Day 1.1.1 Flashcards

1
Q

Cingulum aka

A

Linguocervical ridge

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2
Q

What is the cingulum

A

Lingual lobe of an anterior tooth

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3
Q

Where is cingulum located

A

It makes up the bulk of the cervical third of the lingual surface

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4
Q

Teeth with centrally located cingulum

A
  • Maxillary Lateral incisor
  • Maxillary Canine
  • Mandibular central incisor
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5
Q

Tooth numbers of teeth with centrally located cingulum

A

6, 7, 10, 11, 24, 25.

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6
Q

Teeth with cingulum located off-centre to the distal

A
  • Maxillary Central Incisor
  • Mandibular Lateral Incisor
  • Mandibular Canine
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7
Q

Total number of cingula in each dentition

A

12

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8
Q

Characteristics common to all mandibular anteriors

A
  • Indistinct Cingula
  • Smooth lingual anatomy
  • No lingual grooves or pits
  • Incisal edges lingual to root axis line
  • Facial convexity - continuous incisoapically
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9
Q

Which anterior teeth have a continuous convexity from incisal edge to apex?

A

Mandibular anteriors

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10
Q

How many teeth do mandibular central incisors occlude with?

A

One - Maxillary central incisor

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11
Q

In how many planes is the occlusion of mandibular central incisors measured?

A

Three -

  1. Centric
  2. Protrusive
  3. Lateral protrusive
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12
Q

On which aspect of the central incisors is the alveolar process thinnest?

A

Facial

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13
Q

Is local infiltration effective for anaesthetising central incisors? Why (not)?

A

Yes, because of the thinness of the alveolar process facial to the central incisors

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14
Q

Which teeth in the mouth exhibit labial ridges?

A

Canines (lower and upper)

6, 11, 22, 27.

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15
Q

Which proximal aspect of the anterior teeth shows greater CEJ curvature?

A

Mesial.

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16
Q

What is the most reliable way to distinguish between mandibular central and lateral incisor?

A

In facial view, the mandibular lateral incisor (23, 26) crown tips slightly to the distal relative to the root.

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17
Q

Between 24 and 23, whose crown is larger mesiodistally?

A

23

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18
Q

Between 25 and 23, which one is more bilaterally symmetrical?

A

25

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19
Q

On which one out of 26 and 24 is the cingulum placed slightly distal to the centre?

A

26

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20
Q

In 24, which marginal ridge is longer?

A

Neither. They are the same length.

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21
Q

In 23, is the mesial marginal ridge shorter than the distal marginal ridge?

A

No. Vice versa.

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22
Q

Are all proximal contacts at the same level for mandibular incisors?

A

No. 23 and 26 have distal proximal contacts more apical than mesial contacts.

24 and 25 have contacts at the same level

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23
Q

Among all the mandibular incisors, which proximal contact is the most apical?

A

Laterals (23, 26)

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24
Q

Which incisal angles are the most rounded in mandibular incisors?

A

Distoincisal angles of laterals

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25
Q

Between the lingual and facial cervical lines of mandibular incisors, which one is positioned more apically?

A

Lingual

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26
Q

What is the shape of the proximal aspects of anterior teeth?

A

Triangle

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27
Q

Name all triangular aspects in the oral cavity

A

All anterior teeth - proximal aspects

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28
Q

Name all rhomboids in the oral cavity

A

Mandibular posteriors - proximal aspects

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29
Q

Name all Trapezoids with their longest side on the occlusal, in the oral cavity

A

All anteriors - facial aspect

All posteriors - facial aspect

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30
Q

Name all trapezoids with their shortest side occlusal, in the oral cavity

A

All maxillary posteriors - proximal aspects

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31
Q

What is the basic shape of the cross section of the pulp canal in mandibular incisors?

A

Elliptical

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32
Q

Which one has a larger root, 24 or 23?

A

23 (in all dimensions)

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33
Q

Which incisal edge is straighter, 25 or 23?

A

25

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34
Q

Which part of the incisal edge is curved on 23 and 26?

A

Distal

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35
Q

What is different about the incisal edge of the mandibular lateral when compared to the mandibular central?

A

It is slightly curved and rotated on the distal

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36
Q

which is the only anterior tooth in which distoincisal angle is as sharp as mesioincisal angle?

A

mandibular central incisor

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37
Q

What speech sounds do anterior teeth play a role in

A

v
f
th

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38
Q

What is the axial inclination of the anterior teeth when viewed from the sagittal plane

A

facially inclined

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39
Q

which aspects of incisors have proximal contacts in incisal third?

A

mesial of 8, 9

all contacts of lower incisors

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40
Q

What aspects of incisors have contacts at junction?

A

Distal of 8, 9

mesial of 7, 10

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41
Q

What is the only aspect of incisors that has contacts in middle third?

A

Distal of 7, 10

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42
Q

Where is the pulp cavity widest in maxillary central?

A

cervical level

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43
Q

Outline of pulp chamber of 8, 9 in young individuals?

A

triangle with base labially placed

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44
Q

Shape of pulp chamber of 8, 9 in old individuals

A

more round or crescent shaped due to secondary dentin deposition

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45
Q

Which one is bigger, young or old pulp chamber in 8, 9?

A

Young

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46
Q

Anterior tooth that has contacts in both anterior and posterior segments of opposite arch, at MIP.

A

Maxillary canine

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47
Q

MIP?

A

Maximum intercuspation

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48
Q

Does maxillary canine have contact on cusp tip?

A

no

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49
Q

Where does the maxillary canine fall in MIP?

A

The facial embrasure between the mandibular canine and first premolar

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50
Q

Contact points of 6, 11

A

Mesial - junction

Distal - middle third

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51
Q

IS the 6 wider faciolingually or cervicoincisally?

A

faciolinguallly

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52
Q

Are mesial and distal halves of 6 symmetric?

A

Yes

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53
Q

Where is cusp tip of 11 placed relative to root axis line?

A

labial or at

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54
Q

What is the CEJ curvature of 6?

A

2.5mm mesial

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55
Q

Contour height of 11

A

facial / lingual - 0.5mm both in cervical third

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56
Q

How to differentiate between right and left upper canine

A

distal surface is fuller and more convex than the mesial surface

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57
Q

is the curvature of cervical line uniform in 6?

A

no - mesial is greater than distal

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58
Q

Is curvature of mesial surface same as distal in 11?

A

No mesial is straighter

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59
Q

Are cusp ridges uniform in 6?

A

No distal is longer

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60
Q

Are contact points in 10 at the same level?

A

No.

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61
Q

What is the difference between labiolingual and mesiodistal aspects of 6

A

It’s thicker Labiolingually

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62
Q

Position of cusp tip relative to central long axis of 6

A

Labial and mesial to central long axis

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63
Q

Which contact of 11 is placed more cervical?

A

Distal

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64
Q

In what direction, if at all, will the apical third of the root curve in 11?

A

Distal

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65
Q

What lies mesial and distal to labial ridge?

A

Developmental depressions - shallow

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66
Q

Which labial ridges are more pronounced? 6, 11 or 22, 27?

A

6, 11

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67
Q

Which are the only cusped teeth that feature a functional lingual surface rather than occlusal surface?

A

Canines

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68
Q

Which surface of the canines is functional?

A

Lingual

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69
Q

Describe the shape of the distal portion of facial surface of 6

A

Middle third - convex

Cervical third - concave

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70
Q

Is cervical line visible from incisal view in 11?

A

No because of convexity of crown

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71
Q

When do maxillary canines erupt?

A

Between 11, 12 years of age

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72
Q

After which teeth do 6 and 11 erupt?

A

Premolars

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73
Q

When do Mandibular canines erupt?

A

Between 9 and 10 years of age

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74
Q

Which canines erupt first?

A

Mandibular

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75
Q

Do premolars erupt before or after canines?

A

Before Maxillary canines, after mandibular canines

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76
Q

Teeth that erupt between 6 - 7 years of age

A

Mandibular centrals - 24, 25

Maxillary and mandibular first molars

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77
Q

Teeth that erupt between 7-8 years of age

A

Maxillary centrals, Mandibular laterals

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78
Q

Teeth that erupt between 8-9 years of age

A

Maxillary laterals

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79
Q

Teeth that erupt between 9-10 years of age

A

Mandibular canines

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80
Q

Teeth that erupt between 10-11 years of age

A

Maxillary first premolars

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81
Q

Teeth that erupt between 10-12 years of age

A

Maxillary second premolars

Mandibular first premolars

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82
Q

Teeth that erupt between 11-12 years of age

A

Maxillary canines

Mandibular second premolars

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83
Q

Teeth that erupt between 11-13 years of age

A

Mandibular second molar

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84
Q

Teeth that erupt between 12-13 years of age

A

Maxillary second molar

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85
Q

Teeth that erupt around 17-21 years of age

A

All third molars

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86
Q

Which one has more pronounced cingulum, 6 or 27?

A

6

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87
Q

Which one is wider mesiodistally, 6 or 22?

A

6

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88
Q

Which one has a more straight mesial border (viewed facially), 11 or 22?

A

22

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89
Q

Which one has more incisally placed contacts, 11 or 27?

A

27

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90
Q

Cusp tip position of mandibular canine

A

Displaced lingually

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91
Q

Which cingulum is more pronounced - 6 or 27?

A

6

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92
Q

Which one has a distally displaced cingulum, 11 or 27

A

27

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93
Q

Longest cusp ridge on permanent canines

A

Distal

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94
Q

Most prominent labial ridge on permanent canines

A

Middle

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95
Q

Which third is the distal contact of 27 in?

A

Middle third

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96
Q

Which third is the mesial contact of 22 in?

A

Incisal third

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97
Q

From mesial aspect, which one is longer, 6 or 27?

A
  1. Also narrower
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98
Q

In 27 is lingual surface bulbous?

A

No. flat.

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99
Q

How are marginal ridges on 22 and 27?

A

Parallel or slightly converging

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100
Q

Describe lingual pits and grooves in 27

A

None

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101
Q

Which one is more symmetrical 6 or 27? (Incisal aspect)

A

27

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102
Q

What is a peculiar characteristic of cusp ridges of mandibular canines?

A

Distal cusp ridge is rotated

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103
Q

CEJ curvature of 27

A

1 mm distal

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104
Q

Contour height of 22

A

< 0.5mm

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105
Q

Where is contour height of 27 located facially or lingually?

A

Both - cervical third

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106
Q

Which is the longest tooth in the mouth?

A

Maxillary canine

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107
Q

Which dimension of canines is greater - faciolingual or mesiodistal?

A

Faciolingual

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108
Q

Which permanent tooth has the longest crown?

A

Mandibular canine

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109
Q

Which surface of 27 is parallel with the long axis of the tooth?

A

Mesial (nearly)

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110
Q

Enumerate all nonsuccedaneous teeth

A

Permanent first, second and third molars

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111
Q

What are nonsuccedaneous teeth

A

Teeth that do not move into a position formerly occupied by a primary tooth

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112
Q

What primary teeth are visible at age 1 year?

A

Maxillary and mandibular incisors

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113
Q

Which teeth erupt at 6-10 months age?

A

Mandibular centrals

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114
Q

Which teeth erupt at 8-12 months of age?

A

Maxillary centrals

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115
Q

Which teeth erupt at 9-13 months of age?

A

Maxillary laterals

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116
Q

Which teeth erupt at 10-16 months of age?

A

Mandibular laterals

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117
Q

Which teeth erupt at 13-19 months of age?

A

Maxillary first molar

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118
Q

Which teeth erupt at 14-18 months of age?

A

Mandibular first molar

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119
Q

Which teeth erupt at 16-22 months of age?

A

Maxillary canines

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120
Q

Which teeth erupt at 17-23 months of age?

A

Mandibular canines

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121
Q

Which teeth erupt at 23-31 months of age?

A

Mandibular second molars

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122
Q

Which teeth erupt at 25-33 months of age?

A

Maxillary second molars

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123
Q

Which teeth shed at 6-7 years of age?

A

Maxillary and mandibular centrals

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124
Q

Which teeth shed at 7-8 years of age?

A

Maxillary and mandibular laterals

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125
Q

Which teeth shed at 9-11 years of age?

A

Maxillary and mandibular first molars

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126
Q

Which teeth shed at 9-12 years of age?

A

Mandibular canines

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127
Q

Which teeth shed at 10-12 years of age?

A

Maxillary canines

Maxillary and mandibular second molars

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128
Q

By when is the calcification of roots normally completed?

A

Age of 3-4

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129
Q

At what stage of root formation does active eruption of teeth occur?

A

After two thirds of the root is formed.

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130
Q

List reducing sugars

A
Lactose
Maltose
Glucose
Galactose
Fructose
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131
Q

What kind of carbon do reducing sugars contain?

A

Free anomeric carbon

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132
Q

What is an anomeric carbon in reducing sugars?

A

Oxygen on C1 Atom is available for redox reaction

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133
Q

What is the anomeric carbon in reducing sugars called?

A

Carbonyl group

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134
Q

When is the carbonyl group on reducing sugars active?

A

When it is not attached to any other structure.

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135
Q

The carbonyl on which kind of sugars has reducing properties?

A

Monosaccharides.

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136
Q

When are the reducing properties of the carbonyl group lost?

A

When it forms a glycosidic bond

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137
Q

Reducing sugar test

A

Classically used to screen for diabetes due to excess free glucose in blood

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138
Q

What kinds of reactions are used to test for diabetes today?

A

Glucose oxidase linked reactions

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139
Q

Which sugar contains no free anomeric carbon?

A

Sucrose

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140
Q

Why does sucrose not contain free anomeric carbon?

A

Because the reducing groups of both glucose and fructose are involved in the glycosidic bond

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141
Q

How do monosaccharides combine into larger molecules?

A

They form glycosidic bonds

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142
Q

How do glycosidic bonds form?

A

Hydroxyl group of anomeric carbon of monosaccharide reacts with -OH or -NH group of another compound

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143
Q

What are te typical compounds that monosaccharides combine with to form glycosidic bonds?

A
  • Alcohol
  • Purine
  • Pyrimidine
  • Another sugar
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144
Q

Glucosuria

A

Presence of glucose in urine

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145
Q

Causes of glucosuria

A

Low insulin
High blood sugar
Impaired tubular reabsorption
High GFR

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146
Q

Threshold for glucosuria

A

160-180 mg/d

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147
Q

Glycosidic bond aka

A

Glycosidic linkage

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148
Q

What is a glycosidic bond

A

Two bond link between the rings in an oligosacharide or polysaccharide

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149
Q

Name a glycosaminoglycan functioning in synovial fluid

A

Hyaluronate

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150
Q

Glycoproteins

A
  • Conjugated proteins
  • Contain one or more saccharides lacking a serial repeating unit
  • Covalently bound to a protein
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151
Q

What is the difference between proteoglycans and glycosaminoglycans?

A

Carbohydrate chains of proteoglycans are called glycosaminoglycans

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152
Q

How are GAG chains incorporated in proteoglycans?

A

GAG chains are linked covalently to a protein core

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153
Q

How many distinct classes of proteoglycans?

A

6

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154
Q

Name the 6 classes of proteoglycans

A
  • Chondroitin sulphate
  • Dermatan sulphate
  • Keratan sulfate
  • Heparan sulfate
  • Heparin
  • Hyaluronate
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155
Q

What % of carbohydrates do Proteoglycans contain?

A

95%

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156
Q

What kind of glycoproteins resemble carbohydrates more than they do proteins?

A

Proteoglycans

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157
Q

Which type of proteoglycan is different from the others and how?

A

Hyaluronate -

  • Not sulfated
  • Not covalently attached to protein
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158
Q

Features common to all GAGs

A
  • long unbranched heteropolysaccharides
  • Largely made up of disaccharide repeating units
  • Contain hexosamine and a uronic acid
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159
Q

Common components of GAGs

A

Sulfate groups

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160
Q

How are sulfate groups linked to monosaccharides

A

Ester bonds

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161
Q

How are sulfate groups linked to Glucosamine

A

Amide bonds to the amino group of glucosamine

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162
Q

Why are GAGs highly charged

A
  • Carboxyls of uronic acids

- Sulfate groups

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163
Q

Function of GAGs in connective tissue

A
  • Lubricants

- Support elements

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164
Q

What components of GAGs are important in their roles in connective tissue

A
  • Electrical charge

- Macromolecular structure

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165
Q

What part of cellular structure do GAGs inhabit

A

Extracellular matrices and cell surfaces

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166
Q

On a cellular level what is the function of GAGs

A

They participate in

  • Cell adhesion
  • Signaling
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167
Q

Where will you find Hyaluronate

A
  • Synovial fluid
  • Vitreous humor
  • ECM of loose connective tissue
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168
Q

What are the distinguishing characteristics of Hyaluronate?

A
  • Large polymers

- Shock absorbing

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169
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in cartilage?

A

Chondroitin sulfate

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170
Q

What are all the locations where you find Chondroitin sulfate?

A

Cartilage
Bone
Heart Valves

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171
Q

What is the most abundant GAG?

A

Chondroitin sulfate

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172
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in bone?

A

Chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate

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173
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in Skin?

A

Dermatan sulfate

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174
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in heart valves?

A

Chondroitin sulfate, dermatan sulfate

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175
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in vitreous humor?

A

Hyaluronate

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176
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in Basement membranes?

A

Heparan sulfate

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177
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in cornea?

A

Keratan sulfate

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178
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in cartilage aggregated with chondroitin sulfates?

A

Keratan sulfate

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179
Q

What is the most heterogenous GAG?

A

Keratan sulfate

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180
Q

What GAG serves as an anticoagulant?

A

Heparin

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181
Q

Which one is more sulfated – heparin or heparan sulfate?

A

Heparin

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182
Q

Where do you find heparin?

A

It is a component of intracellular granules of mast cells lining the arteries of the lungs, liver and skin

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183
Q

What GAG is shock absorbing?

A

Hyaluronate

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184
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in ECM of loose connective tissue?

A

Hyaluronate

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185
Q

Which GAG is a component of cell surfaces?

A

Heparan sulfate

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186
Q

What does heparan sulfate contain more of than heparin?

A

Acetylated glucosamine

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187
Q

Where do you find heparin?

A

It is ta component of intracellular granules of mast cells lining the arteries of the lungs, liver and skin

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188
Q

What kind of GAG do you find in blood vessels?

A

Dermatan sulfate

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189
Q

What kind of bond is between glucose and fructose?

A

O-glycosidic bond

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190
Q

Where is the bond between glucose and fructose broken?

A

Intestine

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191
Q

What intestinal enzyme breaks down the bond between glucose and fructose?

A

Sucrase

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192
Q

What is the sugar formed due to the conjugation of glucose and fructose?

A

Sucrose

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193
Q

What kind of bond is present between two monosaccharides in a disaccharide?

A

Covalent

194
Q

How many sugar units does a disaccharide contain?

A

Two

195
Q

What is beer sugar?

A

Maltose

196
Q

What kind of reaction joins the two components of maltose?

A

Condensation reaction

197
Q

What happens in a condensation reaction?

A

A molecule of water is removed

198
Q

What kind of bond is created between two molecules of glucose after a condensation reaction?

A

Glycosidic bond

199
Q

What are the two components of maltose?

A

2 molecules of glucose

200
Q

What is milk sugar?

A

Lactose

201
Q

What is table sugar?

A

Sucrose

202
Q

Components of Lactose

A

Glucose and galactose

203
Q

Components of Sucrose

A

Glucose and fructose

204
Q

What is the function of the intestinal enzyme invertase?

A

Conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose

205
Q

Where in the intestine are the enzymes that convert disaccharides into absorbable monosaccharides?

A

Small intestine

206
Q

How are monosaccharides absorbed?

A

By enterocytes

207
Q

What larger structures can monosaccharides link up to form?

A
  • Disaccharides
  • Oligosaccharides
  • Polysaccharides
208
Q

What kind of bond do disaccharides have?

A

O-glycosidic bond

209
Q

What is an O-glycosidic bond?

A

When oxygen is involved in a glycosidic bond - -OH of anomeric carbon reacts with -OH of another compount

210
Q

What is an N-glycosidic bond?

A

When nitrogen is involved - -OH of anomeric carbon bonds with -HN of another compound

211
Q

What compounds contain O-glycosidic bonds?

A

Polysaccharides

212
Q

What compounds contain N-glycosidic bonds?

A
  • Glycoproteins

- Nucleotides

213
Q

What is the most important of the aldohexoses?

A

D-glucose

214
Q

What kind of carbohydrates are glucose, fructose and galactose?

A

Monosaccharides

215
Q

Types of monosaccharides

A
  • Trioses
  • Tetroses
  • Pentoses
  • Hexoses
216
Q

What kind of monosaccharide is erythrose?

A

Tetrose

217
Q

What kind of monosaccharide is glyceraldehyde?

A

Triose

218
Q

What kind of compound is dihydroxyacetone?

A

Monosaccharide - triose

219
Q

What kind of compound is ribose?

A

Monosaccharide - pentose

220
Q

Types of monosaccharides based on most-oxidised functional groups

A

Aldoses and ketoses

221
Q

What monosaccharides occur as cyclic rings in nature?

A

5, 6, 7, 8 carbon atoms

222
Q

Examples of naturally occuring cyclic ringed carbohydrates

A

Ribose
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose

223
Q

What is the naming of configurations of simple sugars based on?

A

The absolute configuration of glyceraldehyde

224
Q

What is a chiral carbon

A

Asymmetric carbon

225
Q

The names of which compounds are determined by absolute configuration of glyceraldehyde?

A
  • Monosaccharides

- Amino acids

226
Q

What is the difference between the D form and the L form?

A

In a Fisher projection, D form has hydroxyl group on right, L form has hydroxyl group on left.

227
Q

Which form of sugars are the most common in nature?

A

D form - related to D-glyceraldehyde

228
Q

What is xylose?

A

A monosaccharide

229
Q

What is mannose?

A

A monosaccharide

230
Q

What does glucan transferase hydrolyse?

A

Glycogen

231
Q

What is the solubility of polysaccharides?

A

They are insoluble because they have large molecules

232
Q

Main functions of polysaccharides in living organisms

A
  • Storage molecules

- Structural materials

233
Q

What are the structural polysaccharides?

A

Cellulose

234
Q

What polysaccharides act as storage molecules?

A
  • Starch

- Glycogen

235
Q

Polysaccharides that contain a single monosaccharide species

A

Homopolysaccharides

236
Q

List of homopolysaccharides

A
  • Starch
  • Glycogen
  • Dextrans
  • Glucans
237
Q

What kind of molecules are contained in starch?

A

alpha glucose molecules

238
Q

What kind of reactions bind molecules in starch?

A

Condensation reactions

239
Q

Main components of starch

A

Amylose

Amylopectin

240
Q

What kinds of chains do amylopectin molecules form in starch?

A

Highly branched chains with alpha-1,6 linkages

241
Q

What enzyme acts on starch?

A

Alpha amylase

242
Q

What kind of chemical reaction does alpha amylase have with starch?

A

It rapidly hydrolyses starch

243
Q

Where is alpha amylase secreted from?

A
  • Parotid

- Pancreas

244
Q

What component of starch is unbranched?

A

Amylose

245
Q

What compound creates straight chains in starch?

A

Amylose

246
Q

How many glucose residues does glycogen contain?

A

10,000 to 40,000.

247
Q

How are glucose residues held together in glycogen?

A

a-1,4 glycosidic bonds

248
Q

How does branching occur in Glycogen?

A

1 in 12 glucose residues serves as a branch point

249
Q

What kinds of bonds do branch points have within glycogen?

A

a-1,6 glycosidic bond

250
Q

What part of the body is glycogen especially abundant in?

A

Liver

251
Q

How are glucose units removed from glycogen?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

252
Q

How is glycogen cleaved beyond a branching point?

A

2 enzymes:

Glucantransferase
amylo-alpha-1,6-glucosidase

253
Q

What is the most common organic compound on earth?

A

Cellulose

254
Q

What is “dietary fiber”?

A

Cellulose

255
Q

What is “roughage”?

A

Cellulose

256
Q

Which carbohydrate acts as a hydrophilic bulking agent for feces?

A

Cellulose

257
Q

What linkages are part of cellulose?

A

B1-4 linkages

258
Q

What are the monosaccharides that makes up cellulose?

A

Glucose

259
Q

What does the term glycan refer to?

A
  • Polysaccharide or

- Oligosaccharide

260
Q

What is the ground surface of extracellular matrix made up of?

A

Proteoglycans

261
Q

How are GAGs attached to the protein in proteoglycans?

A

In a brush-like fashion

262
Q

Functions of Proteoglycans

A
  • lubricants
  • extracellular matrix
  • Being a molecular sieve
263
Q

What kind of proteins are glycoproteins?

A

Conjugated proteins

264
Q

How is the carb portion of most glycoproteins different from proteoglycans?

A

it is shorter and branched.

265
Q

What is special about the glyco- part of glycoproteins

A

They lack a serial repeating unit

266
Q

What kinds of molecules do glycoproteins serve as?

A
  • Hormones
  • Enzymes
  • Antibodies
  • Structural proteins
267
Q

What are glycolipids aka?

A

Sphingolipids

268
Q

Where are glycolipids found?

A

In cell membrane

269
Q

What part of the glycolipid extends into the extracellular space?

A

Carbohydrate portion

270
Q

What are glycolipids derived from?

A

Ceramide - a lipid

271
Q

Types of glycolipids

A
  • Cerebrosides
  • Globosides
  • Gangliosides
272
Q

Which ones are long and straight - Proteoglycans or Glycoproteins?

A

Proteoglycans

273
Q

Role of glycolipids

A

Cell membrane receptors

274
Q

How does chondroitin sulfate provide structure?

A

It holds water and nutrients, allows other molecules to move through cartilage

275
Q

Roles of chondroitin sulfate

A
  • Building block for proteoglycan molecules

- Anti-inflammatory

276
Q

Why is the function of chondroitin sulfate of holding water and nutrients important?

A

Cartilage doesn’t have a blood supply

277
Q

How does chondroitin sulfate help in joints?

A

It contributes to

  • Strength
  • Flexibility
  • Shock absorption
278
Q

Ground substance aka

A

Extracellular matrix

279
Q

Functions of ground substance

A
  • Holds the cells of a tissue together

- Provides a porous pathway for diffusion of nutrients and oxygen to individual cells

280
Q

How does ground substance help get nutrients and oxygen to individual cells?

A

By providing a porous pathway

281
Q

What is ground substance composed of?

A
  • heteropolysaccharides (GAGs)
  • (linked to) protein
  • (to form) proteoglycans
  • fibrous proteins
282
Q

Name an enzyme that liquefies the ground substance

A

Hyaluronidase

283
Q

Actions of hyaluronidase

A
  • Splits hyaluronic acid
  • lowers the viscosity of ground substance
  • Increases the permeability of connective tissue
  • Increases the absorption of fluids
284
Q

Which is the only GAG that is not attached to a protein?

A

Hyaluronate

285
Q

How are dextrans produced?

A

Extracellularly by bacteria and yeast

286
Q

What is the constituent monosaccharide in dextrans?

A

Glucose

287
Q

What is the enzyme used to produce dextrans?

A

Glucosyl transferase

288
Q

What is glucosyl transferase aka

A

Dextran sucrase

289
Q

What is the substrate from which Dextrans are created?

A

Sucrose

290
Q

Are there any side products from dextran production?

A

Yes - fructose

291
Q

How is fructose formed from the dextrification of sucrose?

A

Fructose is formed into levans (fructans)

292
Q

How is fructose created as a byproduct of dextran production stored?

A

It is stored intracellularly as reserve nutrients.

293
Q

What is the most notable bacteria that produces dextran from sucrose?

A

Strep mutans

294
Q

Name a sticky polymer of glucose

A

Dextran

295
Q

What kinds of linkages do glucose molecules have within dextran?

A

a-(1,6) linkages with some a-(1,3) branches

296
Q

How are dextrans created from sucrose?

A

Glucosyl transferase splits sucrose into glucose and fructose and links the glucose molecules into a dextran polymer

297
Q

How is the dextran stored after creation?

A

IT is deposited as a thick glycocalyx around the cell

298
Q

How are dextrans related to dentistry?

A

They seem to be essential for the cariogenecity of Strep mutans.

299
Q

How does adhesion of bacteria to tooth surface increase on creation of dextrans?

A

Fructans (levans) - the byproducts of dextran production - increase adhesion of bacteria to tooth surfaces and promote formation of dental plaque

300
Q

How are fructans formed?

A

From the fructose moiety of sucrose by the enzyme fructosyl transferase

301
Q

Fructosyl transferase aka

A

levan sucrase

302
Q

Essentially, what are fructans?

A

Reserve nutrients for bacteria

303
Q

Which one is more abundant - cones or rods?

A

Rods

304
Q

What pigment do rods contain?

A

Rhodopsin

305
Q

What kind of pigment is rhodopsin?

A

Photopigment

306
Q

Are rods responsible for color vision or cones?

A

Cones

307
Q

What are rods used for?

A

Dark adaptation

308
Q

Where are rods and cones located?

A

Retina

309
Q

What is the innermost layer of the eye?

A

Retina

310
Q

What are the visual receptors of the retina?

A

Rods and cones

311
Q

How many types of photopigments are there?

A

4

312
Q

What are the different types of photopigments?

A

Rhodopsin (rods)
Photopsin I, II, III
Melanopsin

313
Q

What are the major components of a photopigment?

A

Opsin - a protein

Retinal - a chromophore molecule

314
Q

Function of opsins

A

They confer specific light-sensitive properties on each photopigment

315
Q

Are opsins uniform throughout?

A

They differ from pigment to pigment

316
Q

What is Retinal produced from?

A

Vitamin A

317
Q

How is rhodopsin synthesised?

A

Retinal is added to an opsin to synthesize rhodopsin

318
Q

What characterises the entire rod system?

A

A relative lack of colour discrimination

319
Q

How are rods distributed in the retina?

A

They are numerous in the periphery of the retina

320
Q

What are the different types of cones?

A

3 - Red green and blue

321
Q

How are cones distributed in the retina;?

A

They are concentrated in the centre of the retina, esp in the fovea.

322
Q

How do rods work?

A

During dark adaptation, rhodopsin is synthesised in the rods

323
Q

What causes night blindness?

A

Severe Vitamin A deficiency over many months

324
Q

When are cones principal photoreceptors?

A
  • Daylight

- Brightly lit areas

325
Q

Are rods more abundant or cones?

A

Rods

326
Q

Which ones are more sensitive, cones or rods?

A

Rods

327
Q

Which have greater acuity, rods or cones?

A

Cones

328
Q

What is the cornea?

A

The crystal clear dome that covers the front of the eye

329
Q

What part of the eye is responsible for the majority of the bending of light rays?

A

Cornea, NOT lens

330
Q

Which part of the eye does the majority of the focusing, cornea or lens?

A

Cornea

331
Q

Does the shape of the cornea change?

A

No. (Age related changes aside)

332
Q

What is the role of the lens in focusing the light?

A

It finishes the focusing of the light

333
Q

Of the cornea and lens which one can change shape

A

Lens

334
Q

How does the eye focus on near objects?

A

Lens fine tunes vision by changing shape to focus on near objects

335
Q

What part of the eye is affected in cataract?

A

lens

336
Q

What part of the retina receives the focus of the object of regard?

A

Fovea

337
Q

What kinds of cells are packed in the area of the fovea?

A

Cones

338
Q

Which one is watery - aqueous humour or vitreous humour?

A

Aqueous

339
Q

Where is vitreous humour found?

A

Posterior segment of the eye

340
Q

What is vitreous humour?

A

Thick, gelatinous material

341
Q

What do you call the point where the cornea ends and the iris begins?

A

Iridocorneal angle

342
Q

Where is the Canal of Schlemm located?

A

Next to the iridocorneal angle

343
Q

What separates the chambers of the anterior segment of eye?

A

Iris

344
Q

Zonule aka

A

Suspensory ligaments

345
Q

What does the zonule connect

A

Ciliary body and lens

346
Q

What part of the ear does a sound wave strike first?

A

Tympanic membrane

347
Q

How many types of labyrinths does the cochlea have?

A

2 - bony and membranous

348
Q

Where is endolymph found?

A

Membranous labyrinth of cochlea

349
Q

What do you find in the bony labyrinth of the cochlea?

A

Perilymph

350
Q

What is the last part of the ear to be stimulated before transmission of nerve impulses along the cranial nerve?

A

Hair cells on the organ of Corti

351
Q

What membrane stimulates the cochlear parts to move?

A

Membrane of the oval window

352
Q

Major divisions of the ear

A

External
Middle
Inner

353
Q

What part of the ear is the vestibule located in?

A

Inner ear

354
Q

what are the parts of the vestibule?

A

Saccule and utricle

355
Q

Parts of the external ear

A
  • Auricle

- External auditory canal

356
Q

Auricle aka

A

Pinna

357
Q

What part of the ear directs sound waves?

A

Pinna

358
Q

Cerumen aka

A

Brown earwax

359
Q

What part of the ear serves as a resonator?

A

External auditory meatus

360
Q

What does the external auditory meatus contain?

A

Hair

Cerumen

361
Q

Contents of the middle ear

A
  • Auditory Tube

- Ossicles

362
Q

Middle ear aka

A

Tympanic cavity

363
Q

Which bone is the middle ear located in?

A

Temporal

364
Q

What fills the middle ear?

A

Air

365
Q

Name the ossicles

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

366
Q

How much do the ossicles amplify sound?

A

22-fold

367
Q

How does sound travel from the tympanic membrane to the oval window?

A

Ossicles

368
Q

Contents of the inner ear

A
  • Vestibule
  • Semicircular canals
  • Cochlea
369
Q

What is the inner ear formed of?

A

A membranous labyrinth within a bony labyrinth

370
Q

What is the major function of the vestibule?

A

It is associated with a sense of balance

371
Q

What part of the ears is concerned with equilibrium?

A

Semicircular canals

372
Q

What are the membranes contained within the cochlea?

A
  • Vestibular

- Basilar

373
Q

What part of the inner ear is responsible for hearing?

A

Cochlea

374
Q

What is the shape of the organ of Corti?

A

Spiral

375
Q

What are the receptors for hearing and where are they present?

A

Hair cells, located within the organ of Corti

376
Q

What is the basic functional unit of hearing?

A

Cochlea

377
Q

What is the function of cochlea?

A

Transforms fluid vibrations from sound waves into a nerve impulse

378
Q

What part of the ear is the tympanic membrane in?

A

Middle ear

379
Q

What part of the ear is the eustachian tube in contact with?

A

Tympanic cavity in the middle ear

380
Q

What is used to induce mydriasis?

A

Tropicamide

381
Q

What does tropicamide do?

A

Induces mydriasis

382
Q

The pupil is abnormally dilated in miosis or mydriasis?

A

Mydriasis

383
Q

Causes of miosis

A
  • Normal reaction to an increase in light
  • Some drugs
  • Pathological conditions
384
Q

Causes of mydriasis

A
  • Drug induced

- Disease

385
Q

Nearsightedness aka

A

Myopia

386
Q

Where are faraway objects focused wrt the retina in myopic patients?

A

In front of the retina

387
Q

Causes of Myopia

A
  • Steeper than normal cornea

- Longer than normal eye

388
Q

What kind of lenses are used to treat myopia?

A

Concave

389
Q

Where does light focus in hyperopia?

A

Behind the retina

390
Q

Farsightedness aka

A

Hyperopia

391
Q

Causes of hyperopia

A
  • Flatter cornea

- Shorter eye

392
Q

What kinds of lenses are used to treat hyperopia?

A

Convex

393
Q

Causes of astigmatism

A

Non-uniform curvature of the lens

394
Q

Treatment of astigmatism

A

Cylindric lenses

395
Q

Causes of presbyopia

A

Loss of elasticity of lens with age

396
Q

Treatment of presbyopia

A

Bifocals

397
Q

Normal range for Hb in women

A

12-16 g/dL

398
Q

Normal range for Hb in men

A

13-18 g/dL

399
Q

Structure of Hb

A

Quaternary protein consisting of four tertiary polypeptide chains

400
Q

What kind of polypeptide chains does Hb have?

A

2 alpha

2 beta

401
Q

What are the iron-containing heme groups associated with in Hb?

A

Polypeptide chains (4)

402
Q

How many Hb molecules does a single erythrocyte contain?

A

Up to 300 million

403
Q

How many iron atoms does one Hb molecule contain?

A

4

404
Q

How many Oxygen molecules can one Hb molecule bind to?

A

One

405
Q

What is the maximum oxygen carrying capacity of one Hb molecule?

A

8 atoms of oxygen

406
Q

How many mL is one dL?

A

100 mL = 1 dL

407
Q

Normal blood values of Hb in a newborn

A

14 - 20 g/dL

408
Q

What does Hb value depend on?

A
  • Number of RBCs

- Amount of Hb in each RBC

409
Q

Conditions with low Hb value

A
  • Anemia
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Cirrhosis of liver
410
Q

Conditions with high Hb value

A
  • Polycythemia
  • COPD
  • Congestive Heart Failure
411
Q

Bohr effect

A

Very strong in the fetus - acid in the tissues assists in oxygen unloading from Hb, to promote oxygen delivery to the tissues

412
Q

Hb in which blood is more saturated? Leaving the lungs or returning?

A

Leaving - 98%

Returning - 75%

413
Q

What is the difference in mechanisms of transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood?

A

97% of O2 is transported with Hb

Only 30% of CO2 is transported as carbaminohaemoglobin

414
Q

What are the mechanisms of transportation of CO2 in blood?

A

Bicarbonate
Carbon Dioxide
Carbaminohaemoglobin

415
Q

What % of total plasma protein is Albumin?

A

60%

416
Q

What % of the colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma does albumin contribute to?

A

80%

417
Q

What is colloid osmotic pressure vital for?

A

Preventing edema

418
Q

How many amino acids are contained within Albumin?

A

585

419
Q

How many carbohydrates are present within Albumin?

A

none

420
Q

What is the effect of albumin on plasma viscosity?

A

It does not increase it to the same extent as more elongated proteins of the same molecular weight

421
Q

What is the molecular weight of albumin?

A

66,000 D

422
Q

What is the isoelectric point of albumin?

A

Acidic

423
Q

How does the kidney treat albumin?

A

Because of its isoelectric point and its molecular weight, it is not excreted by the kidneys

424
Q

Is albumin present in interstitial fluid and lymph?

A

Yes, in lower concentrations than in plasma

425
Q

What is the difference in amounts of plasma between interstitial fluid and plasma?

A

Total amount in interstitial spaces slightly exceeds that in vascular compartment

426
Q

How is albumin returned to the blood from the interstitial spaces?

A

Lymph

427
Q

Which one is more, interstitial fluid volume or plasma volume?

A

Interstitial fluid (12% of body volume)

Plasma is 4.5% of body volume.

428
Q

Why does albumin contribute so much to colloid osmotic pressure of the plasma?

A

Because it is one of the most hydrophilic plasma proteins

429
Q

What does colloid osmotic pressure depend on?

A

The amount of water and electrolytes that a protein attracts to its surface

430
Q

What is the importance of colloid osmotic pressure?

A

It is necessary to prevent edema

431
Q

What is the force that is opposite to the colloid osmotic pressure?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

432
Q

Which of the two forces - hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure - pushes fluid from the blood into the interstitial space?

A

Hydrostatic pressure

433
Q

How is the fluid balance across the endothelium maintained?

A

As long as hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure cancel each other out

434
Q

At what albumin concentration does edema occur?

A

When it drops below 2 g/dL

435
Q

Other causes for edema

A
  • Increase in capillary permeability
  • Venous obstruction
  • Impaired lymph flow
  • Congestive heart failure with an increased venous pressure
436
Q

Which organ in the body is chiefly responsible for regulation of osmotic pressure in the body?

A

Kidney. It regulates the reabsorption of water in response to ADH

437
Q

WHat does albumin have binding sites for?

A
  • Fatty acids
  • Thyroxine
  • Cortisol
  • Heme
  • Bilirubin
  • Many other metabolites
438
Q

What are the majority of plasma proteins?

A

Glycoproteins (not albumin)

439
Q

What is the principal hormone for serum calcium regulation?

A

Parathormone

440
Q

How much Calcium ions does the human body contain?

A

1-1.5 k

441
Q

Where is most of the calcium of the body contained?

A

98% of the calcium of the body is contained in the mineral substance of the bone

442
Q

What are other substances that control calcium levels?

A
  • Vitamin D

- Calcitonin

443
Q

What substances increase serum calcium levels?

A

PTH

Vitamin D

444
Q

What does calcitonin do to blood calcium levels?

A

It tones down blood calcium

445
Q

Are people with Parathyroidism more or less susceptible to fractures?

A

More, because PTH primarily increases concentration of serum calcium

446
Q

What happens to renal calcium excretion in hyperparathyroidism?

A

Decreased (in order to increase blood calcium levels)

447
Q

What effect does PTH have in elderly people?

A

Bone resorption with low dietary calcium is intensified

448
Q

When do you observe increased calcium blood levels?

A
  • Hypervitaminosis D
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Bone cancer
  • Other bone diseases
449
Q

When do you observe decreased calcium blood levels?

A
  • Severe diarrhea
  • Hypoparathyroidism
  • Avitaminosis D
450
Q

What are the disorders precipitated due to Avitaminosis D?

A
  • Rickets

- Osteomalacia

451
Q

What hormones work together to keep a balance within serum calcium levels?

A

PTH and Calcitonin

452
Q

What hormone is complementary to Calcitonin?

A

PTH

453
Q

How does calcitonin counteract actions of PTH?

A

When PTH increases serum calcium, calcitonin tones down this level by

  • depositing more in bone
  • increasing the excretion
454
Q

What is normal plasma phosphorous concentration?

A

4 mg%

455
Q

What regulates plasma phosphorous concentration?

A

Parathyroid hormone

456
Q

How does PTH regulate plasma phosphorous concentration?

A

Increased hormone causes the kidneys to increase the rate of phosphate excretion, which decreases the plasma phosphate concentration

457
Q

What hormones increase bone resorption?

A

PTH

Vitamin D

458
Q

What does Calcitonin do to bone?

A

It decreases bone resorption

459
Q

Which Ca regulatory hormone has no role to play in kidneys or intestines?

A

Calcitonin

460
Q

Which hormone is secreted when serum Calcium is low?

A

PTH

461
Q

Does serum levels of phosphate have an effect on PTH levels?

A

No

462
Q

What % of body weight is blood?

A

8%

463
Q

What is hematocrit

A

Proportion of cellular elements of blood

464
Q

What is the most important transport medium in the body?

A

Blood

465
Q

Serum = blood minus ?

A

Fibrin clot and blood cells

466
Q

Physical nature of serum

A

Clear, thin and sticky fluid

467
Q

How does serum differ from plasma?

A

Serum lacks fibrin and other coagulation products

468
Q

Plasma = blood minus ?

A

Formed elements

469
Q

What % of blood is plasma?

A

55%

470
Q

What are the contents of plasma?

A

Proteins
Water
Other solutes

471
Q

What % of plasma is proteins?

A

7%

472
Q

What proteins are contained within plasma?

A

Albumins
Globulins
Fibrinogen

473
Q

What % of plasma is water?

A

91%

474
Q

What is the major content of plasma?

A

Water

475
Q

What are the trace elements of plasma (other solutes)?

A
Metabolic end products
Food materials
Respiratory gases
Hormones
Ions
476
Q

What % of blood is hematocrit?

A

45%

477
Q

What are the formed elements?

A

Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Thrombocytes

478
Q

Function of platelets

A

Hemostasis - agglutinate and plug small ruptured vessels

479
Q

How many steps are in the process of hemostasis?

A

Three

  • Vasoconstriction
  • Platelet aggregation
  • Coagulation
480
Q

What is the need for an extrinsic or intrinsic pathway?

A

These pathways form prothrombin activator, which helps in production of thrombin from prothrombin