Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Rev > Day 1 QRC > Flashcards

Day 1 QRC Flashcards

1
Q

Chemical Engineering Law of 2004

A

RA 9297

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Neutrons are made up of

A

1 up quark, 2 down quark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Protons are made up of

A

2 up quarks, 1 down quark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Exemptions in the d-block when it comes to valence configuration

A

Cr, Mo, Cu, Ag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chemical Formula of Rochelle’s Salt

A

KNaC4H6O*4H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The person behind the carbon dating method

A

William Libby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who discovered radioactivity?

A

Becquerel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most ideal gas?

A

Helium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Half-life of
A. Carbon
B. Rubidium
C. U-238

A

A. 5730 years
B. 86.2 days
C. 4.5 billion years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Application of C-14

A

Carbon dating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Isotope used for uranium-lead dating

A

U-238

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What uranium isotope is used for nuclear power generation?

A

U-235

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the appplications of the following isotopes?
I. H-3
II. Co-60
III. I-131
IV. Tl-201
V. Tc-99m

A

I. Water content in the body
II. Cancer treatments
III. Diagnosis of thyroid defects
IV. Heart scan
V. Brain, Liver, Kidney Scans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is true about the dissolution process?
A. The temperature increases with respect to time then eventually stays constant.
B. The temperature decreases with respect to time then eventually stays constant.
C. The enthalpy of solution is temperature dependent.
D. The enthalpy of solution is pressure dependent.

A

C. The enthalpy of solution is temperature dependent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which quantum number indicates the number of orbitals in subshells?

A

magnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of radiation is the least penetrating?

A

Alpha

Order:
Alpha, Beta, X-ray, Gamma, Neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ratio of the mass of the moon with respect to the earth?
A. 81
B. 5972
C. 10914
D. 333054

A

81

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ratio of the mass of the sun with respect to the earth?
A. 81
B. 5972
C. 10914
D. 333054

A

333054

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For all spontaneously occurring processes in an isolated system, which expression best describes dS?
A. dS = dQ/T
B. dS = 0
C. dS > 0
D. dS < 0

A

dS > 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For a reversible equilibrium process in an isolated system, which of the following is the most applicable?
A. dS = dQ/T
B. dS = 0
C. dS > 0
D. dS < 0

A

dS = 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

dS of the following systems
I. Universe:
II. Occurring Isolated System:
III. Equilibrium Isolated System:
IV. Closed irreversible System:
V. Closed reversible system:

A

I. Universe: dS > 0
II. Occurring Isolated System: dS > 0
III. Equilibrium Isolated System: dS = 0
IV. Closed Irreversible System: dS > dQ/T
V. Closed Reversible system: dS = dQ/T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What will happen if liquid water is immediately transferred into a vacuum container?
A, It will freeze.
B. Nothing will happen.
C. It will decompose.
D. It will vaporize.

A

D. It will vaporize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a buckyball?
A. An epoxy resin
B. C60H+++
C. A fullerene
D. Sodium Benzoate

A

C. A Fullerene

*buckminsterfullerene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sum of the average mass of atoms in an ionic compound
A. Atomic Mass
B. Molar Mass
C. Formula Mass
D. Molecular Mass

A

C. Formula Mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sum of the average mass of atoms in a covalent compound
A. Atomic Mass
B. Molar Mass
C. Formula Mass
D. Molecular Mass

A

D. Molecular Mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Serendipity is a category used to describe scientific discoveries that occur at the intersection of chance and wisdom, examples of which are discoveries of Teflon, penicillin, and aspartame. Who coined the word “serendipity”?

A

Horace Walpole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The electrons of metals are free to move in a solid. This explains why ____
A. Metals are unstable.
B. Metals can be easily molded.
C. Metals have high reflectivity.
D. Metals have high conductivity.

A

Metals have high conductivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who discovered deuterium?
A. Priestley
B. Rutherford, Oliphant, Hartech
C. Cavendish
D. Urey

A

Urey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who discovered oxygen?
A. Priestley
B. Rutherford, Oliphant, Hartech
C. Cavendish
D. Urey

A

Priestley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who discovered protium?
A. Priestley
B. Rutherford, Oliphant, Hartech
C. Cavendish
D. Urey

A

Cavendish

*protium = Hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Magnesium reacts with ____ to produce magnesium nitride.
A. N2
B. NH3
C. O2
D. NO2

A

N2

*N2 and NH3 are both correct answers. However, if they are both in the choices, choose N2 because Mg3N2 is the only product in the reaction, whereas reaction with NH3 has a byproduct of Hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the nearest star to the earth except the sun?

A

Proxima centauri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the distance (m) of the most remote normal galaxy to the earth?
A. 2x10^22 m
B. 1.4x10^26 m
C. 4x10^16 m
D. 9x10^25 m

A

9x10^25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Farthest Galaxy and its distance away from the earth

A

MACS0647-JD
13.3 BLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Closest galaxy and its distance away from the earth

A

Canis Major Dwarf
25000 LY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Equation of state for a single component can be any of the following except
A. Ideal gas law
B. Z = PV/nRT
C. Any relationship interrelating 3 or more state functions
D. A mathematical expression defining a path between states

A

A mathematical expression defining a path between states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most used coagulant?

A

Alum (Aluminum sulfate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sub-freezing is a process at which water vapor in air directly turns to ice. At which condition will the process be spontaneous?
A. At any temperature
B. At high temperature
C. At low temperature
D. None of the above

A

At low temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the rate of evaporation (kg/s) in a 50x20 m swimming pool with water temperature of 20C? The wind is at 25C and 50% relative humidity and blows at 0.5 m/s.
A. 0.11
B. 0.025
C. 0.033
D. 0.047

A

0.047 kg/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What two elements did Marie Curie discover?
A. Radium and Curium
B. Radium and Polonium
C. Curium and Polonium
D. None of the above

A

Radium and Polonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following elements is the most abundant in the human body?
A. Ca
B. Mg
C. K
D. I

A

Ca

Abundance of elements in the human body:
Hydrogen > Carbon > Oxygen > Ca > Others
*nasa periodic table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who discovered positron?
A. Carl Anderson
B. James Chadwick
C. Wolfgang Pauli
D. Murray Gell-man

A

Carl Anderson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who discovered neutrino?
A. Carl Anderson
B. James Chadwick
C. Wolfgang Pauli
D. Murray Gell-man

A

Wolfgang Pauli

44
Q

Who discovered neutron?
A. Carl Anderson
B. James Chadwick
C. Wolfgang Pauli
D. Murray Gell-man

A

James Chadwick

45
Q

Who discovered quark?
A. Carl Anderson
B. James Chadwick
C. Wolfgang Pauli
D. Murray Gell-man

A

Murray Gell-man

46
Q

Who theorized that the entropy of a star collapsing into a black hole increases?
A. Bose and Einstein
B. Hawking and Bekenstein
C. Hubble and Webb
D. Cooper and Fowler

A

Hawking and Bekenstein

47
Q

What is the main purpose of the Solid Waste Management Act?
A. To regulate the disposal of hazardous waste
B. To regulate the disposal of all types of waste
C. To regulate the production of waste
D. To regulate the transport of waste

A

B. To regulate the disposal of all types of waste

48
Q

What is the average temperature of the moon if the solar radiation currently reaching the earth’s top temperature is 1.34 W/m²
and the greenhouse effect of the atmosphere applies, and emissivity is the same for all kinds of electromagnetic waves at no atmosphere?
A. 5800C
B. 4C
C. -12C
D. 277C

A

4C or 277K

49
Q

One of the major tools of water quality management in rivers is assessing the capability of a stream to absorb a waste load. This is done using the DO sag curve.The following can be derived from the DO sag curve except:
A. DO concentration in the river
B. Flowrate of oxygen in the river
C. Worst conditions in the river
D. Oxygen deficit of the river

A

Flowrate of oxygen in the river

50
Q

One of the major tools of water quality management in rivers is assessing the capability of a stream to absorb a waste load. This is done using the DO sag curve.The following can be derived from the DO sag curve except:
A. DO concentration in the river
B. Flowrate of oxygen in the river
C. Worst conditions in the river
D. Oxygen deficit of the river

A

Flowrate of oxygen in the river

51
Q

When the meteor hits the atmosphere, the air in front of it compresses incredibly quickly. When a gas is compressed, its temperature rises potentially up to 1600C. This causes the meteor to heat up so much that it glows. In which layer of the atmosphere does this happen?
A. Stratosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Thermosphere

A

Mesosphere

52
Q

When water is contaminated by these substances, eutrophication occurs in the body of water.
A. Sulfates and Potassium
B. Phosphorus and Potasssium
C. Nitrogen and Phosphorus
D. Nitrogen and Sulfates

A

Nitrogen and Phosphorus

53
Q

BTEX (benzene, toluene, xylene, ethylbenzene) are contaminants that can pollute an aquifer. From which of the following sources can BTEX contaminants come from?
A. gasoline spills
B. processing of petroleum products
C. burning of wood
D. both A and B

A

Both A and B

54
Q

In which layer of the atmosphere can the ozone layer be found?
A. Stratosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Thermosphere

A

Stratosphere

55
Q

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are important since they convert nitrogen to more usable forms which can be utilized by organisms in the nitrogen cycle. What is the final product produced by nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A. Ammonia
B. Nitrite
C. Nitrate
D. Nitrogen dioxide

56
Q

Which law states that indigenous cultural communities have the rights to their ancestral lands?
A. RA 7942
B. RA 8371
C. RA 11293
B. RA 10657

A

RA 8371

*or RA 7942, sa boards ay walang RA 8371. Ang answer ay RA 7942 which is the Philippine Mining Act of 1995.

57
Q

What is the direction of plume in a cold day of December?
A. Horizontal
B. Upward
C. Downward
D. Stays the same

A

Horizontal

58
Q

A power plant in a college town is burning coal on a cold, clear winter morning at 8:00 AM with a wind speed of 2.6 m/s measured at 30 m elevation and an inversion layer with its base at a height of 697 m. The effective stack height is 30 m. Calculate the distance downwind XL at which the plume released will reach the inversion layer and begin to mix downward.

A. 5.8 km
B. 8.5 km
C. 12.2 km
D. 21.2 km

59
Q

A city of 100,000 people disposes 1.05m^3/s of treated sewage that still has a BODu of 28.0 mg/L and 1.8 mg/L of DO into a river. Upstream from the outfall, the river has a flowrate of 7.08 m^3/s and a velocity of 0.37 m/s. At this point, the BODu and DO in the river are 3.6 and 7.6 mg/L, respectively. The saturation value of DO (at the temperature of the river) is 8.5 mg/L. The deoxygenation coefficient, kd, is 0.61/day, and the re-aeration coefficient, kr, is 0.76/day.

What is the DO 16 km downstream?

A. 2.6 mg/L
B. 5.9 mg/L
C. 6.2 mg/L
D. 9.5 mg/L

60
Q

A city of 100,000 people disposes 1.05m^3/s of treated sewage that still has a BODu of 28.0 mg/L and 1.8 mg/L of DO into a river. Upstream from the outfall, the river has a flow rate of 7.08 m^3/s and a velocity of 0.37 m/s. At this point, the BODu and DO in the river are 3.6 and 7.6 mg/L, respectively. The saturation value of DO (at the temperature of the river) is 8.5 mg/L. The deoxygenation coefficient, kd, is 0.61/day, and the re-aeration coefficient, kr, is 0.76/day.

What is the critical distance?

A. 23.4 km
B. 24.3 km
C. 34.2 km
D. 43.2 km

61
Q

MW of EDTA

A

292.24 g/mol

62
Q

MW of KHP

A

204.22 g/mol

63
Q

Ksp of Cu(OH)2

A

2 x 10^-19

64
Q

Name the indicator and titrant of the Volhard Method.

A

Indicator: Fe3+
Titrant: SCN-

65
Q

This argentometric method forms a complex with the titrant at the end point.

66
Q

This argentometric method forms a colloid with the titrant at the end point.

67
Q

This argentometric method forms a precipitate with the titrant at the end point.

68
Q

Name the indicator and titrant of the Mohr Method.

A

Indicator: CrO42-
Titrant: Ag+

69
Q

Name the indicator and titrant of the Fajans Method.

A

Indicator: DCF
Titrant: Ag+

70
Q

Electrochemical cells in which redox reaction occur spontaneously

A

Galvanic cells

71
Q

What type of polymer is used for bulletproof vest?

A

High Molecular Weight Polyethylene or Linear Polyethylene Fiber

72
Q

Alkanes are also known as

73
Q

What are sigmatropic rearrangements in organic reactions?

A. They are similar to [3,3] Cope rearrangement where the beta ring of a steroid nucleus undergoes photon-activated retro-electrolcylization

B. They are thermal reactions which do not allow the formation of a six-membered benzene ring with a cis- or trans-alkene, such as in the formation of vitamin D3

C. They are different from electrocyclic reactions wherein a movement of a sigma bond with a simultaneous rearrangement of the pi system does not occur.

A

They are different from electrocyclic reactions wherein a movement of a sigma bond with a simultaneous rearrangement of the pi system does not occur.

74
Q

Determine whether the following statements are T or F for constitutional isomers.

They have the same formula
They have the same MW
They have the same physical properties
They have the same connectivity to their atoms

75
Q

What is the difference in structure between a saturated hydrocarbon from an unsaturated hydrocarbon.

A

A saturated hydrocarbon only has C-C single bonds, while an unsaturated hydrocarbon contains one or more C–C double or C—C triple bonds.

76
Q

Which type of reaction is typical of aromatic compounds?

A. Addition
B. Free-radical substitution
C. Substitution by postively-charged reagents
D. Substitution by negatively-charged reagents

A

Substitution by positively-charged reagents (EAS)

77
Q

This aromatic hydrocarbon is formed by incomplete combustion of organic materials. It is found in cigarette smoke, automobile exhaust, and the fumes from charcoal grills.

A

Benzopyrene

78
Q

Which compound can you not find C H O N in a single molecule?

A. Ascorbic Acid
B. Sulfonamide
C. Diazepam
D. Valium

A

Ascorbic Acid

79
Q

The compound 3-phenylprop-2-enal is also known as __________

A

cinnamaldehyde

80
Q

An organic compound with molecular formula C3H8O undergoes dehydration with concentrated phosphoric acid. The formed product, X, rapidly decolorizes a solution of bromide in tetrachloromethane. Determine the identity of product X.

81
Q

Which of the following compounds will produce alcohols upon addition with Nu?

alkanes
aldehydes
alkyl halides
aromatic compounds

82
Q

These compounds are produced by the reaction of acids with alcohols.

83
Q

Name the hydroxy acids

A

Glycolic, Lactic, Salicylic, Malic, Tartaric, Citric

(Galactic Smart C)

84
Q

Determine the physiologically active substance that comes from the ff sources:

bark of the willow tree, pituitary gland, sap of poppy, belladonna plant

A

salicin, endorphins, opium, atropine

85
Q

Hydrolysis of lactose yields

A

galactose and glucose

86
Q

Cellulose fibers resemble with the protein structure in the form of

A

Beta-sheets

87
Q

In the study of lipids, which between these two have a higher melting point?

I. Lauric Acid and Glycerol
II. Stearic Acid and Glycerol

A. Both will have the same MP
B. II
C. I
D. NOne

88
Q

How many different tetrapeptides can be made if the peptides contain the residues of asparagine, proline, serine, and methionine?

89
Q

Beta-pleated sheets are examples of protein’s

A

secondary structure

90
Q

In the normal breakdown of phenylalanine, it is initially degraded to

91
Q

The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is

92
Q

Esterification reaction

A. Produces soap
B. is reversible
C. is a reaction between an alcohol and an organic acid
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

93
Q

Which of the following is an organometallic compound?

A. Isopropyl alcohol
B. Tetraethyl lead
C. Zeolite
D. Cumene

A

Tetraethyl lead

94
Q

Raw materials used for producing ____ cement does not contain iron oxide

95
Q

Neon gas is

A. Flammable in nature
B. Used in color discharge tube
C. Filled in lamps having tungsten filaments
D. All

A

Used in color discharge tube

96
Q

Hydrohalogenation of an alkene produces _________

A. Alkyl Halide
B. Vicinal Dihalide
C. Alcohol
D. Alkane

A

Alkyl Halide

97
Q

Hydration of alkene produces _______

A. Alkyl Halide
B. Vicinal Dihalide
C. Alcohol
D. Alkane

98
Q

Hydrogenation of alkene produces _______

A. Alkyl Halide
B. Vicinal Dihalide
C. Alcohol
D. Alkane

99
Q

Hydration of alkyne produces

A. Ketone
B. Alcohol
C. Aldehyde
D. Carboxylic Acid

100
Q

Hydroboration-Oxidation of alkyne produces

A. Ketone
B. Alcohol
C. Aldehyde
D. Carboxylic Acid

101
Q

Oxidative cleavage of alkyne produces

A. Ketone
B. Alcohol
C. Aldehyde
D. Carboxylic Acid

A

Carboxylic acid

102
Q

Benzene undergoes EAS. Match the EAS reactions with their possible products: Halogenation, Nitration, Sulfonation, Friedel-Crafts Alkylation

A. Aryl Halide, Nitrobenze, Benzenesulfonic acid, Alkyl Benzene
B. Alkyl Benzene, Nitrobenze, Aryl Halide, Benzenesulfonic Acid
C. Aryl Halide, Alkyl Benzene, Benzenesulfonic acid, Nitrobenzene

A

Aryl Halide, Nitrobenze, Benzenesulfonic acid, Alkyl Benzene

103
Q

Oxidation of primary alcohol with weak base produces ________.

A. Aldehyde
B. Ketone
C. Carboxylic Acid

104
Q

Oxidation of primary alcohol with strong base produces _________.

A. Aldehyde
B. Ketone
C. Carboxylic Acid

A

Carboxylic acid

105
Q

Oxidation of secondary alcohols produces

A. Aldehyde
B. Ketone
C. Carboxylic Acid

Rev (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions