Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PSA > Data interpretation > Flashcards

Data interpretation Flashcards

1
Q

Cautions and contraindications of ACEis

A

Pregnancy and breast feeding
Renovascular disease -> renal impairment
Aortic stenosis (may cause hypotension) (CAUTION)
idiopathic angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aminophylline infusions
Loading dose:

A

5 mg/kg given by slow IV over at least 20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maintenance infusion of aminophylline
Dose:

A

1g in 1L -> 1mg/ml
500-700mcg/kg/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Key regular investigation for a patient taking Aminosalicylates (sulphasalazine/mesalazine)

A

FBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adverse effects of AMIODARONE -BITCH

A

Bradycardia/Blue man
Interstitial Lung Disease
Thyroid (hyper and hypo)
Corneal (ocular)/Cutaneous (skin)
Hepatic/Hypotension when IV (due to solvents)

Thyroid dysfunction - both hypo and hyper thyroidism
Corneal deposits
Pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis
Liver fibrosis/hepatitis
slate-grey appearance
bradycardia
Lengthens QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Angina management: what should ALL patients received (in the absence of any other contraindication)

A

Aspirin and Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Angina management:
Reliever:
Maintenance:

A

GTN
CCB or BB

If used in combination, CCB should always be a DIHYDROPYRIDINE CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If patient cannot tolerate addition of BB or CCB in angina which drugs should be considered:

A

Long-acting nitrate
Ivabradine
Nicorandil
Ranolazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nitrate tolerance: What should be done

A

if taking isosorbide mononitrate - use asymmetric dosing -> daily nitrate free time of 10-14 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anti-platelets: ACS
1)
2)

A

1) Aspirin (lifelong) and Ticagrelor (12 months)
2) If aspirin contraindicated -> CLOPIDOGREL lifelong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anti-platelets: TIA or ischaemic stroke
1)
2)

A

1) CLOPIDOGREL (lifelong)
2) Aspirin and Dipyridamole (lifelong)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anti-platelets: Peripheral arterial disease

A

1) Clopidogrel (lifelong)
2) Aspirin (lifelong)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Anti-platelets: Post PCI

A

Aspirin (lifelong) & prasugrel or Ticagrelor
2) clopidogrel if Aspirin CI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AF: rhythm or rate control

A

Rate first for most

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

AF rate control:
If one drug does not control

A

BB or CCB (diltiazem)

ADD:
A betablocker
Diltiazem (CCB)
Digoxin
in combination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What test should be done prior to starting a patient on AZATHIOPRINE

A

TPMT test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is azathioprine safe in pregnancy

What drug should be monitored closely for interaction with azathioprine

A

Yes

ALLOPURINOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Side effects of BBs

A

Sleep disturbances - nightmares
Erectile dysfunction
Bronchospasm
Cold peripheries
Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contraindications of Beta blockers

A

Uncontrolled heart failure
Asthma
Sick sinus syndrome
Concurrent verapamil use - severe bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Uses of Bisphosphonates

A

Prevention and treatment of osteoporosis
Hypercalcaemia
Paget’s disease
Pain from bone metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adverse effects of bisphosphonates

A

Oesophageal reactions: oesophagitis
Osteonecrosis of jaw
atypical fractures - proximal femoral shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Advice for taking bisphosphonates

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Advice for taking bisphosphonates

A

Swallowed with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach 30 mins before breakfast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Uses of CARBAMAZEPINE

A

First line in PARTIAL seizures
First line in Trigeminal neuralgia
Bipolar disorder?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Blood dyscrasias from carbamazepine?

A

Leucopaenia
Agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Adverse effects of carbimazole

A

AGRANULOCYTOSIS
crosses placenta but may be used in small doses in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Heart failure: first line Mx

A

ACEi AND BB
one drug started at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Heart failure: second line therapy

A

Aldosterone antagonist: SPIRONOLACTONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What must be monitored for a Pt. on Spironolactone and ACEi

A

U&Es - Hyperkalaemia may ensue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Heart failure 3rd line therapy

A

To be initiated by a specialist
Ivabradine
Sacubitril-Valsartan
Digoxin
Hydralazine (++ useful in afrocaribbean patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Aside from medications, what other interventions should be offered in CHF

A

ONE OFF pneumococcal vaccine
ANNUAL flu vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What commonly prescribed medication for GORD is known to interact with CLOPIDOGREL

A

PPIs - make it less effective (lanzoprazole less so)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

C.difficile risk factor medication other than antibiotics

A

PPIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Current antibiotic therapy for C.difficile

A

Vancomycin (ORAL) 10 days
Second line: FIDAMOXICIN
Third-line: oral Vancomycin + IV Metronidazole (ALSO for life threatening C.dif)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

COPD stable management

A

SABA or SAMA as required
ATOPY? = SABA or SAMA PLUS LABA and ICS
No ATOPY= SABA PLUS (LABA/LAMA)

3) SABA as req. LABA + LAMA + ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis in COPD patients?

A

AZITHROMYCIN
LFTs and ECG should also carried out to exclude long QT syndrome/ elongation as Azithromycin can prolong the QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

STEROID SIDE EFFECTS: ‘CUSHINGOID’

A

Cataracts
Ulcers (peptic ulceration)
Skin: striae, thinning, bruising
Hypertension/ hirsutism/hyperglycaemia
Infections - immunocompromised
Necrosis - avascular necrosis of femoral head
Glycosuria
Osteoporosis/obesity
Immunosuppression
Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Steroid dose for pts. with intercurrent illness

A

Dose DOUBLED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T2DM if pts. has CV risk what should be added once established on metformin

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Diabetic neuropathy mx.

A

1) Amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, pregabalin
If one doesn’t work try another

TRAMADOL may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Diabetic - GI autonomic neuropathy mx.

A

Gastroparesis: Prokinetic agents - metoclopramide, domperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Drugs which decrease serum potassium

A

Loop diuretics
Acetazolamide
Thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Drugs which INCREASE serum potassium

A

ACEi/ARBs
Spironolactone
Amiloride
Potassium supplements: Sando K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Drugs causing peripheral neuropathy

A

Amiodarone
Isoniazid
Vincristine
Nitrofurantoin
Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Generalised tonic clonic seizures Mx.

A

Males: Sodium Valproate
Females: Lamotrigine or Levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Focal seizures Mx.

A

Leviteracetam or Lamotrigine
2) Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Absence seizures Mx.

A

1) Ethosuximide
2) Sodium Valproate (M)
2) Lamotrigine or Levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which anti-epileptic may exacerbate ABSENCE SEIZURES

A

CARBAMAZEPINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Essential tremor first line tx.

A

PROPRANOLOL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is EZETIMIBE

A

Lipid lowering drug - decreases cholesterol absorption in the small intestine by inhibiting cholesterol receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Main use for ezetimibe

A

Primary heterozygous-familial and non-familial hypercholesterolaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Maintenance fluids

A

25-30 ml/Kg day of water
1mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium and chloride
50-100 g a day of GLUCOSE to limit starvation ketosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Drugs to avoid in G6PD deficiency

A

CIPROFLOXACIN
Sulph-drugs - sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas
Antimalarials - Primaquin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

GORD management
Endoscopically proven oesophagitis

A

Endoscopically negative reflux disease: Full dose PPI one month -> if Negative, double dose

Endoscopically positive -> Full dose PPI one month ->
No response -> Prokinetics or H2 receptor antagonist

55
Q

In which two groups should thyroxine therapy be started at a lower dose

A

ELDERLY
IHD patients

56
Q

Starting dose of Thyroxine (non-IHD/elderly)

A

50-100 mcg OD

57
Q

Pregnant women on thyroxine should have their dose ___ by ___

A

INCREASED
25-50 mcg
Due to increased demands of pregnancy

58
Q

Side effects of THYROID therapy

A

Reduced bone mineral density
Worsening of angina
Atrial fibrillation

59
Q

Main interaction of Levothyroxine to look out for

A

Iron + calcium carbonate

60
Q

What is the effect of the iron/calcium interaction with Levothyroxine and how can this be mitigated

A

Absorption of levothyroxine REDUCED
Give at least 4 hours apart

61
Q

Which common cardiac medication commonly reduces HYPOGLYCAEMIC awareness

A

B-Blockers

62
Q

Electrolyte disturbances with LOOP diuretics

A

HYPONATRAEMIA
HYPOKALAEMIA
HYPOMAGNESAEMIA
HYPOCALCAEMIA

Low everything

63
Q

Metabolic disturbance from LOOP diuretics

A

Hypochloraemic alkalosis

Can cause GOUT

64
Q

Meningitis: suspected bacterial meningitis prior to hospital transfer tx.

A

IM Pen V

65
Q

IV antibiotics for meningitis

A

3 months - 50 years = CEFOTAXIME
>50 years or < 3 months = CEFOTAXIME PLUS AMOXICILLIN listeria cover)

66
Q

What adjunctive drug should be considered along side antibiotics in meningitis

A

IV dexamathasone

67
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis?

A

CIPROFLOXACIN OR RIFAMPICIN
Unless pneumococcal meningitis in which no prophylaxis is needed

68
Q

Side effects of Methotrexate

A

Mucositis
Myelosuppression
Pneumonitis
Pulmonary fibrosis
Liver fibrosis

69
Q

How long should men and women be off MTX before attempting to conceive

A

6 months

70
Q

When is methotrexate taken

A

WEEKLY (common source of error in prescribing)

71
Q

What is co-prescribed with methotrexate

A

Folic acid

72
Q

Interactions of methotrexate to be aware of:

A

Avoid co-prescribing TRIMETHOPRIM or CO-TRIMOXAZOLE concurrently - Increased risk of marrow aplasia

High dose aspirin can cause methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion

73
Q

Methotrexate toxicity treatment of choice

A

FOLINIC ACID

74
Q

Metoclopramide - MoA and resultant side effects

A

D2 RECEPTOR ANTAGONIST - as acts on dopamine pathway -> EPSE (acute dystonia etc.) -> parkinsonism -> tardive dyskinesia
Diarrhoea
Hyperprolactinaemia

75
Q

First-line Tx. ACUTE MIGRAINE

A

combination therapy w/ oral TRIPTAN and NSAID

76
Q

Prophylaxis for MIGRAINES
When to give?

A

IF more than 2 attacks per month

77
Q

Prophylaxis for MIGRAINES:

A

PROPRANOLOL OR TOPIRAMATE

78
Q

Which of the migraine prophylactic drugs should be given to women of childbearing age:

A

PROPRANOLOL -> topiramate may be teratogenic

79
Q

Myasthenia Gravis first line medication:

A

PYRIDOSTIGMINE

80
Q

STEMI management: all patients to receive

A

ASPIRIN
CLOPIDOGREL
Unfractionated HEPARIN if going for PCI

81
Q

Fluids given as prophylaxis in those at risk of contrast induced nephrotoxicity

A

0.9% sodium chloride 1 ml/kg/hour for 12 HOURS pre and post procedure

82
Q

Which drugs may worsen psoriasis

A

B blockers
ACEi
Lithium
NSAIDs
Antimalarials (chloroquine)
Withdrawal of systemic steroids

83
Q

Nicorandil contraindication

A

LEFT ventricular failure

84
Q

Nitrate side effects

A

Hypotension
Tachycardia
Headaches
Flushing

85
Q

Palliative care prescribing: PAIN

A

1) Offer pts. w/ advanced progressive disease regular oral modified release or immediate release Morphine
2) IF no comborbidities: use 20-30 mg of MR a day with 5 mg for breakthrough pain

86
Q

What should always be prescribed with pts. on strong opioids:

A

Laxatives

87
Q

Which patient group should opioids be used only with caution

A

CKD pts.

88
Q

What is used in preference to morphine for CKD patients

A

OXYCODONE

89
Q

What is used for pain relief in SEVERE renal impairment

A

Fentanyl, alfentanil, buprenorphine

90
Q

When increasing the dose of opioids, what dose percentage increase should be used

A

30-50%

91
Q

Drug treatment for Parkinson’s:
If affecting QoL
If NOT affecting QoL

A

Levodopa
Dopamine agonists (ropinirole, pramipexole) Levodopa or MAO-Bi

92
Q

If a patient continues to have symptoms despite optimal LEVODOPA treatment

A

Adjunct with Dopamine agonist (ROPINIROLE), MAO-B inhibitor or COMT

93
Q

What is LEVODOPA usually combined with and why:

A

Carbidopa -> to prevent peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects

94
Q

Common side effects of LEVODOPA

A

Dry mouth
Anorexia
Palpitations
Postural hypotension
Psychosis

95
Q

Adverse effects of PPIs

A

Hyponatraemia, Hypomagnesaemia
Osteoporosis -> increased risk of fractures
Microscopic colitis
Increased risk of C. Difficile infections

96
Q

Enzyme inducers (PC BRAS)

A

Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Barbiturates
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic)
Sulfonlyureas (gliclazide)

97
Q

Enzyme inhibitors (AO-DEVICES)

A

Allopurinol
Omeprazole
Disulfiram
Erythromycin
Valproate
Isoniazid
Ciprofloxacin
Ethanol (acute)
Sulphonamides

98
Q

Drugs to stop prior to surgery (ILACKOP)

A

Insulin
Lithium
Anti-coagulants/ antiplatelets (aspirin 7 days before)
COCP/HRT - 4 weeks before
K+ sparing diuretics (on day of surgery)
Oral hypoglyacaemics (metformin -> lactic acidosis)
Phytonadione (Vit K) one day before INR > 1.5

99
Q

UTI antibiotics to avoid in reduced renal function

A

NITROFURANTOIN

100
Q

Which drugs tend to cause anticholinergic side effects

A

Amitryptiline
Paroxetine
Anti-muscarinics
Anti-psychotics (CLOZAPINE)

101
Q

Anti-rheumatoid drugs: which drug causes oligospermia

A

Sulfasalazine

102
Q

Anti-rheumatoid drugs: Which drug causes HEINZ BODY ANAEMIA

A

Sulfasalazine

103
Q

Anti-rheumatoid drugs: Which drug causes retinopathy and corneal deposits

A

Hydroxychloroquine

104
Q

Anti-rheumatoid drugs: drugs causing proteinuria

A

Gold
Penicillamine

105
Q

As well as BBs, which drugs can commonly cause bronchospasm in asthmatics

A

NSAIDs

106
Q

NSAIDS adverse effects mnemonic

A

Nausea, dyspepsia
Swelling
Allergy
Impaired renal function
Damaged stomach wall
Stroke/heart attack

107
Q

SIADH: Malignancy causes

A

Small cell lung cancer
Pancreas/prostate cancer

108
Q

Drug caused of SIADH (water retention)

A

Sulfonylurea
SSRIs, Tricyclics
Carbamazepine
Vincristine
Cyclophosphamide

109
Q

MoA Sodium valproate

A

Increases GABA activity

110
Q

Adverse effects of sodium valproate (VALPROATE)

A

Vomiting
Alopecia
Liver toxicity
Pancreatitis
Retention of fat (weight gain)
Oedema
Appetite increase
Tremor - TERATOGENIC
Enzyme inducer

111
Q

Spironolactone adverse effects:

A

GYNAECOMASTIA: less common with Eplerenone
HyperKALAEMIA

112
Q

Statins adverse effects (HMG CoA RI)

A

Hepatotoxicity
Myopathy (myalgia, myositis)
GI upset (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea)
Cataracts
Rhabdomyolysis
Increased risk of diabetes

*RI = Reductase inhibitors in mnemonic

113
Q

What are SULPHONAMIDES

A

Class of drug which work by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase (antibiotic and non-antibiotic forms

In form of antibiotics: SULFAMETHOXAZOLE
Co-tromoxazole = combination with trimethroprim which is used in treatment of Pneumocystitis Jiroveci pneumonia

114
Q

Non-antibiotics sulphonamides

A

Sulfasalazine
Sulfonylureas

115
Q

Common side effects of Sulfonylurea

A

Hypoglycaemia
Weight gain

116
Q

Rarer adverse effects of sulfonylureas

A

Hyponatraemia -> secondary to SIADH
Bone marrow suppression
Hepatotoxicity
Peripheral neuropathy

117
Q

Are sulphonylureas given in breastfeeding and pregnancy

A

No, should be avoided

118
Q

Thiazide diuretics common adverse effects

A

Dehydration
Postural hypotension
Hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia
Gout
Impaired glucose tolerance
Impotence

119
Q

Thiazide diuretics effect on calcium

A

HYPERCALCAEMIA -> which translates to hypocalciuria (may be useful in reducing the incidence of renal stones)

120
Q

Thiazolidinediones main concerns

A

Fluid retention -> contraindicated in heart failure
Bladder cancer (pioglitazone)
Weight gain

121
Q

MoA of thrombolytic drugs

A

Activate plasminogen to form plasmin which degrades FIBRIN and helps break up thrombi

122
Q

Contraindications to THROMBOLYSIS (ALTEPLASE, STREPTOKINASE, TENECTEPLASE)

A

Active internal bleeding
Recent haemorrhage, trauma or surgery
Coagulation or bleeding disorders
Intracranial neoplasms
Stroke < 3 months
Aortic dissection
Recent head injury
severe hypertension

123
Q

Triptans - prescribing points:
When should they be taken

A

Should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of headache rather than at onset of aura

124
Q

Adverse effects of triptans:

A

‘Triptan sensations’ tingling, heat, tightness (Throat and chest), heaviness, pressure

125
Q

Contraindications of TRIPTANS

A

Pts. w/ history or risk factors for IHD or CVD

126
Q

Variceal haemorrhage management

A

ABC
Correct clotting: FFP, VitK, Platelets
Vasoactive agents: TERLIPRESSIN

127
Q

What should be used prophylactically following an acute variceal bleed

A

Antibiotics -> IV QUINOLONE

128
Q

Following resus, clotting correction and terlipressin, what should be done to correct variceal bleed

A

Endoscopic band LIGATION
If uncontrolled haemorrhage: Sengstaken-blakemore tube
TIPSS if all above measures fail

129
Q

Prophylaxis of variceal haemorrhage

A

Propranolol (reduced rebleeding and mortality)

130
Q

Warfarin indications

A

Mechanical heart valves: target INR depends on type of valve
Second line after DOACs

131
Q

Juice which potentiates warfarin

A

CRANBERRY

132
Q

Side effects of WARFARIN

A

Haemorrhage
Teratogenic (although safe in breastfeeding)
Skin NECROSIS
Purple toes

133
Q

Statins adverse effects (HMG CoA RI)

A

Hepatotoxicity
Myopathy (myalgia, myositis)
GI upset (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea)
Cataracts
Rhabdomyolysis
Increased risk of diabetes

*RI = Reductase inhibitors in mnemonic

134
Q

Drugs which INCREASE serum potassium

A

ACEi/ARBs
Spironolactone
Amiloride
Potassium supplements: Sando K

PSA (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions