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Day 2 [QRC] Flashcards

1
Q

At what condition in motion of particle from a centrifugal force is the acceleration not constant?

A. The velocity of the particle relative to the fluid is directed inwardly.
B. The velocity does not depend on the radius.
C. It is motion with respect to the fluid.
D. There is no change in the direction of the movement.

A

The velocity of the particle relative to the fluid is directed inwardly.

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2
Q

A centrifuge has a PHOSPHOR BRONZE BASKET, 380 mm in diameter, is to be run at 67 Hz with a 75 mm layer of liquid density 1200 kg/m^3 in the basket. The density of phosphor bronze is 8900 kg/m^3 and the maximum safe stress for phosphor bronze is 87.6 MN/m^2. What thickness of walls is required in the basket?

A. 8.76 mm
B. 15.1 mm
C. 17.2 mm
D. 23.5 mm

A

15.1 mm

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3
Q

A CYCLONE SEPARATOR, 0.3 m in diameter and 1.2 m long, has a circular inlet 75 mm in diameter and an outlet size of the same size. The gas enters at a velocity of 1.5 m/s. The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN-s/m^2, the density of air is 1.3 kg/m^3 and the density of the particles is 2700 kg/m^3. At what particle size will the theoretical cut occur (um)?

A. 1.20
B. 1.68
C. 2.17
D. 2.56

A

2.17

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4
Q

An aqueous solution consisting of particles of density 2500 kg/m^3 in the size range 1-10 um is introduced into a centrifuge with a basket 450 mm diameter rotating at 80 Hz. If the suspension forms a layer 75 mm thick in the basket, determine the time it takes for the smallest particle to settle out.

A. 19.3
B. 20.8
C. 13.7
D. 26.9

A

19.3

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5
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
A. The transmissivity of an opaque solid is unity.
B. Blackbodies exist in the real world.
C. The absorptivity and emissivity of a blackbody are both unity.
D. A gray body is the standard to which all other radiators are referred.

A

The absorptivity and emissivity of a blackbody are both unity.

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6
Q

At what value of Prandtl number, conduction is negligible in the turbulent core of a fluid flowing through a heated pipe?

A. 0.5
B. < 0.5
C. > 0.6
D. < 0.1

A

> 0.6

High Pr = convection is dominant
Low Pr = conduction is dominant

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7
Q

__________ heat exchanger is used for chilling oil to be dewaxed.

A. U-tube
B. Double pipe
C. Fixed Tube
D. Floating Head

A

Double pipe

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8
Q

Controlling heat transfer film coefficient is the one, which offers ______ resistance to heat transfer.

A. no
B. the least
C. the largest
D. lower

A

the largest

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9
Q

If the tube number of a shell and tube heat exchanger is doubled, what will be the effect on Q/ΔTlm?

A. Q/ΔTlm will be doubled.
B. Q/ΔTlm will be multiplied by √ 2.
C. Q/ΔTlm will be halved.
D. Q/ΔTlm will be multiplied by 4.

A

Q/ΔTlm will be doubled.

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10
Q

Removable connection of tubes to tube sheet is called

A. Ferrule
B. Socket
C. Nipple
D. Saddle

A

Ferrule

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11
Q

A supporting base for pipes.

A. Ferrule
B. Socket
C. Nipple
D. Saddle

A

Saddle

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12
Q

Type of connector for pipe; threaded

A. Ferrule
B. Socket
C. Nipple
D. Saddle

A

Nipple

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13
Q

Pipes are inserted into the ________ to be welded.

A. Ferrule
B. Socket
C. Nipple
D. Saddle

A

Socket

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14
Q

The maximum heat transfer coefficient from steam heating will be attained when the steam is _______.

A. Supersaturated
B. Saturated
C. Wet
D. None of these

A

Saturated

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15
Q

For the same heat load and mass flow rate in the tube side of a shell and tube heat exchanger, one may use multipass on the tube side because it ______________.

A. decreases the pressure drop
B. decreases the outlet temperature of cooling medium
C. increases the overall heat transfer coefficient
D. None of these

A

increases the overall heat transfer coefficient

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16
Q

A flat slab of rubber 0.5 in thick initially at 80F is to be placed between two electrically heated steel plates maintained at 287F. How long from the start of the heating, is required for the temperature to reach 270F, 0.1 in from the center line?

A. 0.164 h
B. 0.153 h
C. 0.573 h
D. 0.592 h

A

0.573 h

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17
Q

The joint type with the lowest joint efficiency factor.

A. Resistance Weld
B. Lap-welded
C. Single-welded
D. Double-welded

A

Double-welded

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18
Q

It is the recommended cost index for cost estimation of petroleum plants.

A. Marshal and Stevens Equipment Index
B. Chemical Engineering Plant Cost Inde
C. Nelson Refinery Construction Cost Index
D. Engineering News Record Construction Index

A

Nelson Refinery Construction Index (Nelson-Farrar Index)

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19
Q

The cost of handling of materials in considered under the ___________.

A. working capital
B. direct costs
C. fixed capital
D. indirect costs

A

working capital

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20
Q

A certain pressure vessel manufacturer avoids doing reinforcement calculations for openings by always providing a reinforcing pad extending up to double the diameter of the opening and of the same material and thickness as that of the shell wall. If area compensation is accepted as a code guideline, his approach leads to safe design ______________.

A. Only if the opening is on a spherical vessel
B. Only if the opening is on a vertical cylindrical vessel
C. Only if the opening is on a horizontal cylindrical vessel
D. Irrespective of the shape of the vessel

A

Irrespective of the shape of the vessel

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21
Q

This impeller design is characterized by having 50%to 80% of the inside diameter of the vessel as its total length, and is most suited for preventing deposits on a heat-transfer surface rather than mining.

A. Rushton
B. Paddle
C. Propeller
D. Turbine

A

Paddle

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22
Q

Bracket supports are the most suitable for supporting ____________.

A. Thick-walled vertical vessels
B. Horizontal vessels
C. Thin spherical vessels
D. None of the above

A

Thick walled vertical vessels

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23
Q

The conical bottom heads of chemical process equipment usually have an apex angle of ____________.

A. 30 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 75 degrees

A

60 degrees

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24
Q

Determine whether TRUE or FALSE.

I. For all adiabatic processes, the entropy change of the system must be zero.
II. For a one-component system, it is possible for two phases in equilibrium to have different chemical potentials.
III. The change in Gibbs free energy can be negative for a cyclic process.
IV. A condition for equilibrium is that (ΔA)T,F = 0

A. T, T, T, T
B. F, T, F, T
C. T, F, T, F
D. F, F, F, F

A

F, F, F, F

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25
Q

Using the Van der Waals gas equation, derive the equation for (SH/AP)T for Van der Waals gas and estimate (SH/AP)T for CO2(g) in J/bar/mol/mol and b = 0.042 mol.

A. b-2a/RT; -25
B. 2b - a/RT; +60
C. a + b/RT; -15
D. a + 2b/RT; +30

A

b-2a/RT; -25

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26
Q

Which of the following is/are true about the critical point?

A. The surface tension vanishes.
B. Liquid and vapor have the same density.
C. There is no distinction between liquid and vapor phases.
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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27
Q

It is the most common isotherm used for multilayer adsorption on a homogenous flat surface.

A. Langmuir
B. Freundlich
C. BET
D. Toth

A

BET

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28
Q

Flash distillation is suitable for the separation of components

A. Having ver close boiling points
B. Which form maximum boiling azeotrope
C. Having very wide boiling points
D. Which form minimum boiling azeotrope

A

Having very wide boiling points

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29
Q

When drying banana chips under the sun, the rate of drying is faster

A. on a slightly breezy day
B. on a calm day
C. on a cloudy day
D. on a hot and windy day

A

on a hot and windy day

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30
Q

Most important factor to be considered in the selection of packings for absorbers is the _________ of the packing.

A. Size
B. Durability
C. Porosity
D. Cost

A

Porosity

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31
Q

Suppose there is an increase in the coefficient of mass transfer and in the surface area, what will be the value of the height of the unit?

A. Small
B. Infinite
C. Zero
D. Large

A

Small

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32
Q

With an increase in liquid flow rate at a fixed gas velocity in a randomly packed countercurrent gas absorption column, the gas pressure drop _________.

A. decreases
B. remains unchanged
C. increases
D. decreases exponentially

A

increases

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33
Q

In case of constant underflow extraction operation, the __________ at all solute concentration.

A. Solids are drained to the same extent
B. Ratio of the insoluble solution is constant
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B

A

Both A & B

Solids are drained to the same extent and Ratio of the insoluble solution is constant

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34
Q

In case of constant underflow extraction operation, the __________ at all solute concentration.

A. Solids are drained to the same extent
B. Ratio of the insoluble solution is constant
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B

A

Both A & B

Solids are drained to the same extent and Ratio of the insoluble solution is constant

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35
Q

The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporization, because

A. The pressure drop and hence the pumping cost will be very high
B. It cannot be recovered by distillation
C. Its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
D. It will decompose while recovering by distillation

A

Its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high

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36
Q

The following compounds are brought to flotation concentrate when calcium cyanide is added except

A. galena
B. copper sulfide
C. sphalerite
D. pyrite

A

pyrite

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37
Q

What type of particles comprise the gangue?

A. Dense
B. Hydrophobic
C. Hydrophilic
D. Porous

A

Hydrophilic

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38
Q

Which flotation cell purifies the rougher overflow?

A. Conditioner
B. Rougher
C. Cleaner
D. Scavenger

A

Cleaner

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39
Q

Frother is added in the froth flotation cell used in ore concentration to stabilize the air bubbles which will hold the ore particles but does not affect the flotability of minerals. Which of the following is not used as a frother?

A. Cresylic acid
B. Xanthates
C. Pine Oil
D. All of these

A

Xanthates

  • collector
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40
Q

The best unit operation in the benefaction treatment of sulfide ores is

A. Classification
B. Tabling
C. Jiggling
D. Froth Flotation

A

Froth Flotation

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41
Q

Role of a “collector” in froth flotation is to

A. Form a water-repelling film on the mineral surface
B. Create and stabilize froth
C. Act as a surface
D. Collect the minerals according to their specific gravity

A

Form a water-repelling film on the mineral surface

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42
Q

Ore concentration by froth flotation utilizes the ____________ of ore particles

A. Density difference
B. Wetting Characteristics
C. Terminal velocities
D. None of these

A

Wetting characteristics

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43
Q

Activators are those chemicals which help buoying up one mineral in preference to the other in the froth flotation process. Which of the following is an activator?

A. Cresylic acid
B. Copper sulphate
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Sodium carbonate

A

Copper sulphate

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44
Q

It is the ability of the material to resist breakage.

A. Hardness
B. Ductility
C. Strength
D. Elasticity

A

Strength

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45
Q

What is the type of stress induced in a metal rod (with constant cross-sectional area) when temperature increases and the opposing rigid body (e.g., wall) exerts an opposite reaction?

A. Metal stress
B. Compressive Stress
C. Principal stress
D. Tensile stress

A

Compressive stress

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46
Q

The energy stored in a body when strained within the elastic limit is known as

A

Strain energy

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47
Q

Electrostatic separation of minerals from each other is based on their differences in which property?

A

electrical conductivity

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48
Q

For gases flowing through a capillary, the permeability varies with respect to its viscosity and temperature. According to Pouiseuille’s law, the permeability is proportional to ____ while according to Knudsen law, the permeability is ____ to temperature.

A. õ, either directly or inversely proportional
B. µ^2, independent
C. µ, inversely proportional
D. 1/µ, directly proportional

A

1/µ, directly proportional

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49
Q

Which of the following is best applied in purification of brackish water?

A. Reverse osmosis
B. Sand filtration
C. Lime soda process
D. Permutit process

A

Reverse osmosis

50
Q

Which of the following is a method that can be used to produce animal feed supplements or food additive from whey produced in cheese making?

A. microfiltration
B. diafiltration
C. reverse osmosis
D. ultrafiltration

A

ultrafiltration

51
Q

O2 gas is faster than N2 gas by a factor of ____ because O2 is much more soluble in many polymers.

A

5

52
Q

Pick out the correct statement.

A. Dialysis is used in the production of freshwater from brine.
B. Electrodialysis is used in the manufacture of NaOH.
C. Electrodialysis is used for the refining/purification of petrol.
D. Both B and C.

A

Electrodialysis is used in the manufacture of NaOH.

53
Q

Which of the following is the most suitable for removing fine particles (<1 micron) from air below its due point?

A. Venturi scrubber
B. Electrostatic separator
C. Cyclone Separator
D. Fabric Filter

A

Electrostatic separator

54
Q

The most efficient equipment for the removal of submicronic dust particles from blast furnace gas is the

A. venturi atomizer
B. gravity settling chamber
C. electrostatic separator
D. cyclone separator

A

electrostatic separator

55
Q

The feed condition is usually dilute thus the viscosity is ____, and the convective heat transfer coefficient is ______.

A. high, high
B. high, low
C. low, low
D. low, high

A

low, high

56
Q

It occurs when solutions deposit solid materials on heating surfaces as result of decomposition or decrease in solubility causing reduction in overall heat transfer coefficient.

A

Scaling

57
Q

Induced draft fans provided in large thermal power plant boilers have

A. forward curved blades
B. backward curved blades
C. double curved blades
D. radial or straight blades

A

backward curved blaeds

58
Q

It results from mixing warm, highly saturated tower discharge air with cooler ambient air that lacks the capacity to absorb all the moisture as vapor.

A

Fogging

59
Q

It is the process where both mass and heat are transferred from gas to liquid.

A

Dehumidification

60
Q

High relative humidity decreases the evaporative process and as the temperature is increased, the relative humidity decreases. The comfort range for human body is the ambient temperature of 22 to 27C with relative humidity ranging from _______ percent.

A

45-50

61
Q

Psychrometry deals with the properties of gas-vapor mixture. Humidity can be determined by the measurement of the ______ of a fiber.

A

Electrical resistance

62
Q

When the temperature and humidity of air is low, we usually use _______ draft cooling tower.

A

Natural

63
Q

During dehumidification of unsaturated air wet bulb temperature and partial pressure of vapor are not constant. However, during the evaporative cooling process with recirculated water supply, the _____ remains constant.

A

wet bulb temperature

64
Q

Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35C and 18C, respectively) is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15C. The air will be cooled

A. and humidified
B. and dehumidifier with increase in wet bulb temperature
C. at the same relative humidity
D. and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature

A

and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature

65
Q

What type of filter is operated INSIDE A HORIZONTAL TANK filled with several units that can filter at relatively high pressures?

A

Leaf Filter

66
Q

What type of filter is tightly combined into a SERIES OF MODULES to form an assembly?

A

Plate and Frame

67
Q

Simplest type of filter mainly used when there is relatively small amounts of solids to be removed from large amounts of water.

A

Bed Filters

68
Q

What is the common material construction for plate and frame filter press?

A

Cast Iron

69
Q

What is the most suitable filter for separation of abrasive solids suspended in a corrosive liquid?

A

Rotary vacuum filter (e.g., Rotary disc filter)

70
Q

Most rotary vacuum filters are operated at about ____% of its surface area submerged in the slurry.

A

35

71
Q

Frame thickness in the plate and frame filter press is normally in the range of _____ inches?

A

0.25 to 8.0

72
Q

During washing of filter at the end of constant pressure filtration, the rate of washing equals the rate of filtration

A

at the end of filtration

73
Q

It is a region in gas-fluidized systems characterized by a high proportion of the gas passing through the bed as gas pockets which cause rapid mixing in the dense particulate phase.

A

Bubbling

74
Q

When larger particles (e.g. grans) are subjected to fluidization, the corresponding bed produced is termed as ____.

A

Spouted bed

75
Q

Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by using

A. tall, narrow vessel
B. deep bed of solids
C. shallow bed of solids and proper choice of particle size
D. very large particles

A

shallow bed of solids and proper choice of particle size

*A and B promotes

76
Q

Fluidization has certain applications in the industry. For high conversion in a highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, it is best to use a

A. fixed bed reactor
B. fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor
C. fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor
fluidized bed reactor

A

fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor

77
Q

Sand is dried in foundries in a _______ drier.

A

fluidized bed

78
Q

States that all crystals that are geometrically similar and of the same material n the same solution grow at the same rate.

A

ΔL Law

79
Q

It is the equation relating the solubility of a substance to its particle size.

A

Kelvin

80
Q

Classification of metal forming processes into hot and cold working is based on which parameter?

A

Recrystallisation temperature

81
Q

‘ADDUCTS’ and ‘CLATHRATES’

A

Crystallization

82
Q

It is also called screen opening.

A

Aperture

83
Q

Number of apertures per linear inch

A

Mesh

(Wire to wire center basis din)

84
Q

Actual openings over the total screen area

A

Open Area

85
Q

It is best suited for the production of fine powders with a narrow size distribution.

A

Jet Milling

86
Q

What is the primary objective of Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A. To reduce production costs
B. To improve customer satisfaction
C. To increase worker morale
D. To increase market share

A

To improve customer satisfaction

87
Q

What is the purpose of a Project Management Information System (PMIS)?

A. To manage budget and resources
B. To track project progress
C. To communicate project information to stakeholders
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

88
Q

What is the primary purpose of a budget in management control?

A. To evaluate past performance
B. To plan and control future activities
C. To motivate employees
D. To establish organizational goals

A

To plan and control future activities

89
Q

Which of the following is not a step in the project risk management process?

A. Identify risk
B. Determine project budget
C. Assess risk
D. Implement control measures

A

Determine project budget

90
Q

What is the primary responsibility of a safety manager in an organization?

A. To enforce safety regulations
B. To develop and implement safety policies and procedures
C. To provide safety training to employees
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

91
Q

What is the purpose of a job safety analysis?

A. To evaluate the safety of a workplace
B. To identify hazardous tasks and the steps to perform them safely
C. To determine the root cause of accidents
D. To develop safety training programs

A

To identify hazardous tasks and the steps to perform them safely

92
Q

What is the primary purpose of a safety audit?

A. To evaluate thee effectiveness of the safety program
B. To determine the root cause of accidents
C. To identify potential hazards in the workplace
D. To develop safety training programs

A

To evaluate the effectiveness of the safety program

93
Q

What is the main purpose of RA 9003?

A

To regulate the disposal of ALL types of waste

94
Q

What pump is the most suitable for discharging a liquid against a pressure of at least 1500 kgf/cm^2?

A

Plunger

(wala sa perry’s)

95
Q

In pipe markings, this color of pipe indicates flowing fresh water

A

Green

96
Q

It is a measuring device that does not reach a temperature range of red hot objects 800C - 1600C.

A

Thermocouple

97
Q

It is an undesirable characteristic of an instrument.

A

Time Lag

98
Q

When a section of piping needs to be repaired, to have tight shutoff so that leakage is stopped, the pipe segment must have a/an ___________

A

Isolation valve

99
Q

It is any mechanism that eliminates product defects by preventing, correcting, or drawing attention to human errors, and helps equipment or machine operators from making mistakes.

A

Poka-Yoke

100
Q

A type of control strategy that involves using the output of one control loop as the set point for another control loop in a hierarchical arrangement

A

Cascade

101
Q

Two or more systems operating in series whose behavior of any system is affected by any system/s subsequent tp it are said to be _______

A

Interacting

102
Q

Which of the following processes uses the multiple-input/multiple-output (MIMO) system in controlling their process parameters?

A. Evaporation
B. Extraction
C. Distillation
D. Crushing

A

Distillation

103
Q

Who are the pioneers of the Six Sigma Approach?

A

Motorola

104
Q

Which of the following is not an actuator?

A. Batch
B. Pneumatic
C. Hydraulic
D. Electric

A

Batch

105
Q

The method used in ultrasonic flow meters

A

Doppler

106
Q

The difference between the measured value and the set point

A

Error

107
Q

A term used to describe processes or process variables that are unstable, and create hazardous situations

A

Runaway

108
Q

The following are examples of paramagnetic gases except

A. O2
B. NO2
C. CO2
D. NO

A

CO2

109
Q

A device used to extract a representative sample from a batch or main stream of material for analysis

A

Probe

110
Q

A controller used for manipulating variables with only two states

A

On/Off

111
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

I. A feedforward control system does not require an explicit process model.
II. A feedback control system is not able to cope with any unaccounted disturbances.
III. A feedforward control system is good for systems with large dead times
IV. A feedback control system will only have a control action when the effect of the disturbance is felt

A

I, III, IV

112
Q

A coating made of polyphenol and epichlorohydrin that offers good corrosion resistance on a wide variety of conditions.

A

Epoxy

(Materials of Construction, Perry’s)

113
Q

Brass belongs to what group of materials?

A

Non-ferrous metals and alloys

114
Q

The normal range of velocity of water in pipes is ________.

A

1-2 m/s

115
Q

The normal range of velocity of steam in pipes is _____ m/s.

A

80-100

116
Q

In an incompressible fluid, the density is ___________.

A. Greatly affected only by moderate changes in temperature
B. Greatly affected by moderate changes in pressure
C. Sensible changes in both temperature and pressure
D. Not affected with moderate change in temperature and pressure

A

Not affected with moderate change in temperature and pressure

117
Q

What is the main difference between laminar flow and turbulent flow in transport phenomena?

A

Laminar - smooth flow;
Turbulent - chaotic flow

118
Q

The main factor affecting velocity of fluid in a pipe

A

Pressure gradient

119
Q

For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the connector used should be a/an

A

Union

120
Q

In a general sense, gases and low molecular weight liquids are classified as ______.

A. newtonian
B. dilatant
C. bingham
D. pseudoplastics

A

Newtonian

Rev (6 decks)

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