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Bootcamp > Day 1 > Flashcards

Day 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the body’s structural hiearchy?

A
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2
Q

A system

A

consists of related organs with a common function

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3
Q

What are the 11 organ systems?

A
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4
Q

What does it mean for an organ system Interrelationship?

A

Cells and organs work
cooperatively in the
body to maintain well
being

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5
Q

internal environment vs external environment

A

internal: only within the body
external: has an external outlet and potential for pathogen introduction

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6
Q

example of internal environment

A

cardiovascular system

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7
Q

example of external environment

A

the mouth and anus-digestive system
mouth and nose-respiratory system

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8
Q

What is homestasis?

A

-Maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment despite continuous outside changes
-a dynamic state of equilibrium

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9
Q

What is homestatic control mechanism

A

involves continuous monitoring and regulation of factors

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10
Q

How does the nervous and endocrine systems accomplish communication?

A

via nerve impulses and hormones

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11
Q

What are the components for a control mechanism?

A
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12
Q

first step of control mechanism

A

stimulus produce changes in the variable

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13
Q

second step of control mechanism

A

receptor detects change

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14
Q

third step of control mechanism

A

Input: information sent along afferent pathway to control center

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15
Q

fourth step of control mechanism

A

Output: information sent along the efferent pathway to effector

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16
Q

fifth step of control mechanism

A

response of effector feeds back to reduce the effect of stimulus and returns variable to homestatic level

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17
Q

Negative Feedback

A

response reverses the original stimulus

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18
Q

Type of regulation for body temp

A

-nervous mechanism
-sweating/shivering

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19
Q

Type of regulation of blood pressure

A

-nervous mechanism

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20
Q

type of regulation of blood sugar

A

hormonal mechanism

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21
Q

Negative Feedback in thermoregulation

A
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22
Q

Negative Feeback for body temp

A
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23
Q

Positive feedback

A

-self-amplifying cycle
-normal way of producing rapid changes
-can be dangerous

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24
Q

Negative Feedback for blood pressue

A
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25
Q

Examples of positive feedback

A

childbirth, blood clotting, protein digestion, and generation of nerve signals

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26
Q

Positive feeback of child birth

A
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27
Q

what are the Synovial Joints: Movements?

A
  1. gliding
  2. angular movements (sagittal)
    -flexion
    -extension
    -hyperextension
  3. angular movements (frontal)
    -adduction
    -abduction
    -circumduction
    -rotation
  4. special movements
    -supination
    -pronation
    -dorsiflexion
    -plantarflexion
    -inversion
    -eversion
    -protaction
    -retraction
    -elevation
    -depression
    -opposition
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28
Q

Gliding Movement

A

One bone surface glides or slips over another similar surface

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29
Q

**

What is Angular Movements (sagittal)?

A

Movements that occur along the sagittal plane:
i. Flexion — decreases the angle of the joint
ii. Extension — increases the angle of the joint
iii. Hyperextension — excessive extension beyond
normal range of motion

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30
Q

What are the covered? angular movement (sagittal)

A
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31
Q

What are the covered? angular movement (sagittal)

A
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32
Q

what are Angular Movements (frontal)?

A

Movements that occur along the frontal plane:

Abduction — movement away from the midline

Adduction — movement toward the midline

Circumduction — flexion + abduction + extension + adduction of a limb so as to describe a cone in space – 360o possible

Rotation — turning of a bone around its own long axis – 360o not possible

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33
Q

what are covered? Angular Movements (frontal)

A
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34
Q

what are covered? Angular Movements (frontal)

A
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35
Q

what are Special Movements of radius around the ulna?

A

Supination (turning hand backward)
Pronation (turning hand forward)

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36
Q

what are special movement of Movements of the foot?

A

Dorsiflexion (upward movement)
Plantar flexion (downward movement)
Inversion (turn sole medially)
Eversion (turn sole laterally)

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37
Q

what special movements in a transverse plane?

A

Protraction (anterior movement)
Retraction (posterior movement)

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38
Q

what are special movement of the thumb?

A

Opposition of the thumb

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39
Q

what are the covered Movements of radius around ulna?

A
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40
Q

what is th special movement of the foot?

A
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41
Q

what is th special movement of the foot?

A
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42
Q

what special movements involved with using a body part?

A

Elevation (lifting a body part superiorly)
Depression (moving a body part inferiorly)

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43
Q
A
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44
Q

what are Major Elements of the Human Body?

A

Oxygen (O)
Carbon (C)
Hydrogen (H)
Nitrogen (N)
Calcium (Ca)
Phosphorous (P)

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45
Q

What is the percentage of Major Elements of the Human Body?

A

About 98.5% of body mass

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46
Q

What is a mineral?

A

Inorganic elements extracted from soil by plants and passed up food chain to humans

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47
Q

What are inorganic elements used by the body?

A

Ca, P, Cl, Mg, K, Na, and S

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48
Q

Why inorganic elements are important?

A

-Constitute about 4% of body weight
-Important for body structure (Ca crystals in teeth, bones, etc.)
-Important for enzymes’ functions
-Electrolytes
mineral salts (e.g NaCl) needed for nerve and muscle function

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49
Q

What does the atomic structure look like?

A
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50
Q

What is an Electrolyte?

A

substances that ionize (form ions) in water and form solutions capable of conducting electric current

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51
Q

Why is electrolyte important?

A

-Chemical reactivity, osmotic effects, electrical excitability of nerve and muscle
-Electrolyte balance is one of the most important considerations in patient care (imbalances can lead to coma or cardiac arrest)

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52
Q

Electrons occupy up to how many electron shells (energy levels) around nucleus?

A

seven

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53
Q

What is the Octet rule?

A

Except for the first shell which is full with two electrons, atoms interact in a manner to have eight electrons in their outermost energy level (valence shell)

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54
Q

What are chemically reactive elements? 4

A
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55
Q

What does a single covalent bond look like?

A
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56
Q

What does a double covalent bond look like?

A
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57
Q

What does an ionic bond look like?

A
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58
Q

What is the strongest to weakest bonds?

A

Strongest
Triple covalent
Double covalent
Single covalent
Hydrogen
Van der walls
Weakest

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59
Q

What does a nonpolar vs polar covalent bond look like?

A
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60
Q

Define Hydrogen Bond

A

a weak attraction between a slightly positive hydrogen atom (electropositive) in one molecule and a slightly negative (electronegative) oxygen or nitrogen atom in another
-Water molecules are attracted to each other by hydrogen bonds
-Large molecules (DNA and proteins) shaped by hydrogen bonds within them
-Important to physiology

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61
Q

Types of chemical reaction?

A

-decomposition reaction
-synthesis reaction
-exchange reaction

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62
Q

What are Reversible reactions?

A

-Can go in either direction under different circumstances
-Symbolized with double-headed arrow

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63
Q

what is metabolism?

A

all chemical reactions of the body

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64
Q

what is catabolism?

A

-Energy-releasing (exergonic) decomposition reactions
Breaks covalent bonds
Produces smaller molecules

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65
Q

what is anabolism?

A

-Energy-storing (endergonic) synthesis reactions
Requires energy input
Production of protein or fat

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66
Q

what is the link between catabolism and anabolism?

A

Anabolism is driven by energy released by catabolism

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67
Q

what is solvency?

A

ability to dissolve other chemicals

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68
Q

universal solvent is?

A

water

Metabolic reactions depend on solvency of water

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69
Q

what is the meaning of Hydrophilic? and give example

A

substances that dissolve in water
Molecules must be polarized or charged (e.g., sugar)

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70
Q

Hydrophobic?

A

substances that do not dissolve in water
Molecules are nonpolar or neutral (e.g., fats)

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71
Q

example of dehydration synthesis

A
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72
Q

example of hydrolysis reaction

A
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73
Q

what is osmolarity?

A

A measure of the [solute] of a solution

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74
Q

Solution=

A

Solute + Solvent

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75
Q

example of solution=Solute + Solvent

A
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76
Q

Neutral solution pH?

A

All neutral solutions are pH 7

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77
Q

pH =

A

the negative logarithm of [H+] in moles/liter
pH = -log [H+]

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78
Q

pH scale

A
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79
Q

A change of one number on the pH scale represents ?

A

a 10-fold change in H^+ concentration

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80
Q

Acid-Base Homeostasis is important why?

A

-pH change interferes with cell function and may damage living tissue
-Slight change in pH can be fatal
-pH is regulated by kidneys, lungs, and buffers

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81
Q

what is a Buffer?

A

-chemical solutions that resist changes in pH
-Maintaining normal (slightly basic) pH of blood is crucial for physiological functions

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82
Q

Name the cellular structure

A
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83
Q

what does fibroblast do?

A

Cells that connect body parts

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84
Q

what do erythocytes do?

A

transport gases

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85
Q

what do epithelial cells do?

A

form linings

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86
Q

what do nerve cells do?

A

Cell that gathers information
and control body functions

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87
Q

what do skeletal muscle cells and smooth muscle cells do?

A

Cells that move organs and
body parts

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88
Q

what do macrophages do?

A

cells that fight disease

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89
Q

what do fat cells do?

A

cells that stores nutrients

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90
Q

what do sperm cells do

A

cells of reproduction

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91
Q

what is the basic cell structure?

A
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92
Q

Name strucures in the plasma membrane

A
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93
Q

what is the function of receptor membrane protein?

A

A receptor that binds to chemical messengers such as hormones sent by other cells

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94
Q

what is the function of enzyme membrane protein

A

An enzyme that breaks down a chemical messenger and terminates its effect

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95
Q

what is the function of the channel membrane protein

A

A channel protein that is constantly open and allows solutes to pass into and out of the cell

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96
Q

what is the function of gated channel membrane protein?

A

A gate that opens and closes to allow solutes through only at certain times

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97
Q

what is the function of a cell-identifying membrane protein?

A

A glycoprotein acting as a cell-identity marker distinguishing the body’s own cells from foreign cells

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98
Q

what is the fuinction of a cell-adhesion molecule (CAM) membrane protein?

A

A cell-adhesion molecule (CAM) that binds one cell to another

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99
Q

what is hydrophobic?

A

-afraid of water
=lipophillic

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100
Q

what is hydrophillic?

A

-loves water
=lipophobic

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101
Q

Name the structures in the second messengers system

A
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102
Q

Name the steps in second messengers system

A
  1. A messenger such as epinephrine (red triangle) binds to a receptor in the plasma membrane.
  2. The receptor releases a G protein, which then travels freely in the cytoplasm and can go on to step 3 or have various other effects on the cell.
  3. The G protein binds to an enzyme, adenylate cyclase, in the plasma membrane. Adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP), the second messenger.
  4. cAMP activates a cytoplasmic enzyme called a kinase.
  5. Kinases add phosphate groups (P_i ) to other cytoplasmic enzymes. This activates some enzymes and deactivates others, leading to varied metabolic effects in the cell.
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103
Q

what are the membrane junctions? 3

A
  1. Tight junction
  2. Desmosome
  3. Gap junction
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104
Q

what is the function of tight junctions?

A

Prevent fluids and most molecules from moving between cells

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105
Q

Name the structure in the tight junction

A
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106
Q

What is the function of desmosomes?

A

“Rivets” that anchor cells together

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107
Q

Name the structure of desmosome

A
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108
Q

what is the function of gap junction?

A

Transmembrane proteins form pores that allow small molecules to pass from cell to cell

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109
Q

Name the structure of gap junction

A
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110
Q

Types of extension of membrane? 2

A

microvilli
cillia

111
Q

what is the function of microvilli?

A

-Gives 15 to 40 times more surface area
-Best developed in cells specialized in absorption
-On some absorptive cells very dense
-Appear as a fringe “brush border”

-Some microvilli contain actin filaments that are tugged toward center of cell to milk absorbed contents into cell

112
Q

what is cillia?

A

hairlike processes 7–10 μm long

113
Q

what is function of nonmotile cilium?

A

-found on nearly every cell
-“Antenna” for monitoring nearby conditions
-Helps with balance in inner ear; light detection in retina
-Found on sensory cells of nose

114
Q

what is the function of motile cilia?

A

-respiratory tract, uterine tubes, ventricles of brain, ducts of testes
-50 to 200 on each cell
-Beat in waves sweeping material across a surface in one direction
-Power strokes followed by recovery strokes

115
Q

function of a selectively permeable plasma membrane

A

Some molecules easily pass through the membrane; others do not

116
Q

what is the function of filtration?

A

particles are driven through membrane by physical pressure
(rather than due to a chemical concentration gradient)

117
Q

what is passive membrane transport?

A

-No cellular energy (ATP) required
-Substance moves down/with its concentration gradient

118
Q

what is active membrane transport?

A

-Energy (ATP) required
-Substance usually moving up/against its concentration gradient
-Occurs only in living cell membranes

119
Q

Name all passive membrane transport types

A

1.simple diffusion
2. facilitated diffusion
3.osmosis

120
Q

Name all active membrane transport types

A
  1. active transport
    -primary
    -secondary
  2. vesicular transport
    -endocytosis
    +phagocytosis
    +pinocytosis
    -exocytosis
121
Q

Example of simple diffusion membrane transport

A

Simple diffusion of fat-soluble molecules
directly through the phospholipid bilayer

122
Q

Steps of facilitated diffusion membrane transport

A
  1. A solute particle enters the channel of a membrane protein (carrier).
  2. The solute binds to a receptor site on the carrier and the carrier changes conformation.
  3. The carrier releases the solute on the other side of the membrane.
123
Q

what is the process of osmosis membrane transport?

A

-The movement of water from a area of high water concentration to an area of lower water concentration.
-However, there is a better way to think about osmosis……………. water follows the solutes.
-Wherever the solute (usually sodium) goes, water follows!
-Water concentration is determined by solute concentration

124
Q

what is osmolarity?

A

-The measure of total concentration of solute particles
-number of osmoles per liter of solution
-Body fluids contain a mix of many chemicals, and osmolarity is the total osmotic concentration of all solutes
-Blood plasma, tissue fluid, and intracellular fluid are 300 milliosmoles per liter (mOsm/L)

125
Q

When solutions of different osmolarity are separated by a membrane, osmosis occurs until when?

A

equilibrium is reached
-One osmole (osm) = 1 mole of dissolved particles
-Takes into account whether solute ionizes in water
-1 M glucose is 1 osm/L
-1 M NaCl is 2 osm/L

126
Q

What is necessary for active membrane transport?

A

-Both use ATP to move solutes across a plasma membrane
Examples: ions, some sugars and amino acids
-Active transport requires carrier proteins (solute pumps)
-Active transport moves solutes against a concentration gradient

127
Q

Difference between primary and secondary active membrane transport

A

Primary active transport:
carrier moves solute through a membrane up its concentration gradient using ATP directly for energy
Ex: Sodium–potassium pump

Secondary active transport:
carrier moves solute through membrane but only uses ATP indirectly
Ex: sodium-glucose transporte

128
Q

what is the function of vesicular transport?

A

-moves large particles, fluid droplets, or numerous molecules at once through the membrane in vesicles
-Vesicles: bubble-like enclosures of membrane (made of phospholipids)
-utilizes motor proteins energized by ATP

129
Q

what is the function of endocytosis vesicular transport?

A

vesicular processes that bring material into cell
-Phagocytosis—“cell eating,”
-Pinocytosis—“cell drinking,”
-Receptor-mediated endocytosis

130
Q

what is the function of exocytosis vesicular transport?

A

discharging material out of the cell

131
Q

where is cytoplasm located?

A

Located between plasma membrane and nucleus

132
Q

what is the cytosol?

A

Water with solutes (protein, salts, sugars, etc.)

133
Q

what is cytoplasmic organelles?

A

Metabolic machinery of cell

134
Q

what are inclusions?

A

Granules of glycogen or pigments, lipid droplets, vacuoles, and crystals

135
Q

Name the structure of cytoskeleton

A
136
Q

what is the function of cytoplasmis organelles?

A

Internal structures of a cell, carry out specialized metabolic tasks

137
Q

Name the membranous cytoplasmic organelles

A

Nucleus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes

138
Q

Name the nonmembranous cytoplasmic organelles

A

Ribosomes
Proteasome
Centriole

139
Q

nitrogenous bases are united by?

A

hydrogen bonds

140
Q

Purine on one strand always bound to

A

pyrimidine on the other

141
Q

how many hydrogen bonds in A – T

A

(two hydrogen bonds)

142
Q

how many hydrogen bonds in C – G

A

(three hydrogen bonds)

143
Q

what is Law of complementary base pairing

A

One strand determines base sequence of other

144
Q

what is a gene?

A

a segment of DNA coding for the synthesis of a specific protein

145
Q

what is genome?

A

-all the genes of one person
-Humans have about 20,000 genes
+Only about 2% of total DNA
+Other 98% is noncoding DNA
^Plays role in chromosome structure
^Regulation of gene activity

146
Q

what are the steps of DNA storage

A
  1. DNA double helix
  2. DNA winds around core particles (histones) to form nucleosomes 11 nm in diameter
  3. Nucleosomes fold accordion-like into zigzag fiber 30 nm in diameter
  4. 30 nm fiber is thrown into irregular loops to form a fiber 300 nm thick
  5. In dividing cells, looped chromatin coils further into a 700 nm fiber to form each chromatid
  6. Chromosome at the midpoint (metaphase) of cell division
147
Q

what is the updated definition of gene?

A

an information-containing segment of DNA that codes for the production of a molecule of RNA that plays a role in synthesizing one or more proteins

148
Q

how many amino acids?

A

20

149
Q

genes are encoded by how many and what nucleotides?

A

four nucleotides (A, T, C, G)

150
Q

what is the minimum code to symbolize 20 amino acids?

A

three nucleotides per amino acid

151
Q

what are the steps in Gene Expression: DNA to Proteins

A

Step 1: Transcription
– RNA is synthesized from the sense strand of DNA

Step 2: Translation
– polypeptides are synthesized using RNA codons as a template for assembly of the correct order of amino acids

152
Q

what are the steps of transcription

A
  1. genes are portion of DNA that code for a particular protein
  2. triplets, the three-base sequence code for amino acid sequences
  3. transcribed mRNA codons, which are complementary to the code in DNA triplets
  4. RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter sequence
  5. DNA uncoils and separates
  6. Free RNA nucleotide aligns and is added to the new RNA strand- RNA synthesis begins
  7. RNA polymerase moves down the DNA-RNA elongates
  8. Elongation
153
Q

what are the steps of translation?

A
  1. in the ribosomal subunit, there is a codon on P site and a codon on A site
  2. peptide bond is formed between the codons, the tRNA with next amino acid to be added to polypeptide
  3. tRNA is released from P site ribosome mvoes one codon. New tRNA binds to A site
  4. another peptide bond is forms. tRNA with next amino acid to be added to polypeptide
  5. tRNA is released from P site, ribosome moves one codon. New tRNA binds to A site
154
Q

When does splicing occur?

A

between transcription and translation

155
Q

When translated, a given codon specifies?

A

a particular amino acid

156
Q

What is the overall steps for peptide formation?

A
  1. start with DNA double helix
  2. Seven base triplets on the template strand of DNA
  3. The corresponding codons of mRNA transcribed from the DNA triplets
  4. The anticodons of tRNA that bind to the mRNA codons
  5. The amino acids carried by those six tRNA molecules
  6. The amino acids linked into a peptide chain
157
Q

what is the process of protein processing and secretion?

A
  1. Protein formed by ribosomes on rough ER
  2. Protein packaged into transport vesicle, which buds from ER
  3. Transport vesicles fuse into clusters that unload protein into Golgi complex
  4. Golgi complex modifies protein structure
  5. Golgi vesicle containing finished protein is formed
  6. Secretory vesicles release protein by exocytosis
158
Q

what is the process of semiconservative DNA replication?

A
  1. Initiation: The process begins at specific sites on the DNA molecule called origins of replication.
    Enzymes, such as helicase, unwind and separate the two strands of the double helix at the origin, creating a replication bubble with two replication forks.
  2. Priming: DNA primase synthesizes short RNA primers complementary to the DNA template strands. These primers provide a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase.
  3. Elongation: DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides to the growing DNA strand in the 5’ to 3’ direction (new DNA strand) and reads the template strand in the 3’ to 5’ direction (parental DNA strand).
    The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the direction of the replication fork, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously as Okazaki fragments.
  4. Okazaki Fragment Synthesis: On the lagging strand, as the replication fork opens further, primase generates new RNA primers, and DNA polymerase III synthesizes short DNA fragments called Okazaki fragments.
    DNA polymerase I replaces the RNA primers with DNA and fills the gaps between Okazaki fragments.
  5. Proofreading and Repair: DNA polymerase has a proofreading function that checks for errors and corrects them during DNA synthesis.
    Mismatch repair enzymes scan the newly synthesized DNA for errors and correct them, ensuring the accuracy of the replicated DNA.
  6. Termination: Replication continues bidirectionally until the entire DNA molecule is copied.
    When the replication forks meet at specific termination sites, DNA replication is completed.
  7. Telomere Replication (in eukaryotic cells): Telomeres, the protective caps at the ends of linear chromosomes, are challenging to fully replicate due to the nature of DNA synthesis.
    The enzyme telomerase helps extend telomeres by adding repetitive DNA sequences to the ends of the lagging strand, preventing loss of essential genetic information.

Completion: The result is two DNA molecules, each composed of one original strand and one newly synthesized strand.

*Semiconservative replication: each daughter DNA consists of one old and one new strand

159
Q

what are the Two major parts of cell cycle

A

Interphase
Cell division (Mitotic phase)

160
Q

Name the parts of the cell cycle

A

Cell division (Mitotic phase)
first gap phase
synthesis phase
second gap phase

some nerve cells are amitotic

161
Q

what is the goal of cell cycle?

A

Produce two identical daughter cells

162
Q

what are the types of tissues?

A

Epithelial Tissue
Connective Tissue
Muscle Tissue
Nervous Tissue

163
Q

what is the function of nervous tissue?

A

Internal communication
* Brain, spinal cord, and nerves

164
Q

what is the function of muscle tissue?

A

Contracts to cause movement
* Muscles attached to bones (skeletal)
* Muscles of heart (cardiac)
* Muscles of walls of hollow organs (smooth)

165
Q

what is the function of epithelial tissue?

A

Forms boundaries between different
environments, protects, secretes, absorbs, filters
* Skin surface (epidermis)
* Lining of GI tract organs and other hollow organs

166
Q

what is the function of connective tissue?

A

Supports, protects, binds
other tissues together
* Bones
* Tendons
* Fat and other soft padding tissue

167
Q

main types epithelial tissue? LOCATION

A
  1. Covering and lining epithelia
    On external and internal surfaces
  2. Glandular epithelia
    Secretory tissue in glands
168
Q

what are the characteristics of epithelial tissue?

A
  1. Cells have polarity
    apical (upper, free) and basal (lower, attached) surfaces
  2. Are composed of closely packed cells; junctions
  3. Supported by a connective tissue reticular lamina (under the basal lamina)
  4. Avascular but innervated
  5. High rate of regeneration
169
Q

Name the cell shap and epithelial type

A
170
Q

Types of covering and lining epithelia?

A
171
Q

what are characteristics of simple squamous epithelium?

A

Single row of thin cells
Permits rapid diffusion or transport of substances
Secretes serous fluid
Locations: alveoli, glomeruli, endothelium, and serosa=

172
Q

Name the structure of respiratory anatomy

A
173
Q

what are characteristics of Simple Cuboidal Epithelium

A

-Single layer of square or round cells
-Absorption and secretion, mucus production and movement
-Locations: liver, thyroid, mammary and salivary glands, bronchioles, and kidney tubules

174
Q

Where is Simple Cuboidal Epithelium located?

A

liver, thyroid, mammary and salivary glands, bronchioles, and kidney tubules

175
Q

Name that cell type

A

Simple Cuboidal Epithelium

176
Q

what are characteristics of Simple Columnar Epithelium?

A

-Single row of tall, narrow cells
-Oval nuclei in basal half of cell
-Brush border of microvilli, ciliated in some organs, may possess goblet cells
-Absorption and secretion; secretion of mucus
-Locations: lining of GI tract, uterus, kidney, and uterine tubes

cilliated

177
Q

Name that cell type

A

Simple Columnar Epithelium

178
Q

where is Simple Columnar Epithelium located?

A

Locations: lining of GI tract, uterus, kidney, and uterine tubes

179
Q

Name that cell type

A

Pseudostratified Epithelium

180
Q

What are characteristics of Pseudostratified Epithelium?

A

-Looks multilayered, but all cells touch basement membrane
-Nuclei at several layers
-Has cilia and goblet cells
-Secretes and propels mucus
-Locations: respiratory tract and portions of male urethra

181
Q

Where is Pseudostratified Epithelium located?

A

Locations: respiratory tract and portions of male urethra

182
Q

what are characteristics of Stratified Epithelia?

A

-Stratified squamous is most widespread epithelium in the body

-Deepest layers undergo continuous mitosis:
Daughter cells push toward the surface and become flatter as they migrate upward
Finally die and flake off (exfoliation or desquamation)

-Two kinds of stratified squamous epithelia:
Keratinized — found on skin surface, abrasion resistant
Nonkeratinized — lacks surface layer of dead cells

183
Q

Difference between keratinized vs non-keratinized?

A

Keratinized — found on skin surface, abrasion resistant (dry)
ex: sole feet
Nonkeratinized — lacks surface layer of dead cells
(moist)
ex: esophagus

184
Q

what are characteristics of Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium?

A

-Multiple cell layers; cells become flat and scaly toward surface
-Resists abrasion; retards water loss through skin; resists penetration by pathogenic organisms
-Locations: epidermis; palms and soles heavily keratinized

In basal layer, mitosis occurs and pushes up the squamous layer with new cell formation

185
Q

Name that cell type

A

Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium

186
Q

Where is Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium located?

A

Locations: epidermis; palms and soles heavily keratinized

187
Q

what are characteristics of Non-keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium?

A

-Same as keratinized epithelium without surface layer of dead cells
-Resists abrasion and penetration of pathogens
-Locations: tongue, oral mucosa, esophagus, and vagina

188
Q

Name that cell type

A

Non-keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium

189
Q

Where is Non-keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium located?

A

Locations: tongue, oral mucosa, esophagus, and vagina

190
Q

what are characteristics of Stratified Cuboidal Epithelium?

A

-Two or more cell layers; surface cells square or round
-Secretes sweat; produces sperm, produces ovarian hormones
-Locations: sweat gland ducts; ovarian follicles and seminiferous tubules

191
Q

Name that cell type

A

Stratified Cuboidal Epithelium

192
Q

Where is Stratified Cuboidal Epithelium located?

A

Locations: sweat gland ducts; ovarian follicles and seminiferous tubules

193
Q

what are characteristics of Transitional Epithelium?

A

Multilayered epithelium with surface cells that change from round to flat when stretched
Allows for filling of urinary tract
Locations: ureter and bladder

194
Q

Name that cell type

A

Transitional Epithelium

195
Q

where is Transitional Epithelium located?

A

Locations: ureter and bladder

196
Q

Name that connective tissue cells

A
197
Q

Types of connective tissue fibers? 3

A
  1. collagen
  2. elastic
  3. reticular
198
Q

what are characteristics of collagen fiber?

A

Strongest and most abundant type
Provides high tensile strength

199
Q

what are characteristics of elastic fibers?

A

Networks of long, thin, elastin fibers that allow for stretch

200
Q

what are characteristics of reticular fibers?

A

Short, fine, highly branched collagenous fibers

201
Q

what is the classification of connective tissue

A

I. Loose connective tissue
A. Areolar connective tissue
B. Adipose tissue
C. Reticular connective tissue
**
II. Dense connective tissue**
D. Dense regular connective tissue
E. Dense irregular connective tissue
F. Elastic connective tissue
**
III. Cartilage**
G. Hyaline cartilage
H. Elastic cartilage
I. Fibrocartilage
**
IV. Bone tissue**
J. Osseous tissue

V. Liquid connective tissue
K. Blood and lymph tissue

202
Q

what are characteristics of muscle tissue?

A

-cells that are specialized to contract in response to stimulation
-Primary job is to exert physical force on other tissues and organs
-Creates movements involved in body and limb movement, digestion, waste elimination, breathing, speech, and blood circulation
-Important source of body heat
Three types of muscle:
1. skeletal
2. cardiac
3. smooth

203
Q

```

what are the 3 types of muscle tissue?

A

skeletal
cardiac
smooth

204
Q

what are characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue?

A

-Made of muscle fibers (long thin cells)
-Most skeletal muscles attach to bone
-Contains multiple nuclei adjacent to plasma membrane
-Striations (alternating dark and light bands)
-Voluntary control

205
Q

name that tissue type

A

skeletal muscle tissue

206
Q

what are chracteristics of cardiac muscle tissue?

A

-Limited to the heart
-Cardiomyocytes are branched, shorter than skeletal muscle fibers
-Contain one centrally located nucleus
-Intercalated discs join cardiomyocytes end to end
+Provide electrical and mechanical connection
-Striated and involuntary

207
Q

Name that tissue type

A

cardiasc muscle tissue

208
Q

what are characteristics of smooth muscle tissue?

A

-Made of fusiform myocytes lacking striations
Cells are relatively short and have one central nucleus
-Involuntary function
-Most is visceral muscle—making up parts of walls of hollow organs

209
Q

Name that tissue type

A

smooth muscle tissue

210
Q

what are characteristics of nervous tissue?

A

-Specialized for communication by electrical and chemical signals
-Consists of neurons (nerve cells)
+Detect stimuli
+Respond quickly
+Transmit coded information rapidly to other cells
-Neuroglia (glial)
+Protect and assist neurons
+“Housekeepers” of nervous system
+More numerous than neurons

211
Q

Name that tissue type

A

nervouse tissue

212
Q

What organs can have both endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

pancreas, ovaries and testes

213
Q

what are the functions of the integumentary system

A
  1. protection
  2. body temp regulation
  3. cutaneous sensations
  4. metabolic functions
  5. blood resevoir
  6. excretion
  7. non-verbal communication
214
Q

what are the protective functions of the integumentary system?

A

-Chemical barriers
Skin secretions fight bacteria
Melanin protects against UV rays

-Physical/mechanical barriers
Keratin and glycolipids block most water and water- soluble substances
Limited penetration of skin by lipid-soluble substances

-Biological barriers
Dendritic cells and macrophages

215
Q

how is the body temperature regulated?

A

Thermoreceptors
Sweat for evaporative cooling
Vasoconstriction/vasodilation

216
Q

1.

what are the types of cutaneous sensations?

A

Pain, Pressure, Temperature

217
Q
A
218
Q

what metabolic functions of the integumentary system?

A

Synthesis of vitamin D; Skin carries out first step, Liver and kidneys complete process

219
Q

how much blood does the integumentary system hold?

A

— Up to 5% of body’s blood volume

220
Q

What is excreted by the integumentary system?

A

— Salt and nitrogenous wastes in sweat

221
Q

what are the major regions of the skin?

A

Epidermis — superficial region
Dermis — middle region
Hypodermis — deeper region

222
Q

Name the structure of the skin and subcutaneous tissue

A
223
Q

Name the Strata and Cell Types of the Epidermis

A
224
Q

what is the difference between thin and thick skin?

A

lucidum layer. Thin skin contains four strata; thick skin contains five strata

Come, Lets Get Sun Burned!

225
Q

what is the function of dedritic cells in the epidermis

A

Langerhans (aka Dendritic cells) – immune function

226
Q

what is the function od tactile cell in the epidermis

A

Merkel cell (aka tactile cell) – detecting touch

227
Q

what is the function of melanocytes in the epidermis

A

Melanocytes – produces melanin

228
Q

what is the function of kerartinocytes in the epidermis

A

Keratinocytes – produces keratin

229
Q

what are the layers of the epidermis?

A

-Stratum basale (deepest epidermal layer)
-Stratum spinosum
-Stratum granulosum
-Stratum lucidum
-Stratum corneum (surface layer)

Come, lets get sun burned!

230
Q

Describe the stratum basale

A

Stratum basale (deepest epidermal layer)
A single layer of stem cells divide and give rise to keratinocytes that migrate toward skin surface to replace lost cells

231
Q

Describe the stratum spinosum

A

Stratum spinosum
Several layers of keratinocytes joined together by desmosomes and tight junctions

232
Q

Describe the stratum granulosum

A

Stratum granulosum
Three to five layers of flat keratinocytes; Cells contain dark-staining keratohyalin granules

233
Q

Describe the stratum lucidum

A

Stratum lucidum
Thin, pale layer found only in thick skin; Keratinocytes packed with clear protein eleidin

234
Q

Describe the Stratum corneum

A

Stratum corneum (surface layer)
Several layers of dead, scaly, keratinized cells; Resists abrasion, penetration, water loss

235
Q

what are the cells of the epidermis

A
  1. Stem cells
    Give rise to keratinocytes. Found only in the deepest layer, the stratum basale.
  2. Keratinocytes
    Great majority of epidermal cell; Synthesize keratin
  3. Melanocytes
    Synthesize pigment melanin that shields DNA from ultraviolet radiation
    Occur only in stratum basale but have branched processes that spread among keratinocytes and distribute melanin
  4. Tactile cells
    Touch receptor cells associated with dermal nerve fibers
    In basal layer of epidermis
  5. Dendritic cells
    Several layers of keratinocytes joined together by desmosomes and tight junctions
236
Q

what are the tissue layers beneath the epidermis

A

-Composed mainly of collagen
-Well supplied with blood vessels, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve endings; houses hair follicles and nail roots

  1. Papillary layer — top superficial zone of dermis (20%)
    Thin zone of areolar tissue in and near the dermal papilla
    Allows for mobility of leukocytes and other defense cells
    Rich in small blood vessels
  2. Reticular layer — deeper and thicker layer of dermis (80%)
    Consists of dense, irregular connective tissue
    Stretch marks (striae): tears in the collagen fibers caused by stretching of the skin due to pregnancy or obesity
237
Q

Name that tissue

A

papillary layer and reticular layer of the dermis

238
Q

what are characteristics of hypodermis

A

-Subcutaneous tissue
-Has more areolar and adipose than dermis has
-Pads body and binds skin to underlying tissues
-Common site of drug injection since it has many blood vessels

239
Q

what are characteristics of subcutaneous fat?

A

-Energy reservoir
-Thermal insulation
-Thicker in women
-Thinner in infants, elderly

240
Q

what is the most significant factor for skin color?

A

Melanin is the most significant factor in skin color.
Produced by melanocytes, accumulates in keratinocytes

241
Q

what are Two kinds of sweat (sudoriferous) glands?

A
  1. Apocrine sweat glands
    Locations: groin, anal region, axilla, areola, beard (inactive until puberty)
    Respond to stress and sexual stimulation
    Believed to secrete pheromones—chemicals that can influence behavior of others
    Produce sweat that is milky and contains fatty acids (bacterial action)
    Ceruminous glands are modified apocrine glands in external ear canal, secreting cerumen (earwax).
  2. Merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands
    Most numerous skin glands—3 to 4 million in adult skin
    Especially dense on palms, soles, and forehead
    Watery perspiration that helps cool the body (thermoregulation)
242
Q

cell type found in both apocrine and merocrine glands?

A

Myoepithelial cells

243
Q

what is the function of myoepithelial cells?

A

Contract in response to stimulation by sympathetic nervous system and squeeze perspiration up the duct

244
Q

what are characteristics of sweating

A

-Begins as a protein-free filtrate of blood plasma produced by deep secretory portion of gland
-On average, 99% water, with pH range of 4 to 6
Acid mantle—inhibits bacterial growth
-Some sodium chloride and other small solutes remain in the sweat
Some sodium chloride reabsorbed by duct
-Insensible perspiration—500 mL/day
Does not produce visible wetness of skin
-Diaphoresis—sweating with wetness of the skin
Exercise—may lose 1 L sweat per hour

245
Q

what is the function of sebaceous glands?

A

-produce sebum

  • waterproofs and softens skin and hair
246
Q

what are the major functions of bones?

A
  1. Support
    For the body and soft organs
  2. Protection
    For brain, spinal cord, and vital organs
  3. Movement
    Levers for muscle action
  4. Blood electrolyte and acid/base balance
    Minerals (calcium and phosphorus) can buffer blood pH
  5. Blood cell formation
    (hematopoiesis) in marrow cavities
  6. Triglyceride (energy) storage
    in bone cavities
247
Q

Name the cartilage structures

A
248
Q

Name the type of bone structure

A
249
Q

what are characteristics of compact bone?

A

-Dense outer layer
-Skeleton three-fourths compact and one-fourth spongy bone by weight

250
Q

what are characteristics of spongy (callcellous) bone?

A

-Honeycomb of trabeculae
-Found in center of ends and center of shafts of long bones and in middle of nearly all others
-Covered by more durable compact bone

251
Q

Name the structures of a long bone

A
252
Q

Name the membrane structures of the bone

A
253
Q

What is the microscopic anatomy of the bone?

A

Bone is connective tissue that consists of cells, fibers, and ground substance

254
Q

What are cells in the bones?

A

1.Osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells
Stem cells in periosteum and endosteum that give rise to osteoblasts

  1. Osteoblasts
    Bone-forming cells
  2. Osteocytes
    Mature bone cells
  3. Osteoclasts
    Cells that break down (resorb) bone matrix
255
Q

what is the function of osteogenic cells?

A

Osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells
Stem cells in periosteum and endosteum that give rise to osteoblasts

256
Q

what is the function os osteoblast cells?

A

Osteoblasts
Bone-forming cells

257
Q

what is the function of the osteoctyte cells?

A

Osteocytes
Mature bone cells

258
Q

what is the function of the osteoclast cells?

A

Osteoclasts
Cells that break down (resorb) bone matrix

259
Q

what is the process of bone cell development?

A
260
Q

what is the bone matrix composed of?

A

Matrix of osseous tissue is, by dry weight, about one-third organic and two-thirds inorganic matter

1: Organic matter:
synthesized by osteoblasts
Collagen, carbohydrate–protein complexes, such as glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins

2: Inorganic matter:
85% hydroxyapatite (crystallized calcium phosphate salt)
10% calcium carbonate
Other minerals (fluoride, sodium, potassium, magnesium)

261
Q

What is the histology of compact bone consists of?

A

-Histology of compact bone reveals osteons (haversian systems)
+Concentric lamellae surround a central (haversian) canal running longitudinally
+Perforating canals — transverse or diagonal passages
+Circumferential lamellae fill outer region of dense bone
+Interstitial lamellae fill irregular regions between osteons

262
Q

What are characteristics of spongy bone?

A

-Spongy bone consists of:
+Lattice of bone covered with endosteum
Slivers of bone called spicules
Thin plates of bone called trabeculae
+Spaces filled with red bone marrow
-Few osteons and no central canals
+All osteocytes close to bone marrow
-Provides strength with minimal weight
+Trabeculae develop along bone’s lines of stress

263
Q

what is the histology of bone marrow?

A

-Bone marrow: soft tissue occupying marrow cavities of long bones and small spaces of spongy bone
-Red marrow (myeloid tissue)
Contains hemopoietic tissue — produces blood cells
In nearly every bone in a child
In adults, found in skull, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, part of pelvic girdle, and proximal heads of humerus and femur
-Yellow marrow found in adults
Fatty marrow that does not produce blood
Can transform back to red marrow in the event of chronic anemia

264
Q

Name the zones of metaphysis

A
265
Q

what are the steps of osteogenesis?

A

Osteogenesis (ossification)
bone tissue formation

Intramembranous ossification
Membrane bone develops from fibrous membrane
Forms flat bones: clavicles and cranial bones

Endochondral ossification
Cartilage (endochondral) bone forms by replacing hyaline cartilage
Forms most of the rest of the skeleton

266
Q

what factors affect calcium homestasis?

A

Calcium homeostasis depends on a balance between dietary intake, urinary and fecal losses, and exchanges between osseous tissue

267
Q

what hormones regulate calcium homestasis?

A
  1. Calcitriol: secreted when blood Ca2+ low (raises blood Ca2+)
  2. Parathyroid hormone: secreted when blood Ca2+ low (raises blood Ca2+)
  3. Calcitonin: secreted when blood Ca2+ high (lowers blood Ca2+)
268
Q

what is the function of calcitonin?

A

Calcitonin decreases blood Ca++ levels

Important in children, weak effect in adults

269
Q

what is the function of the parathyroid hormone?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases blood Ca++ levels

270
Q
A
271
Q

Identify the hormones while controlling the calcium balance

A
272
Q

Process for calcium homestasis

A
273
Q

what is the function of calcitriol?

A

Calcitriol is a hormone that raises blood calcium level

274
Q

where is calcitriol produced?

A

Produced by converting UV radiation at skin and actions of the liver and kidneys

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