when handling large volume of corrosive liquid?
A. Lab coat
B. Chemical resistant gloves
C. General safety glasses
D. Closed toe shoes

A

C. General safety glasses

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165
Q

Laboratory chemical hoods are best placed in a location that is
A. near the aisle for ease of access.
B. near the windows and doors
C. away from air diffuser
D. None of these

A

C. away from air diffuser

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166
Q

Which of the following safety practices implements the substitution method according to the hierarchy of control principle?
A. Physically removing of the hazards
B. Use of mercury thermometer alternatives
C. Use of glove box
D. Establishing rotations among workers to reduce exposure

A

B. Use of mercury thermometer alternatives

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167
Q

The following information can be found in a safety data sheet EXCEPT.
A. Manufacturer name
B. Manufacturer contact details
C. Require PPEs
D. None of the choices

A

D. None of the choices

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168
Q

The SDS of certain chemical contains the given pictogram. Determine the corresponding hazards related to the material. (Diamond Picture has 142 & ₩ below). Arrange according to Health, Fire, Reactivity, Specific Hazard.
A. Normal material, Above 200 °F, Violent chemical change, Alkaline
B. Slightly hazardous, Below 100 °F, Unstable if heated, Oxidizer
C. Slightly hazardous, Below 73 °F, Violent Chemical Change, Reacts violently with water
D. Hazardous, Below 100 °F, Unstable if heated, Reacts violently with water

A

C. Slightly hazardous, Below 73 °F, Violent Chemical Change, Reacts violently with water

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169
Q

How long should you rinse the affected area in an eyewash during accidental chemical splashes on the eyes?
A. 5 mins
B. 10 mins
C. 15 mins
D. 30 seconds

A

C. 15 mins

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170
Q

Common hazards posed by different chemicals in the laboratories can be found at
A. CHP
B. SDS
C. GHS labels
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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171
Q

At this concentration, the mixture of flammable liquids is considered too lean to burn.
A. at lower explosion limit
B. below lower explosion limit
C. above upper explosion limit
D. between upper and lower explosion limit

A

B. below lower explosion limit

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172
Q

This general type of reaction results in sudden rapid rise in temperature upon heating of the material that usually becomes violent.
A. vigorous reaction
B. combustion reaction
C. runaway reaction
D. reaction under pressure

A

C. runaway reaction

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173
Q

Which of the following functional groups pose explosion hazards?
I. Azide II. Peroxide III. Sulfide IV. Hydrocarbons
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, and III

A

A. I and II

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174
Q

During a mercury spillage in the laboratory, what is the most appropriate action to do?
A. Wipe mercury spill with dry cloth
B. Clean spill with an aspirator bulb
C. Smother the spill with powdered graphite
D. Use calcinated absorbent product such as Oil-Dri or Zorball

A

B. Clean spill with an aspirator bulb

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175
Q

What hazards are represented by the given Globally Harmonized System (GHS) pictogram? (Pictogram: O with fire at the top)
A. Flammable and self-reactive substances
B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides
C. Carcinogens
D. Explosives

A

B. Oxidizers, organic peroxides

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176
Q

These materials ignite due to the rapid oxidation by oxygen or moisture in the air.
A. Water reactive substances
B. Pyrophoric substances
C. Explosives
D. Flammable

A

B. Pyrophoric substances

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177
Q

It refers to the production of reversible damage to the skin occurring after exposure to a substance or
A. Skin allergy
B. Skin corrosion
C. Skin irritation
D. Skin damage

A

C. Skin irritation

178
Q

In which type of fire is Class A fire extinguisher used?
A. Fires involving combustible metals
B. Fires involving combustible solids
C. Electrical Fires
D. Surface Fires

A

B. Fires involving combustible solids

179
Q

This type of toxins in the chemical laboratory may potentially cause allergies or allergic-like reactions.
A. Allergen
B. Corrosive substance
C. Sensitizer
D. Asphyxiants

A

C. Sensitizer

180
Q

Sodium metal should be best stored in
A. Dry, ventilated cabinet
B. Closed container under kerosene, or mineral oil
C. Tightly screw-cap glass bottle
D. Closed metal container

A

B. Closed container under kerosene, or mineral oil

181
Q

A hazardous waste characteristic that refers to substances that are unstable under normal and readily undergo violent reaction without detonation.
A. Ignitability
B. Corrosivity
C. Reactivity
D. Toxicity

A

C. Reactivity

182
Q

What type of container must be used to store waste such as paints and solvents?
A. Polyethylene drum
B. Metal drum
C. Fiber drum
D. Glass drum

A

B. Metal drum

183
Q

An alkali waste has a pH of
A. 7
B. ≤2
C. 10
D. ≥12.5

A

D. ≥12.5

184
Q

It is the type of charging where there is no direct contact between the two objects?
A. Friction
B. Conduction
C. Induction
D. Grounding

A

C. Induction

185
Q

Two charges 4µC and 8 µC are 12 cm far apart. How much force do they exert to each other?
A. 10 N
B. 20 N
C. 30 N
D. 40 N

A

B. 20 N
Use Coulomb’s Law: Fe=(kq1q2)/r^2

186
Q

Find the resistance of a circular wire that is 0.5-m long with radius of 1 mm and has a resistivity value of 0.03 ohm-meter.
A. 4800
B. 8400
C. 15000
D. 51000

A

A. 4800
Use R=ρL/A

187
Q

Which of the following will NOT yield an increase in capacitance?
A. increase in surface area of capacitor
B. decrease in distance between plates
C. putting a dielectric between the plates
D. increasing voltage between the plates

A

D. increasing voltage between the plates

188
Q

What is the power factor if the real and quadrature powers are equal?
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 0.7
D. 1.0

A

C. 0.7

189
Q

Jihyo’s voice is higher than Dahyun’s, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Jihyo’s voice has higher timbre.
B. Dahyun’s voice has longer duration.
C. Jihyo’s voice has lower amplitude.
D. Dahyun’s voice has less frequency.

A

D. Dahyun’s voice has less frequency.

190
Q

A simple spring mass system has certain natural frequency. If the mass is quadrupled, the period will
A. be quadrupled
B. be doubled
C.be quartered
D. be halved

A

B. be doubled

191
Q

A simple spring mass system vibrates according to the wave function x=0.6cos(9.2t) where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Which of the following is false about its behavior?
A. The amplitude is 0.6 m
B. The period is 0.683 s.
C. The frequency is 9.2 Hz.
D. None of the above.

A

C. The frequency is 9.2 Hz.

192
Q

Which of the following best explains that glowing rainbow-like patches on roads after the rain?
A. reflection and refraction
B. interference and diffraction
C. reflection, refraction, and interference
D. refraction, interference, and diffraction

A

C. reflection, refraction, and interference

193
Q

Dioxin is considered to be poisonous in concentrations above 2 ppb. If a lake containing 1x10^7 L has been contaminated by 0.1 g of dioxin, did the concentration reach a dangerous level?
A. No, because there is no dioxin in the lake.
B. Yes, because the dioxin in the lake is 2.1 ppb.
C. Yes, because the dioxin in the lake is 1x10^-8 ppb.
D. No, because the dioxin in the lake is 0.01 ppb only.

A

D. No, because the dioxin in the lake is 0.01 ppb only.

194
Q

Consider a metal plating firm installing a precipitation system to remove zinc. A pH meter will be used to control the feed of hydroxide solution to the mixing tank. Ksp of Zn(OH)2 is 7.68x10^-17. Determine the hydroxide ion concentration so that zinc effluent concentration is 0.80 mg/L.
A. 2.51x10^-6 M
B. 6.28x10^-9 M
C. 5.12x10^-6 M
D. 8.26x10^-8 M

A

A. 2.51x10^-6 M

195
Q

Consider a metal plating firm installing a precipitation system to remove zinc. A pH meter will be used to control the feed of hydroxide solution to the mixing tank. Ksp of Zn(OH)2 is 7.68x10^-17. What pH should the controller be set at to achieve the given zinc effluent concentration?
A. 5.60
B. 8.40
C. 9.60
D. 11.20

A

B. 8.40

196
Q

The zinc in a 0.7457-g sample of foot powder was titrated with 22.57 mL of 0.01639 M EDTA. Calculate the percent zinc in this sample.
A. 3.24%
B. 6.48%
C. 12.96%
D. 2.92%

A

A. 3.24%

197
Q

This argentometric method is an indirect titration procedure for determining anions that precipitate with silver (Cl, Br, SCN-) and it is performed in acidic solution.
A. Mohr
B. Liebig
C. Fajans
D. Volhard

A

D. Volhard

198
Q

Precipitation and volatilization are methods under which analytical technique?
A. Gravimetry
B. Spectroscopy
C. Chromatography
D. None of the above

A

A. Gravimetry

199
Q

Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through a UV-Vis spectrophotometer?
A. detector, sample, source, monochromator
B. source, monochromator, sample, detector
C. source, sample, monochromator, detector
D. monochromator, source, sample, detector

A

B. source, monochromator, sample, detector

200
Q

Beer’s Law states that
A. Absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the absorbing species.
B. Absorbance is proportional to the log of the concentration of the absorbing species.
C. Absorbance is equal to Po/P.
D. None of the above.

A

A. Absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the absorbing species.

201
Q

Which of the following statements about mass spectroscopy is(are) TRUE?
I. Analyte molecules are converted to gaseous ions.
II. The ions are separated according to their mass to charge ratio.
III. The addition of compound identification of mass spectrum can be utilized to determine precise isotopic masses and isotopic ratios.
A. II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III

A

D. I, II, and III

202
Q

A mass spectrum plots the intensity of each ion against its
A. m/z ratio
B. absorbance
C. wavenumber
D. chemical shift

A

A. m/z ratio

203
Q

IR spectroscopy is useful for determining the structure of organic compounds because
A. All molecular bonds absorb IR radiation.
B. IR peak intensities are related to molecular mass.
C. Each element absorbs at a characteristic wavelength.
D. Most organic functional groups absorb in characteristic regions of an IR spectrum.

A

D. Most organic functional groups absorb in characteristic regions of an IR spectrum.

204
Q

In this method of solid sample preparation for IR spectral analysis, a small portion of sample is taken to which mineral oil is added. In a mortar and pestle, the mixture is ground to a thick paste and placed on a salt plate and covered with a second plate.
A. Nujol mull
B. thin-film cells
C. pressed pellets
D. None of the above

A

A. Nujol mull

205
Q

German chemist who synthesized urea by treating silver cyanate with ammonium chloride. For the first time, an organic compound was produced from an inorganic source.
A. Herman Boerhaave
B. Hilaire Rouelle
C. William Cruickshank
D. Friedrich Wöhler

A

D. Friedrich Wöhler

206
Q

How many σ and π bonds are in acetylene, C2H2?
A. 1 σ and 1 π
B. 2 σ and 1 π
C. 2 σ and 3 π
D. 3 σ and 2 π

A

D. 3 σ and 2 π

207
Q

Which of the following compounds contain the ester functional group?
A. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
B. CH3CH2OCH2CH3
C. CH3CO2CH2CH3
D. CH3COCH2CH3

A

C. CH3CO2CH2CH3

208
Q

Rank the following carbon-carbon bonds in order of increasing bond strength.
A. C=C < C-C < C≡C
B. C-C < C=C < C≡C
C. C≡C < C=C < C-C
D. C-C < C≡C < C=C

A

B. C-C < C=C < C≡C

209
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for an optically active compound?
A. The molecular configuration is chiral.
B. The molecular configuration is achiral.
C. The compound is a racemic mixture of enantiomers.
D. The molecular configuration must have two or more stereogenic centers.

A

A. The molecular configuration is chiral.

210
Q

All of the following are powerful electrophiles EXCEPT
A. (CH3)3C^+
B. NO2^+
C. BH3
D. NH3

A

D. NH3

211
Q

Electrocyclic, cycloaddition, and sigmatropic reactions are examples of which type of reaction?
A. Addition
B. Substitution
C. Pericyclic
D. Redox

A

C. Pericyclic

212
Q

Hexane, CH14, exists as ___ at room temperature.
A. solid
B. liquid
C. gas
D. none of the above

A

B. liquid

213
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Octane has a lower boiling point than 2,2,4-trimethylpentane.
B. Octane has a higher boiling point than 2,2,4-trimethylpentane.
C. Octane and 2,2,4-trimethylpentane have the same boiling points.
D. Both octane and 2,2,4-trimethylpentane exhibit dipole-dipole intermolecular forces.

A

B. Octane has a higher boiling point than 2,2,4-trimethylpentane.

214
Q

How many constitutional isomers are possible for C6H14?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

A

A. 5

215
Q

Which of the following is a property of unsaturated hydrocarbons?
A. Unsaturated and saturated hydrocarbons have similar melting
B. Unsaturated hydrocarbons form a less compact structure; thus, they have lower melting points.
C. Unsaturated hydrocarbons form a more compact structure; thus, they have lower melting points.
D. Unsaturated hydrocarbons form a more compact structure; thus, they have higher melting points.

A

B. Unsaturated hydrocarbons form a less compact structure; thus, they have lower melting points.

216
Q

Aromatic compounds undergo substitution reactions instead of addition reactions because
A. the benzene ring is electron rich.
B. the hydrogens of benzene are relatively loosely bound.
C. the benzene ring is sterically crowded hence only substitution can occur.
D. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable aromatic π system remains intact.

A

D. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable aromatic π system remains intact.

217
Q

Which of the following substituents is NOT an ortho, para directing group in an EAS reaction?
A. -CI
B. -OH
C. -NO2
D. -CH3

A

C. -NO2

218
Q

Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN2 reaction most readily?
A. 1-chloropentane
B. 2-chloropentane
C. 2-chloro-3-methylbutane
D. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane

A

A. 1-chloropentane

219
Q

Which alkyl halides will form the most stable carbocation in an SN1 reaction?
A. 1-chloropentane
B. 2-chloropentane
C. 2-chloro-3-methylbutane
D. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane

A

D. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane

220
Q

How is the rate affected when the concentration of the nucleophile is doubled in an SN1 reaction?
A. The rate is halved.
B. The rate is doubled.
C. The rate quadruples.
D. The rate is unchanged.

A

D. The rate is unchanged.

221
Q

Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing boiling point?
A. 2,2-dimethylbutane, n-hexane, 2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol, 1-pentanol
B. n-hexane, 2,2-dimethylbutane, 2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol, 1-pentanol
C. 2,2-dimethylbutane, n-hexane, 1-pentanol, 2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol
D. n-hexane, 2,2-dimethylbutane, 1-pentanol, 2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol

A

A. 2,2-dimethylbutane, n-hexane, 2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol, 1-pentanol

222
Q

Dehydration of an alcohol yields a/an
A. alkene
B. alkyne
C. aldehyde
D. ketone

A

A. alkene

223
Q

Which of the following will react with aqueous NaOH?
A. 1-butanol
B. 2-butanol
C. phenol
D. tert-butanol

A

C. phenol

224
Q

C in the carbonyl group is electrophilic, thus, aldehydes and ketones undergo which type of reaction?
A. Electrophilic addition
B. Nucleophilic addition
C. Electrophilic substitution
D. Nucleophilic substitution

A

B. Nucleophilic addition

225
Q

Methanal is used as
A. fuel
B. antiseptic
C. preservative
D. refrigerant

A

C. preservative

226
Q

Aldehydes and ketones react with Grignard reagents to form
A. alkanes
B. alkenes
C. alcohols
D. ethers

A

C. alcohols

227
Q

Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
A. butane
B. propanal
C.1-propanal
D. acetic acid

A

D. acetic acid

228
Q
A
229
Q

Which of the following will react with aqueous NaOH?
A. butane
B. propanal
C. 1-propanol
D. acetic acid

A

D. acetic acid

230
Q

What do malic, citric, and tartaric acids have in common?
A. They are keto acids.
B. They are found in fruits.
C. They are chiral molecules.
D. They contain aromatic rings.

A

B. They are found in fruits.

231
Q

What is formed when an alcohol reacts with a carboxylic acid in the presence of an acid catalyst?
A. anhydride
B. acid chloride
C. ester
D. ether

A

C. ester

232
Q

All of the following amines can form hydrogen bonds with itself EXCEPT
A. aniline
B. ethyl amine
C. isopropyl amine
D. trimethyl amine

A

D. trimethyl amine

233
Q

The most abundant carbohydrate found in nature is
A. chitin
B. starch
C. glycogen
D. cellulose

A

D. cellulose

234
Q

Which of the following functional groups in simple sugars is responsible for their solubility in water?
A. -OH
B. -NH2
C. -PO4
D. -COOH

A

A. -OH

235
Q

All of the following statements about carbohydrates are true EXCEPT
A. Cellulose gives rigidity to plant stems and tree trunks.
B. Starch is the main carbohydrate in the seeds and roots of plants.
C. Starch and cellulose are both monosaccharides.
D. Fructose, a sugar found in fruits, is a ketohexose.

A

C. Starch and cellulose are both monosaccharides.

236
Q
  1. All of the following are monosaccharides EXCEPT
    A. glucose
    B. lactose
    C. galactose
    D. fructose
A

B. lactose

237
Q

They are the simplest hydrolyzable lipids formed from a high molecular weight alcohol and fatty acid.
A. waxes
B. triglycerides
C. sphingolipids
D. phospholipids

A

A. waxes

238
Q

Which of the following lipids contain a ceramide unit?
A. waxes
B. triacylgycerols
C. sphingomyelins
D. phosphoacylglycerols

A

C. sphingomyelins

239
Q

Arrange the following fatty acids in order of increasing melting point: oleic, stearic, palmitic, linoleic acid
A. oleic <linoleic < palmitic < stearic acid
B. linoleic < oleic < palmitic < stearic acid
C. linoleic < oleic < stearic acid < palmitic
D. oleic <linoleic < stearic acid < palmitic

A

B. linoleic < oleic < palmitic < stearic acid

240
Q

Biochemical compounds can be classified as hydrophilic, hydrophobic, or amphipathic. Classify the following compounds: glucose, stearic acid, soap.
A. Amphipathic, amphipathic, hydrophobic
B. Hydrophilic, amphipathic, hydrophobic
C. Hydrophilic, hydrophobic, amphipathic
D. Hydrophobic, hydrophilic, amphipathic

A

C. Hydrophilic, hydrophobic, amphipathic

241
Q

All of the following amino acids have basic side chains EXCEPT
A. Lysine
B. Leucine
C. Arginine
D. Histidine

A

B. Leucine

242
Q

Taurine iis a β-amino acid that may act as an antioxidant, calcium modulator, and vasodilator. Which of the following acidic groups is present in taurine?
A. -SOзH
B. -COOH
C. Phenol
D. -C≡C-H

A

A. -SOзH

243
Q

Which of the following amino acid sequences is most likely to be found as part of an amphipathic antiparallel ẞ-sheet on the protein surface?
A. Lys-Arg-His-Lys-Asp-His-Arg-Lys
B. Lys-Leu-Arg-lle-Lys-Ala-Arg-Val
C. Ala-Val-Leu-lle-Phe-Trp-Ala-Val
D. Lys-Asp-Lys-Asp-Lys-Asp-Lys-Asp

A

B. Lys-Leu-Arg-lle-Lys-Ala-Arg-Val

244
Q

In Anfinsen’s experiment on protein refolding, which of the following sequences did the enzyme regained enzymatic activity?
A. oxidize, remove urea, reduce, add urea
B. oxidize, reduce, add urea, remove urea
C. reduce, add urea, oxidize, remove urea
D. reduce, add urea, remove urea, oxidize

A

D. reduce, add urea, remove urea, oxidize

245
Q

Which of the following account(s) for the stability of the double helical structure of DNA?
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Electrostatic interactions
C. Van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

246
Q

The O-H in the ribose of ___ makes the molecule more reactive. ___ is not stable under alkaline conditions, plus the large grooves in the molecule make it susceptible to enzyme attack. ___ is constantly produced, used, degraded, and recycled.
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. ATP
D. NAD

A

B. RNA

247
Q

A gas inside a flask is put in a liquid nitrogen bath. Which of the following will happen?
A. The temperature and pressure increase.
B. The temperature increases and the pressure decreases.
C. The temperature decreases and the pressure increases.
D. The temperature and pressure decrease.

A

D. The temperature and pressure decrease.

248
Q

Which condition does NOT indicate a predominance of repulsive forces?
A. Z = 1.0053
B. ϕ = 1.0075
C. μJT = 0.24 K/atm
D. None of the these

A

C. μJT = 0.24 K/atm

249
Q

It is the maximum non-expansion work that can be extracted from a reversible isobaric process.
A. Gibbs free energy
B. Helmholtz free energy
C. Entropy
D. Internal energy

A

A. Gibbs free energy

249
Q

For a generic cubic equation, the middle root is
A. liquid-like
B. vapor-like
C. liquid-vapor-like
D. insignificant

A

D. insignificant

250
Q

Free energy changes for two reaction mechanisms X and Y are -15 and -5, respectively. It implies that X is
A. slower than Y
B. faster than Y
C. three times slower than Y
D. three times faster than Y

A

B. faster than Y

251
Q

What are the signs of AG, AH, and AS of the vaporization of water?
A. +,-,+
B. +,-,0
C. -,+,+
D. -,+,0

A

C. -,+,+

252
Q

Which is equivalent to (​​∂U/∂S)v?
A. enthalpy
B. temperature
C. pressure
D. heat

A

B. temperature

253
Q

The max number of phases that can be at equilibrium with each other in a 2-component mixture is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

C. 4

254
Q

The state of a substance is initially at its triple point. If the pressure is increased, what will happen to the triple point?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. depends on the substance

A

C. remain the same

255
Q

Consider a solution containing a mole of toluene and a hundred moles of benzene (Kf: 5.12°C/m, Kb: 2.65°C/m, melting point: 5.5°C, liquefaction point: 80.1°C). What is the freezing point of the solution?
A. 4.84°C
B. 4.99°C
C. 5.28°C
D. 5.43°C

A

A. 4.84°C
Use ΔTf=kfm

256
Q

The following are the major classification of materials, EXCEPT
A. Metals
B. Metal alloys
C. Polymers
D. Ceramics

A

B. Metal alloys

257
Q

Allotropes differ in which of the following properties?
A. Atomic number
B. Atomic mass
C. Crystal structure
D. Electronegativity

A

C. Crystal structure

258
Q

Crystalline solids are most stable if their atoms are arranged in ___ manner.
A. Nondense, random packing
B. Nondense, ordered packing
C. Dense, random packing
D. Dense, ordered packing

A

D. Dense, ordered packing

259
Q

A set of properties that relate to the chemical reactivity of materials.
A. Mechanical properties
B. Thermal properties
C. Optical properties
D. Deteriorative properties

A

D. Deteriorative properties

260
Q

How many atoms are there in one unit cell of HCP lattice?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

A

D. 6

261
Q

Density is the ratio of the mass of crystal to its volume. For a perfect FCC metallic crystal, the mass of a unit cell is 4 times mo. mo is equal to the ___.
A. Specific mass
B. Molar mass
C. Atomic mass
D. Both B and C

A

C. Atomic mass

262
Q

Percentage elongation of a material is a measure of its
A. Ductility
B. Brittleness
C. Toughness
D. Malleability

A

A. Ductility

263
Q

Efficiency of packing is maximum in case of ___ crystal lattice.
A. Simple cubic
B. Face-centered
C. Body-centered
D. None of these

A

B. Face-centered

264
Q

Which of the following is/are a type/s of engineering materials and is a metal?
A. Asbestos
B. Ferrous metals
C. Non-ferrous metals
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

265
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of alloy steels?
A. Improves ductility
B. Improves machinability
C. Improves strength
D. Reduces cost

A

D. Reduces cost

266
Q

Alumina is classified under what type of materials?
A. Metals
B. Polymers
C. Ceramics
D. Composites

A

C. Ceramics

267
Q

Which of the following is the primary element used for making stainless steel alloy?
A. V
B. In
C. Cr
D. Zn

A

C. Cr

268
Q

For a ceramic compound, what are the two characteristics of the component ions that determine the crystal structure?
A. The nature of bonding between ions
B. The magnitude of the electrical charge on each ion
C. The relative sizes of the cations and anions
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

269
Q

The process of heat softening, molding and colling to rigidness can be repeated for which type of plastics?
A. Thermoplastics
B. Thermosetting plastics
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

A. Thermoplastics

270
Q

Polymer which consists of 2 or more different repeat units are called
A. Homopolymer
B. Copolymer
C. Linear polymer
D. Natural polymer

A

B. Copolymer

271
Q

When germanium metal is doped with a little amount of In, what does one get?
A. Intrinsic semiconductor
B. Insulator
C. n-type semiconductor
D. p-type semiconductor

A

D. p-type semiconductor

272
Q

Which of the following, when added as an impurity into the silicon lattice, produces an n-type semiconductor?
A. P
B. Al
c. Mg
D. S

A

A. P

273
Q

An act control toxic substances and hazardous and nuclear wastes, providing penalties for violations thereof, and for other purposes.
A. RA 9003
B. RA 8749
C. RA 6969
D. RA 3931

A

C. RA 6969

274
Q

This administrative order classifies water bodies into five classes for inland fresh waters and four classes for marine and coastal water.
A. DAO 2016-08
B. DAO 35
C. DAO 34
D. DAO 2016-80

A

A. DAO 2016-08

275
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hazardous waste?
A. Ignitability
B. Corrosivity
C. Reactivity
D. Radioactivity

A

D. Radioactivity

276
Q

Which of the following processes are used to desalinate water?
A. Reverse osmosis and electrodialysis
B. Distillation and chlorination
C. Liquid extraction and filtration
D. Freeze drying and centrifugation

A

A. Reverse osmosis and electrodialysis

277
Q

Organisms that make their own food using inorganic carbon and use light energy to utilize their food.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemoautotroph
C. Phototrophs
D. Photo-lithoautotrophs

A

D. Photo-lithoautotrophs

278
Q

Occurs within an organism, where the concentration of a substance builds in the tissues and is absorbed faster than it is removed.
A. Bioamplification
B. Biomagnification
C. Bioaccumulation
D. Bioconcentration

A

C. Bioaccumulation

279
Q

A condition caused by excessive exposure to silver dust
A. Argyria
B. Itai-itai disease
C. Devon colic
D. Minamata disease

A

A. Argyria

280
Q

Which of the following pesticides has the lowest MCL?
A. Lindane
B. Heptachlor
C. Benzene
D. Dichloromethane

A

A. Lindane - 0.02 ppb

281
Q

The condition of the atmosphere where temperature actually increases with altitude near the ground before it begins to decrease with altitude.
A. Adiabatic
B. Subadiabatic
C. Inverted
D. Superadiabatic

A

C. Inverted

282
Q

In what part of the atmosphere does weather conditions occur?
A. Troposphere
B. Thermosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Stratosphere

A

A. Troposphere

283
Q

What type of pollution control equipment device should be installed in a cement plant in order to control the very hot emission of gases and element dust fine particulates?
A. Baghouse and cyclone
B. ESP, baghouse, venture scrubber, cyclones
C. ESP
D. ESP and venture scrubber

A

C. ESP

284
Q

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A. CH4
B. H2O
C. O2
D. O3

A

C. O2

285
Q

The process of that involves predicting and evaluating the likely impacts of a project on the environment during its life cycle?
A. EIA
B. EMS
C. ERA
D. LCA

A

A. EIA

286
Q

Environmental management systems pertain to what ISO series?
A. 9000
B. 7000
C. 14000
D. 16000

A

C. 14000

287
Q

Which of the following activities under agriculture, forestry and land use has the highest GHG emissions compared to others?
A. Livestock and manure management
B. Deforestation
C. Land-use conversion
D. Crop burning

A

A. Livestock and manure management

288
Q

Which equation is used to model microbial growth?
A. Michaelis-Menten
B. Freundlich
C. Langmuir
D. Monod

A

D. Monod

289
Q

The del factor increases when the final cell number
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. reached zero

A

B. decreases

290
Q

The Monod model predicts that the specific growth rate
A. will increase with the concentration of the growth limiting substrate until it reaches a maximum value
B. will decrease with the concentration of the growth limiting substrate
C. will increase with the concentration of the growth limiting substrate
D. does not depend on growth limiting substrate

A

A. will increase with the concentration of the growth limiting substrate until it reaches a maximum value

291
Q

Which of the statement is true for continuous reactor at steady state?
A. The rates of biomass, substrate and product concentrations are zero.
B. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations are zero.
C. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations do not change with time.
D. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations change with time.

A

C. Biomass, substrate and product concentrations do not change with time.

292
Q

Which subatomic particle determines the chemical properties of an atom?
A. proton
B. neutron
C. electron
D. nucleus

A

C. electron

293
Q

Which is NOT always a hint that could indicate a chemical change?
A. change in color
B. change in temperature
C. change in odor
D. change in shape

A

D. change in shape

294
Q

Which of the following rules and principles is violated in this electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2px2 2py1 2pz0?
A. Hund’s rule
B. Madelung rule
C. Aufbau principle
D. Pauli’s exclusion principle

A

A. Hund’s rule

295
Q

What is the arrangement of Li, Na, K, and Rb in decreasing ionization energy?
A. Rb > K > Na > Li
B. Li > Na > K > Rb
C. Li > Rb > Na > K
D. K > Rb > Li > Na

A

B. Li > Na > K > Rb

296
Q

Which of the following is the incorrect correspondence?
A. alkali metals: naturally found in salts
B. noble gases: most are unreactive
C. halogens: most are in diatomic form
D. pnictogens: have three valence electrons

A

D. pnictogens: have three valence electrons

297
Q

What is the percent oxygen in sugar of lead?
A. 8%
B. 17%
C. 21%
D. 30%

A

D. 30%

298
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Heavier, more stable nuclei somewhat larger numbers of protons than neutrons.
B. Unstable nuclei do not spontaneously change to nuclei with stable configuration.
C. Usually, lighter stable nuclei have equal numbers of neutrons and protons.
D. Nuclei can never have an equal number of protons and neutrons.

A

C. Usually, lighter stable nuclei have equal numbers of neutrons and protons.

299
Q

What is the oxidation number of sulfur in sulfuric acid?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

A

D. 6

300
Q

What should you do before using a chemical for the first time?
A. Store it in a secure location.
B. Read and understand the label and MSDS.
C. Mix it with other chemicals to enhance its properties.
D. Dispose of any excess chemicals.

A

B. Read and understand the label and MSDS.

301
Q

Which of the following is correctly paired with its hazard signal?
A. Yellow: fire hazard
B. Blue: reactivity
C. Red: health hazard
D. White: specific hazard

A

D. White: specific hazard

302
Q

Residual relatively dilute sulfuric acid waste must be stored in _________ drums.
A. Polyethylene
B. Metal
C. Fiber
D. Glass

A

A. Polyethylene

303
Q

Which of the following is not an oxidizing gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Methane
C. Chlorine
D. Bromine

A

B. Methane

304
Q

Which of the following is a stimulus of explosion?
A. Heat
B. Impact
C. Friction
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

305
Q

A body moves in a wave behavior governed by the wave function x=4sin(2t), where x is in meters and t is in seconds. What is the period of the motion?
A. 1/2 s
B. 2 s
C. π s
D. π/2 s

A

C. π s

306
Q

It states that the current induced in a circuit due to a change in a magnetic field is directed to oppose the change in flux and to exert a mechanical force which opposes the motion.
A. Pascal’s Law
B. Tesla’s Law
C. Henry’s Law
D. Lenz’s Law

A

D. Lenz’s Law

307
Q

The magnetic field of a solenoid can be increased by decreasing which of the following?
A. number of turns
B. length of the coil
C. passing current
D. none of these

A

B. length of the coil

308
Q

Which of the following is true?
A. The largest speed value is the most probable speed.
B. The RMS velocity is greater than the average speed.
C. The average velocity is the average of the most probable and RMS speeds.
D. All of the above.

A

B. The RMS velocity is greater than the average speed.

309
Q

Which of the following is a possible unit of fugacity?
A. J/N
B. Wm³
C. mmHg
D. unitless

A

C. mmHg

310
Q

Which of the following is TRUE at extremely high temperatures?
A. The chemical potential of solid, liquid, and gas are all equal.
B. The chemical potential of the gas is the lowest.
C. Solid is the most stable phase.
D. None of the above.

A

B. The chemical potential of the gas is the lowest.

311
Q

At the critical point of a substance:
A. The surface tension vanishes.
B. Liquid and vapor have the same density.
C. There is no distinction between liquid and vapor phases.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

312
Q

It is a constant temperature at which a liquid mixture also has constant composition and during distillation.
A. azeotropic temperature
B. peritectic temperature
C. eutectic temperature
D. consolute temperature

A

A. azeotropic temperature

313
Q

Sub-freezing is a process at which water vapor in air directly turns to ice. At which condition will the process be spontaneous?
A. at any temperature
B. at high temperature
C. at low temperature
D. none of the above

A

C. at low temperature

314
Q

Solid BBN-triflate (9-Borabicyclo[3.3.1]nonyl trifluoromethanesulfonate) does not exist commonly, however, it is commercially available as solution dissolved in hexane. Which of the following is true?
A. The entropy of the hexane is greater than that of the solution.
B. Mixing naturally occurs if the solution produced heat upon mixing.
C. The interaction of hexane molecules is greater than that of hexane with BBN-triflate.
D. All of the above.

A

B. Mixing naturally occurs if the solution produced heat upon mixing.

315
Q

Classify each as a strong, weak, or non-electrolyte: KCl, NaOH, HCl, (NH4)3PO4, C2H5O (ethanol).
A. strong, strong, strong, weak, non
B. weak, strong, strong, weak, non
C. strong, strong, strong, non, non
D. weak, weak, strong, weak, non

A

A. strong, strong, strong, weak, non

316
Q

Which among the following acids is the strongest?
A. HBrO
B. HBrO2
C. HBrO3
D. HBrO4

A

D. HBrO4

317
Q

Which of the following statement is(are) TRUE?
I. Cycloalkanes are saturated hydrocarbons.
II. Hexane and cyclohexane are constitutional isomers.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

A. I only

318
Q

Heterocycles are cyclic compounds that contain a heteroatom. Which of the following is a pair of heterocycles?
A. benzaldehyde and acetophenone
B. acetic anhydride and butyric anhydride
C. furan and pyran
D. none of the above

A

D. none of the above

319
Q

The compound is (Z)-9-tetradecenoyl acetate is used in the fragrance and flavor industry. How many carbons are there in this compound?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18

A

C. 16

320
Q

Which of the following is(are) TRUE?
I. R and S indicates the configuration of atoms bonded on the chiral center.
II. (+) and (-) indicates the configuration of atoms bonded on the chiral center.
III. R and S indicates the property of enantiomers on how they rotate plane-polarized light.
IV. (+) and (-) indicates the property of enantiomers on how they rotate plane-polarized light.
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. None of the statements is true.

A

C. I and IV only

321
Q

What is the major product when methylbutane undergoes bromination under UV light?
A. 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
B. 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
C. 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
D. 2-bromo-3-methylbutane

A

C. 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

322
Q

The transformation shown below is carried out by which of the following reagents?
CH3CH2CH=CH2 → CH3CH2CH2C(OH)H2
A. KOH
B. BH3/THF then H2O2, NaOH
C. Hg(CH3COO)2/H2O then NaBH4
D. H2O, H2SO4

A

D. H2O, H2SO4

323
Q

Which of the following substrates will most likely give carboxylic acid and carbon dioxide products when subjected to hot acidic KMnO4?
A. an alkane
B. a diene
C. an internal alkyne
D. a terminal alkyne

A

D. a terminal alkyne

324
Q

What is the major product when an alkyl halide reacts with hydroxy group (strong base)?
A. alkene
B. alcohol
C. ether
D. ester

A

A. alkene

325
Q

It is the “protein part” of the enzyme.
A. apoenzyme
B. coenzyme
C. holoenzyme
D. none of the above

A

A. apoenzyme

326
Q

Which has a higher melting point?
I. a triglyceride containing only lauric acid and glycerol
II. a triglyceride containing only stearic acid and glycerol
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II have equal melting points
D. Incomplete information

A

B. II only

327
Q

Amylose and amylopectin are principal storage polysaccharides in ______.
A. plants
B. animals
C. bacteria
D. mollusks

A

A. plants

328
Q

How many pyruvate molecules are made for every molecule of glucose that undergoes glycolysis?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

B. 2

329
Q

How many different tetrapeptides can be made (a) if the peptides contain the residues of Asparagine, Proline, Serine, and Methionine and (b) if all 20 amino acids are used?
A. 16 and 400
B. 80 and 256
C. 256 and 160,000
D. Insufficient information

A

C. 256 and 160,000

330
Q

The maximum specific growth rate of an organism depends on:
A. Medium composition
B. Temperature
C. pH
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

331
Q

Concentration of the growth limiting substrate means:
A. Trace elements concentration
B. The concentration of the substrate that controls the growth rate of the cells
C. Sugar concentration in the fermentation medium
D. Dissolved oxygen concentration

A

B. The concentration of the substrate that controls the growth rate of the cells

332
Q

For organisms growing in a chemostat, the specific growth rate:
A. Cannot be determined
B. Can be determined from the dilution rate
C. Equals to the maximum specific growth rate of the culture
D. None of the above

A

B. Can be determined from the dilution rate

333
Q

A psychrophilic halophile would be a microbe that prefers:
A. Cold temperatures and increased amounts of salt
B. Warm temperatures and increased amounts of pressure
C. Cold temperatures and the absence of oxygen
D. Warm temperatures and increased amounts of acid

A

A. Cold temperatures and increased amounts of salt

334
Q

The Monod Model relates:
A. substrate utilized with the biomass consumption
B. specific growth rate to the substrate available
C. yield with the biomass utilization
D. the biomass concentration with specific growth rate

A

B. specific growth rate to the substrate available

335
Q

The effect where combination of pollutants that alone cause no damage produce acute effects when combined:
A. Interdependency
B. Joint pollution
C. Synergism
D. Pollution retention

A

C. Synergism

336
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of disposing waste heat into water bodies?
A. Increased rate of oxygen depletion
B. Increased solubility of carbon dioxide
C. Enhanced coral bleaching
D. Decreased solubility of oxygen

A

B. Increased solubility of carbon dioxide

337
Q

The ozone layer, situated in the Earth’s stratosphere, acts as a natural shield against harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun. Composed of ozone molecules, it plays a critical role in safeguarding life on our planet by filtering out the majority of UV radiation, thus protecting humans, animals, and ecosystems from its adverse effects. However, human activities, particularly the release of ozone-depleting substances like chlorofluorocarbons, have significantly weakened this protective layer. In what layer of the atmosphere is the ozone layer located?
A. Stratasphere
B. Troposphere
C. Thermosphere
D. Stratosphere

A

D. Stratosphere

338
Q

Trickling filters, RBCs, activated sludge processes are secondary treatment units with _______ decomposition; septic tanks and Imhoff tanks operate with _______ decomposition.
A. aerobic, aerobic
B. aerobic, anaerobic
C. anaerobic, aerobic
D. anaerobic, anaerobic

A

B. aerobic, anaerobic

339
Q

A highly elastic material is deformed least on loading and retains its original form on removal of the load. Which of the following is the most elastic material?
A. Steel
B. Glass
C. Rubber
D. Brass

A

A. Steel

340
Q

What is the ultimate strength of a material?
A. The maximum load that a material can withstand before it fractures or breaks.
B. The load that a material can bear over a long period of time without deforming.
C. The maximum load that a material can bear without permanent deformation.
D. The load that a material can bear without yielding.

A

A. The maximum load that a material can withstand before it fractures or breaks.

341
Q

Materials having __________ lattice structure are usually the most ductile.
A. Body-centered cubic (BCC)
B. hexagonal close packed (HCP)
C. face-centered cubic (FCC)
D. none of these

A

C. face-centered cubic (FCC)

342
Q

Fiberglass is a composite material of:
A. Glass fiber in a polymer matrix
B. Glass fiber in a metallic matrix
C. Polymer fiber in a glassy matrix
D. Both B & C

A

A. Glass fiber in a polymer matrix

343
Q

Ceramic compounds as compared to metallic compounds:
A. Crystallize faster
B. Resist greater tensile stress at room temperature
C. Have higher melting temperature
D. Are better conductor of electricity at higher temperature

A

C. Have higher melting temperature

344
Q

What are the components of acid rain?
A. Nitric acid and sulfuric acid
B. Carbonic acid and sulfuric acid
C. Nitrous acid and sulfurous acid
D. Acetic acid and sulfurous acid

A

A. Nitric acid and sulfuric acid

345
Q

What is the most oxidized product involved in the nitrogen cycle?
A. Nitrite
B. Nitrate
C. Ammonia
D. Nitrogen gas

A

B. Nitrate

346
Q

Shallow oxidation ponds with oxygen on all levels
A. Anaerobic
B. Facultative
C. Aerobic
D. None of these.

A

C. Aerobic

347
Q

An air pollution control device that removes particulate matter from industrial exhaust gases by using electrostatic forces to charge particles, causing them to adhere to collection plates or electrodes.
A. RBC
B. ESP
C. Trickling Filter
D. Baghouse Filter

A

B. ESP

348
Q

The continuous application of an integrated preventative environmental strategy applied to processes, products, and services to increase overall efficiency and reduce risks to humans and the environment.
A. Eco-Efficiency
B. Cleaner Production
C. Zero Emissions
D. Circular Economy

A

B. Cleaner Production

349
Q

Which of the following sets of gases are considered as greenhouse gas?
A. H2O, O2, CO2
B. CO2, H2O, SF6
C. CH4, N2, O3
D. N2O, SF6, O2

A

B. CO2, H2O, SF6

350
Q

The three pillars of sustainable development are
A. Inclusivity, interaction, infinity
B. transparency, adaptation, conservation
C. social, economic, environmental
D. plan, people, profit

A

C. social, economic, environmental

351
Q

Which of the following biological treatment is not aerobic?
A. Activated sludge
B. RBCs
C. Imhoff tank
D. Trickling filter

A

C. Imhoff tank

352
Q

A systematic analysis of the potential environmental impacts of a good or service over the entire period of its life
A. Life cycle analysis
B. Environmental risk assessment
C. Environmental management systems
D. Environmental impact assessment

A

A. Life cycle analysis

353
Q

This evaluates the potential impacts of specific projects or plans on the environment and communities in a particular location.
A. Life cycle analysis
B. Environmental risk assessment
C. Environmental management systems
D. Environmental impact assessment

A

D. Environmental impact assessment

354
Q

Which of the following is not considered as a major pollutant of concern from combustion, based on RA 8749?
A. Particulate matter
B. Carbon monoxide
C. SOx and NOx
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

355
Q
  1. Which of the following is(are) TRUE?
    I. The pH of 0.10 M HCl is the same as the pH of 0.10 M acetic acid.
    II. Carbonic acid is a strong acid.
    III. Ammonia is a strong base.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. III only
    D. All statements are false.
A

D. All statements are false.

356
Q

Which of the following is(are) FALSE?
I. Pyruvic acid (pKa 2.49) is a stronger acid than lactic acid (pKa 3.08).
II. 0.10 M acetic acid is more acidic than 0.10 M ascorbic acid (pKa 4.1).
III. Benzoic acid is more soluble in a basic solution than in pure water.
IV. The greater the concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base, the greater the buffer capacity.
A. II only
B. III only
C. IV only
D. I and II

A

A. II only

357
Q

Which of the following is true about hard water?
A. A common example of hard water is rain water.
B. Hard water contains no or extremely small amount of minerals.
C. It is easy to produce bubbles using hard water.
D. After boiling hard water, white solid residue can be observed.

A

D. After boiling hard water, white solid residue can be observed.

358
Q

What is the first organic compound synthesized from an inorganic material (from heating of ammonium cyanate) by Friedrich Wöhler?
A. urea
B. ammonia
C. acetonitrile
D. cyanohydrin

A

A. urea

359
Q

Camphor has a wide variety of uses: incense component, insect repellant, air freshener, and many more. What is the chemical formula of camphor?
A. C8H16O
B. C9H14O2
C. C10H16O
D. C10H16O2

A

C. C10H16O

360
Q

Paranaphthalene is also called:
A. naphthalene
B. paraffin
C. amylene
D. anthracene

A

D. anthracene

361
Q

Which of the following is a “sweet-smelling” substance?
A. ammonia
B. alcohol
C. ester
D. paraffin

A

C. ester

362
Q

Isobutane and n-butane are _____ isomers.
A. optional
B. chain
C. positional
D. functional

A

B. chain

363
Q

. What is the degree of unsaturation of benzene?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

364
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
A. A chiral center is a carbon atom with three different atoms or groups attached to it.
B. Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers that are chiral. They are non-superimposable mirror images of each other.
C. Diastereomers have the same physical properties except that they rotate plane-polarized light in opposite directions.
D. Cis-trans isomers, also geometric isomers, exist when there is allowed rotation in a molecule and there are three or four non-identical groups on each doubly-bonded carbon.

A

B. Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers that are chiral. They are non-superimposable mirror images of each other.

365
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about a racemic mixture?
A. It contains 50-50 mixture of two enantiomers.
B. It is optically inactive.
C. It is said to have been resolved, if the enantiomers are separated.
D. None of the above.

A

D. None of the above.

366
Q

A large number of chiral drugs are sold as racemic mixtures. The popular analgesic ibuprofen (active ingredient in Motrin and Advil) is an example. Which of the following statements correctly describes a racemic mixture?
A. It contains equal amounts of enantiomers.
B. It contains equal amounts of cis and trans isomers.
C. It contains equal amounts of alpha and beta anomers.
D. It contains equal amounts of all constitutional isomers.

A

A. It contains equal amounts of enantiomers.

367
Q

Arrange these alkanes in order of increasing boiling point:
2-methylheptane, octane, and 2,2,4-trimethylpentane
A. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane < 2-methylheptane < octane
B. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane < 2-methylheptane = octane
C. octane < 2-methylheptane < 2,2,4-trimethylpentane
D. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane < octane < 2-methylheptane

A

A. 2,2,4-trimethylpentane < 2-methylheptane < octane

368
Q

Which of the following cycloalkanes is the MOST stable?
A. cyclopropane
B. cyclobutane
C. cyclopentane
D. cyclohexane

A

D. cyclohexane

369
Q

Acidic hydrogen is present in:
A. ethyne
B. ethene
C. benzene
D. ethane

A

A. ethyne

370
Q

What is the product when an alkyne is reacted with one molar equivalent of hydrogen using Lindlar’s catalyst?
A. an alkane
B. a cis alkene
C. a trans alkene
D. an alcohol

A

B. a cis alkene

371
Q

An alcohol underwent Jones oxidation. Which of the following is the major product of the reaction?
A. an alkane
B. an alkene
C. an aldehyde or ketone
D. a carboxylic acid

A

D. a carboxylic acid

372
Q

Arrange these compounds in order of decreasing solubility in water:
hexane, 1-hexanol, 1,2-hexanediol, hexane
A. hexane > 1-hexanol > 1,2-hexanediol > hexane
B. hexane > 1-hexanol = 1,2-hexanediol
C. 1,2-hexanediol > 1-hexanol > hexane
D. 1,2-hexanediol > hexane = 1-hexanol

A

C. 1,2-hexanediol > 1-hexanol > hexane

373
Q

Identify the starting materials needed to synthesize acetylsalicylic acid.
A. salicylic acid and formic acid
B. salicylic acid and acetic anhydride
C. salicylic acid and ethyl acetate
D. salicylic acid and acetamide

A

B. salicylic acid and acetic anhydride

374
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A. tamarind: tartaric acid
B. sour milk: lactic acid
C. ant sting: formic acid
D. lemon: oxalic acid

A

D. lemon: oxalic acid

375
Q

A four-membered lactam is essential to the functioning of the penicillin and cephalosporin antibiotics. A lactam is a cyclic
A. amine
B. amide
C. ester
D. ether

A

B. amide

376
Q

Alkaloids are basic nitrogen-containing compounds found in the roots, bark, leaves, berries, or fruits of plants. In almost all alkaloids, the nitrogen atom is part of a ring. Which set of compounds are alkaloids?
A. atropine, cocaine, morphine
B. benzedrine, methedrine, fastin
C. purine, pyridine, pyrimidine
D. epinephrine, acetylcholine, serotonin

A

A. atropine, cocaine, morphine

377
Q

Enzymes are
A. proteins with high molecular weight (around 10,000).
B. derived from living organisms.
C. catalyst for temperature sensitive reactions.
D. all (a), (b) and (c).

A

D. all (a), (b) and (c).

378
Q

Which of the following amino acids has three ionizable groups?
A. glycine
B. leucine
C. valine
D. lysine

A

D. lysine

379
Q

Tranquilizers are compounds that act as central nervous system sedatives or hypnotics. As sedatives, they diminish activity and excitement, thereby exerting a calming effect. As hypnotics, they produce drowsiness and sleep. Which of the following drugs are tranquilizers?
A. Ibuprofen (Advil) and Paracetamol (Biogistic)
B. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and Diazepam (Valium)
C. Celecoxib (Celebrex) and Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
D. Procaine (Novocain) and Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A

B. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and Diazepam (Valium)

380
Q

Most neurotransmitters are either small amine molecules, amino acids, or neuropeptides. What is the first neurotransmitter to be discovered? It plays a major role in the peripheral nervous system, where it is released by motor neurons and neurons of the autonomic nervous system.
A. acetylcholine
B. serotonin
C. histamine
D. dopamine

A

A. acetylcholine

381
Q

Which of the following is not a step in the TCA cycle?
A. citrate is rearranged to form isocitrate
B. isocitrate loses a molecule of carbon dioxide then undergoes oxidation to form alpha-ketoglutarate
C. alpha-ketoglutarate loses a molecule of carbon dioxide and is oxidized to form succiny-CoA
D. oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-CoA

A

D. oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl-CoA

382
Q

Which of the following is not a hexose?
A. glucose
B. idose
C. mannose
D. arabinose

A

D. arabinose

383
Q

Calculate the amount of lactate produced from 3 mol of glucose.
A. 1 mol glucose produces 0.5 mol lactate, so 3 mol glucose will give rise to 1.5 mol lactate.
B. 1 mol glucose produces 1 mol lactate, so 3 mol glucose will give rise to 3 mol lactate.
C. 1 mol glucose produces 2 mol lactate, so 3 mol glucose will give rise to 6 mol lactate.
D. Lactate cannot be produced from glucose.

A

C. 1 mol glucose produces 2 mol lactate, so 3 mol glucose will give rise to 6 mol lactate.

384
Q

It is a metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from non-carbohydrate carbon substrates.
A. glycolysis
B. gluconeogenesis
C. glycogenolysis
D. pentose phosphate pathway

A

B. gluconeogenesis

385
Q

Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?
I. Pyrimidines consist strictly of six-membered rings.
II. Examples of purines are cytosine, thymine, and uracil while adenine and guanine are examples of pyrimidines.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

A

A. I only

386
Q

Which of the following are the type of inhibition pattern based on Michaelis-Menten equation?
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

A

D. I, II and III

387
Q

When the graph of the Michaelis-Menten model levels off as it goes to the right, what happens to the rate of consumption of the substrate?
A. The rate of consumption levels off and becomes constant
B. The rate of consumption increases
C. The rate of consumption decreases
D. The rate of consumption goes to the left

A

A. The rate of consumption levels off and becomes constant

388
Q

The maximum growth rate of an organism depends on
A. Medium composition
B. Temperature
C. pH
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

389
Q

The Monod model relates
A. substrate utilized with the biomass consumption
B. specific growth to the substrate availability
C. yield with biomass utilization
D. the biomass concentration with specific growth rate

A

B. specific growth to the substrate availability

390
Q

The parameters for sterilization are based on which of the following organism?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Geobacillus stearothermophilus

A

D. Geobacillus stearothermophilus

391
Q

. Foam formation in most reactors is undesirable because it
A. reduces the active liquid volume
B. results in loss of liquid and cells
C. both A and B
D. none of these

A

D. none of these

392
Q

Aeration in a bioreactor is provided by
A. impeller
B. baffles
C. sparger
D. all of these.

A

C. sparger

393
Q

The typical number of baffles in a standard stirred bioreactor is __.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 10

A

B. 4

394
Q

Which of the following correctly describes yield coefficients?
A. It tells the total amount of biomass or product produced.
B. It expresses the conversion efficiency of a substrate into product.
C. It tells the conversion rate of a substrate into biomass or product.
D. It explains the production time of biomass or product.

A

B. It expresses the conversion efficiency of a substrate into product.

395
Q

The del factor increases as the final cell number
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains the same
D. fluctuates

A

A. decreases

396
Q

The overall del factor (γ) may be represented as
A. the sum of the del factors during heating, holding and cooling period.
B. the product of the del factors during heating, holding and cooling period.
C. the sum of the logarithm of the del factors during heating, holding and cooling period.
D. the logarithm of the sum of the del factors during heating, holding and cooling period.

A

A. the sum of the del factors during heating, holding and cooling period.

397
Q

A masonry structure built below ground level, where biochemical reaction takes place due to anaerobic bacteria is called
A. Cesspool
B. Lagoon
C. Skimming mill
D. Septic tank

A

D. Septic tank

398
Q

The energy stored in a body when strained within the elastic limit is known as
A. resilience
B. fatigue
C. strain energy
D. impact energy

A

C. strain energy

399
Q

It is the ability of material to resist breakage.
A. hardness
B. tensile strength
C. malleability
D. elasticity

A

B. tensile strength

400
Q

It refers to the ability of a material to be hammered into thin plates without breaking or cracking.
A. plasticity
B. pliability
C. malleability
D. ductility

A

C. malleability

401
Q

It refers to the ability of a material to withstand sudden shock or impact without breaking.
A. hardness
B. toughness
C. elasticity
D. fatigue

A

B. toughness

402
Q

It refers to the ability of an object to resume its normal shape after being stretched or compressed.
A. elasticity
B. plasticity
C. pliability
D. resilience

A

A. elasticity

403
Q

Which of the following is not an evidence of plastic action on the material?
A. Yield
B. Plastic flow
C. Fatigue
D. Creep

A

C. Fatigue

404
Q

Which of the following element is added to steel to form stainless steel?
A. Chromium
B. Copper
C. Boron
D. Titanium

A

A. Chromium

405
Q

Arrange the following in increasing order of hardness: talc, gypsum, topaz diamond.
A. Talc, gypsum, topaz, diamond
B. Gypsum, topaz, talc, diamond
C. Diamond, topaz, talc, gypsum
D. Topaz, gypsum, talc, diamond

A

A. Talc, gypsum, topaz, diamond

406
Q

Up to which point on the stress-strain curve is Hooke’s law valid?
A. Elastic limit
B. Yield point
C. Proportionality limit
D. Fracture point

A

C. Proportionality limit

407
Q

Which of the following is used to measure how much the specimen is twisted?
A. Micrometer
B. Clinometer
C. Toptometer
D. Tropimeter

A

C. Toptometer

408
Q

What is the difference between yield strength and ultimate strength?
A. Yield strength is the maximum stress that a material can bear without permanent deformation, while ultimate strength is the maximum load that a material can withstand before it fractures or breaks.
B. Yield strength is the maximum load that a material can bear without yielding, while ultimate strength is the maximum stress that a material can withstand before it fractures or breaks.
C. Yield strength is the stress at which a material starts to deform plastically, while ultimate strength is the stress at which the material fractures.
D. Yield strength is the maximum load that a material can bear over a long period of time without deforming, while ultimate strength is the maximum load that a material can bear without permanent deformation.

A

C. Yield strength is the stress at which a material starts to deform plastically, while ultimate strength is the stress at which the material fractures.

409
Q

Which of the following factors affects the modulus of elasticity of a material?
A. The temperature of the material
B. The cross-sectional area of the material
C. The length of the material
D. The type of material

A

D. The type of material

410
Q

Which element in the periodic table is known for its shiny appearance and is a good conductor of electricity?
A. Carbon
B. Sodium
C. Chlorine
D. Sulfur

A

B. Sodium

411
Q

Which of the following is a common technology used for treatment of brain tumor?
A. Boron Neutron Capture
B. Boron Electron Capture
C. Iodine Neutron Capture
D. Iodine Electron Capture

A

A. Boron Neutron Capture

412
Q

It is the type of reactor that uses uranium fuel, but unlike a conventional nuclear reactor, it produces more fissionable materials than it uses.
A. light water reactor
B. heavy water reactor
C. breeder reactor
D. atomic reactor

A

C. breeder reactor

413
Q

It is a type of bacteria that is used to generate usable electricity by oxidizing the decaying organic matter to produce carbon dioxide. They normally grow at the bottom of the rivers or lakes.
A. Acetobacter
B. Geobacter
C. Lactobacillus
D. Serratia

A

B. Geobacter

414
Q

Pick out the wrong statement.
A. Activity coefficient is dimensionless.
B. In case of an ideal gas, the fugacity is equal to its pressure.
C. In a mixture of ideal gases, the fugacity of a component is equal to the partial pressure of the component.
D. The fugacity coefficient is zero for an ideal gas.

A

D. The fugacity coefficient is zero for an ideal gas.

415
Q

Joule-Thomson effect i.e., a throttling process is a/an ________ process.
A. reversible and isothermal
B. irreversible and constant enthalpy
C. reversible and constant entropy
D. reversible and constant enthalpy

A

B. irreversible and constant enthalpy

416
Q

Which of the following represents the behavior of Helmholtz free energy (A) under constant volume and temperature? (Spontaneous, Equilibrium, Non-spontaneous)
A. -,0,+
B. –,+
C. +,0,-
D. ++,+

A

A. -,0,+

417
Q

What is the maximum energy (kJ) change can be extracted as work at 298 K for the combustion of glucose?
A. 2234
B. 2432
C. 3224
D. 4232

A

A. 2234

418
Q

The entropy and enthalpy changes of the system are 160 J/K and 178.3 kJ, respectively. Which of the following statements is TRUE? The process is
A. isentropic
B. exothermic
C. endothermic
D. always spontaneous at T>1115 K

A

D. always spontaneous at T>1115 K

419
Q

For a reversible process at constant pressure, to attain the maximum work, at the expense of decreasing ____________.
A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Helmholtz free energy
D. Gibbs free energy

A

D. Gibbs free energy

420
Q

The equilibrium constant of an exothermic reaction ______ when the temperature increases.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. does not change
D. decreases first then increases

A

B. decreases

421
Q

Liquid water is injected into an oven at 400 K. What are the signs of ΔG, ΔH, and ΔS of the process?
A. +,+,+
B. -,-,-
C. -,+,+
D. +,-,+

A

C. -,+,+

422
Q

Which of the following decreases with increase in pressure?
A. melting point of ice
B. melting point of wax
C. boiling point of liquids
D. none of these

A

A. melting point of ice

423
Q

At constant pressure, which of the following has the greatest chemical potential?
A. 10 g Fe at 2°C
B. 10 g Fe at 35°C
C. 10 g Fe at 2000°C
D. 10 g Fe at 2200°C

A

A. 10 g Fe at 2°C

424
Q

What is the percentage of oxygen in vanadium oxide?
A. 36
B. 40
C. 44
D. 48

A

C. 44

425
Q

A compound was subjected to analysis. It has been found that it is composed of 57.14%C, 6.16%H, 9.52%N, and 27.18%0. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
A. C7H9NO2
B. C7H9NO3
C. C14H18N2O5
D. C28H36N4O10

A

C. C14H18N2O5

426
Q

Convert 50 gr/m3 to ppm.
A. 3.24
B. 4.15
C. 5.28
D. 6.09

A

A. 3.24

427
Q

Determine whether the following solutions will precipitate or not after mixing.
NaCl and AgNO3
Pb(NO3)2 and KI
KCI and NaNO3
A. P, NP, NP
B. NP, NP, NP
C. P, P, NP
D. P, NP, P

A

C. P, P, NP

428
Q

Evaluate whether the following statements are true or false.
I. Nuclear fission combines light nuclides to produce a heavier one.
II. Nuclear fusion splits heavier nuclide to lighter ones.
III. Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion both produce nuclear energy.
IV. Nuclear fission is mostly used in nuclear power plants compared to fusion.
A. T,T,T,T
B. F,F,T,T
C. T.T,F,T
D. F,F,T,F

A

B. F,F,T,T

429
Q

Two charges 4µC and 8 µC are 12 cm far apart. How much force do they exert to each other?
A. 10 N
B. 20 N
C. 30 N
D. 40 N

A

B. 20 N
Use Coulomb’s Law: Fe=(kq1q2)/r^2

430
Q

Find the resistance of a circular wire that is 0.5-m long with radius of 1 mm and has a resistivity value of 0.03 ohm-meter.
A. 4800
B. 8400
C. 15000
D. 51000

A

A. 4800
Use R=ρL/A

431
Q

A simple spring mass system has certain natural frequency. If the mass is quadrupled, the period will
A. be quadrupled
B. be doubled
C.be quartered
D. be halved

A

B. be doubled

432
Q

Consider a metal plating firm installing a precipitation system to remove zinc. A pH meter will be used to control the feed of hydroxide solution to the mixing tank. Ksp of Zn(OH)2 is 7.68x10^-17. Determine the hydroxide ion concentration so that zinc effluent concentration is 0.80 mg/L.
A. 2.51x10^-6 M
B. 6.28x10^-9 M
C. 5.12x10^-6 M
D. 8.26x10^-8 M

A

A. 2.51x10^-6 M

433
Q

Consider a metal plating firm installing a precipitation system to remove zinc. A pH meter will be used to control the feed of hydroxide solution to the mixing tank. Ksp of Zn(OH)2 is 7.68x10^-17. What pH should the controller be set at to achieve the given zinc effluent concentration?
A. 5.60
B. 8.40
C. 9.60
D. 11.20

A

B. 8.40

434
Q

The zinc in a 0.7457-g sample of foot powder was titrated with 22.57 mL of 0.01639 M EDTA. Calculate the percent zinc in this sample.
A. 3.24%
B. 6.48%
C. 12.96%
D. 2.92%

A

A. 3.24%

435
Q

How many σ and π bonds are in acetylene, C2H2?
A. 1 σ and 1 π
B. 2 σ and 1 π
C. 2 σ and 3 π
D. 3 σ and 2 π

A

D. 3 σ and 2 π

436
Q

How many constitutional isomers are possible for C6H14?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

A

A. 5

437
Q

A gas inside a flask is put in a liquid nitrogen bath. Which of the following will happen?
A. The temperature and pressure increase.
B. The temperature increases and the pressure decreases.
C. The temperature decreases and the pressure increases.
D. The temperature and pressure decrease.

A

D. The temperature and pressure decrease.

438
Q

Free energy changes for two reaction mechanisms X and Y are -15 and -5, respectively. It implies that X is
A. slower than Y
B. faster than Y
C. three times slower than Y
D. three times faster than Y

A

B. faster than Y

439
Q

Consider a solution containing a mole of toluene and a hundred moles of benzene (Kf: 5.12°C/m, Kb: 2.65°C/m, melting point: 5.5°C, liquefaction point: 80.1°C). What is the freezing point of the solution?
A. 4.84°C
B. 4.99°C
C. 5.28°C
D. 5.43°C

A

A. 4.84°C
Use ΔTf=kfm

440
Q
A

Gnireenigne lacimehc (7 decks)

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