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T-1 > Dash1 > Flashcards

Dash1 Flashcards

1
Q

T-1 dimensions

A

48 feet 5 in long
43 feet 6 in wingspan
13 feet 11 in tall

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2
Q

Zero fuel weight

A

11,000 pounds

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3
Q

At sea level and up to 27 deg C, the engine generates how much thrust?

A

2900 pounds of takeoff rated thrust

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4
Q

How much oil does each engine tank have?

A

2.03 gallons

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5
Q

L or R Oil press lo linger indicates?

A

System oil pressure is below 40 psi

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6
Q

Where does the EFC receive inputs from?

A

Throttle angle
Ambient air temp
Ambient air pressure
Differential between temp/press

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7
Q

If EFCs fail, how much thrust loss can be expected?

A

Could be up to 40%

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8
Q

At 35-40% N2 what happens to the starter/gen?

A

It’s control power is removed and it starts operating as generator

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9
Q

How close do the engines need to be to each other before activating engine sync?

A

1.5%

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10
Q

What is fire detection provided by?

A

Semiconductor, coaxial cable sensor element that forms a closed loop around all vital engine components

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11
Q

What is the fire extinguishing agent called?

A

Halon

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12
Q

What is the fuel systems operating limits?

A

Sea level to 41,000 feet

-40 to 50 deg C

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13
Q

How many primary fuel tanks are there?

A 
6 
Aft fuselage
Aft cabin 
Left/right mid tanks 
Wing tanks
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14
Q

How much fuel can be filled via pressure/gravity fueling?

A

P - 771 gallons

G - 739 gallons

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15
Q

What do sniffle valves do?

A

Allow fuel/air to be vented
Opens at internal pressure of 0.1 to 0.3 psi to bring air in
If internal pressure is 5 psi or higher valve opens to dump

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16
Q

What do float check valves do?

A

Restrict fuel from exiting tanks while allowing air to enter/exit as needed to balance pressure

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17
Q

What do flapper valves do?

A

Hinged devices that allow fuel to flow in only one direction

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18
Q

What happens when the Eng Fire Push switch light is pushed?

A

Shutoff fuel/hydraulics
Shutoff generator
Arm fire bottles

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19
Q

What does pushing trim int & A/P diseng do?

A

Disconnects A/P, sounds tone, silences runaway sound as well

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20
Q

Why would you hear the gear horn on takeoff?

A

Throttles at T/O power and trim is not in T/O position

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21
Q

Type of engine in T-1

A

Pratt and Whitney JT15D-5B

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22
Q

Moving the throttles affects which portion of the engine?

A

Turbine gas jet engine: N2

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23
Q

What makes the high pressure compressor centrifugal?

A

Air enters engine parallel to engine, then spun outward, making 90 deg change in direction = slows and compresses

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24
Q

How many fuel nozzles and igniters per engine?

A

12 nozzles

2 igniters

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25
Q

What does the compressor surge bleed valve do?

A

Opens and closes as a result of the EFC to ensure proper air flow to combustion chamber

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26
Q

How does air flow thru the engine?

A

Fan, axial compressor, high pressure compressor, combustion chamber, high pressure turbine, low pressure turbine, low pressure compressor

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27
Q

What does GND COMM PUSH indicate?

A

The battery is supplying power to UHF, VHF, and intercom

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28
Q

What does ELT ON indicate? How do u reset it?

A

ELT is transmitting/ move to ON then ARMED/RESET

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29
Q

Holding trim down for more than how many seconds will cause horn to sound?

A

5 seconds

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30
Q

With the ignition in STBY, will the igniters activate when L/R Engine Anti-Ice is selected?

A

Yes

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31
Q

What is the HMU?

A

Engine driven hydromechanical metering unit

gives engines rough estimate of how much fuel goes to engine (based on throttle position)

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32
Q

What is the EFC

A

Electronic fuel control

Assists HMU by refining fuel amount

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33
Q

During engine start, the HMU is responsible for fuel flow up to

A

38% N2

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34
Q

A L/R ENG EFC OFF can reduce thrust by

A

40%

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35
Q

What is the purpose of the flow divider valve in the fuel system?

A

Divides fuel into primar/secondary flow for precise control

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36
Q

How many main annunciators on the panel?

A

52 total
12 red
40 yellow

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37
Q

When will the AOA indexer illuminate?

A

When gear are down

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38
Q

What do stall annunciators indicate?

A

AOA system senses a stall condition

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39
Q

Where is Cabin Smoke annunciators located?

A

Co-pilot side shroud panel

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40
Q

What does Red Pull Up mean?

A

GPWS senses unsafe situation

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41
Q

What does GPWS Test indicate when illuminated?

A

Power is being applied to the GPWS system

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42
Q

What does below GLS indicate?

A

1.3 dots below glideslope

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43
Q

What does EFC AUX PWR ON indicate?

A

One of the EFCs is receiving power from standby battery

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44
Q

What does NOSE DN or NOSE UP indicate?

A

Warn with T/O TRIM SET to indicate position of trim

Only works with weight on wheels

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45
Q

What does AC BUS SHED indicate?

A

26 and 115 VAC shed busses are disconnected

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46
Q

What does EMER LT NO ARM indicate?

A

Emergency light control switch (red guard) not in ARM position

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47
Q

What does PASS OXY ON mean?

A

Passenger oxygen system charged

Normally not charged during flight

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48
Q

What does FUEL XFEED ON indicate?

A

Crossfeed selected

One wing fueling both engines

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49
Q

What does LDG LT EXT indicate?

A

Lights extended with gear up

Actuator not fully retracted

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50
Q

What does WG ICE TEMP LO indicate?

A

Temp in wing anti-ice ducts is below 140 deg F

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51
Q

What does ICE DET FAIL indicate?

A

Failure of ice detector probe or loss of power

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52
Q

What does icing light indicate?

A

Ice detector probe senses approx .020 in ice

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53
Q

When in STBY, when will the igniters activate?

A

Start button depressed
AOA detects approach to stall
Engine anti-ice on

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54
Q

When using engine sync, N1/N2 need to be within what limit? Which engine is master?

A

+-1.5%
Left engine
Not available with EFC off

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55
Q

Which fire bottle goes to which engine?

A

Whichever engine Fire switch was pushed last

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56
Q

What is on the accessory gearbox?

A 
Starter generator
Hydraulic pump 
Oil pump 
HMU
Fuel pump
N2 speed sensors
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57
Q

What is the safety shutoff valve?

A

If the high pressure compressor fails, a safety shutoff valve immediately cuts fuel flow. Engine doesn’t restart

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58
Q

Under normal ops, when will transfer pumps go out?

A

Mid tanks empty

Less than 5.0 +- 0.5 psi

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59
Q

How many fuel probes are in each wing?

A

4

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60
Q

How many fuel probes in fuselage tanks?

A

4

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61
Q

What pumps are in the fuel feed chamber?

A

Forward transfer jet pump
Aft transfer jet pump
Electric boost pump
Primary jet pump

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62
Q

What are the purposes of the boost pump?

A

Engine start
Crossfeed
Backup for primary jet pump
Motive flow for transfer jet pumps

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63
Q

Why does the jet pump on the opposite engine go out during crossfeed?

A

So motive flow stops pulling fuel from that wing

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64
Q

When does boost pump automatically come on?

A

Engine start selected
Crossfeed selected
Pressure in engine fuel feed line < 5 psi
Fuel feed chamber below 11 gallons

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65
Q

Which fuel feed chamber transfer pumps get motive flow from the engine vs boost pump?

A

Forward - boost

Aft - primary jet pump

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66
Q

If engine does not start with igniters in STBY, can you attempt start in the ON position?

A

No

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67
Q

What are positions of ignition switch?

A

Standby
Off
On

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68
Q

When does L O FLTR BYPASS illuminate? Along with L OIL PRESS LO?

A

Filter - when clogged

Pressure - below 40 psi

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69
Q

Describe how oil flows through the T-1

A

Tank - Engine pump- cooler - filter - bearings/gearbox - scavenger pumps

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70
Q

What cools oil?

A

Fuel

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71
Q

Once discharged, will BOT ARMED PUSH LIGHT go out or remain illuminated?

A

Go out

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72
Q

What is operating fuel temp limit?

A

-40 to 50 deg C

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73
Q

What does the LDG GR WRN CUT light indicate?

A

Landing gear horn silenced

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74
Q

What does ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight indicate?

A

Fire or overheat

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75
Q

How many ITT sensors are there?

A

6

Connected in parallel to get avg temp

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76
Q

Bypass ratio of the T-1 engine?

A

2:1
66% bypass - thrust/cooling
33% compressor

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77
Q

If standby battery is not armed during preflight, will it still power the standby bus if an electrical failure happens?

A

No

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78
Q

What does pushing the BATT FEED TEST do?

A

Simulates fault in emergency bus feeder line, opens all 3 relays
Standby battery powers standby bus

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79
Q

During the battery feed test, with the battery switch in Emergency, which AC annunciators should illuminate?

A

INV 1 FAIL

AC BUS SHED

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80
Q

What is on the primary 26 VAC shed bus?

A

Flap position

L/R oil px

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81
Q

If right load bus loses power, how can the #2 inverter be powered?

A

Thru emergency bus

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82
Q

Single generator amp limits

A

Ground - 280 amps
Air - 2 op (280)/ 1 op (400) up to 32,500
Above 32,500 - 280

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83
Q

What is on the standby bus?

A 
Co-pilot inst lights
RTU # 1 
UHF 
ITT (L)
Standby Alt vibrator 
Standby attitude 
EFC
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84
Q

What is emergency bus normally powered by?

A

Emergency bus feed line

Connected to battery

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85
Q

What does battery feeder protection unit do?

A

Provides fault protection for battery

Opens relays isolate malfunctioning system

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86
Q

What type of battery is used in the T-1?

A

24 volt DC
40 amp hour
Lead acid

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87
Q

What is the purpose of the GCU?

A

Equalize load/ prevent reverse current flow

One per engine

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88
Q

How does power flow from main bus to load bus?

A

Feeder lines (3 total/2 active)
One CB stays in stby
Prevent high current

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89
Q

What is purpose of the start bus?

A

Power source for starting engines

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90
Q

What is required N2% for generator to reach full capacity?

A

58% N2

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91
Q

What does moving the master generators to EMER do?

A

Isolates generator and battery from system/ only standby is active

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92
Q

If the emergency bus feeder line fails, what happens?

A

Emergency bus power relay opens

Emergency bus-tie relay closes

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93
Q

What is the standby bus normally powered

A

LH load bus

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94
Q

What are the sources of DC power?

A

Battery
Starter/generator
External power

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95
Q

What is connected to the RH load bus?

A

No 2 inverter
RH overhead bus
RH nonessential bus
RH radio bus

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96
Q

What is connected to the LH load bus?

A 
No 1 inverter
LH radio bus 
LH nonessential bus 
LH overhead bus 
Standby bus
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97
Q

Power from the non-essential buses go to

A

Wx radar

VCCS

98
Q

The power from the radio buses go to?

A

Nav/comm equipment

99
Q

What are the two load buses connected by?

A

Load bus tie

100
Q

When the battery switch is moved to EMER, what happens?

A

Battery only powers Emergency bus

Battery relay/tie in are de-energized but emergency bus power relay is energized

101
Q

When the battery switch is ON, which relays are energized?

A

Battery relay
Battery tie-in relay
Emergency bus power relay

102
Q

What is the purpose of the LH/RH main buses?

A

Distribute power from respective generators

Tied to battery charge bus in case one gen fails

103
Q

What does the battery bus do?

A

Provides DC power distribution for battery or GPU

104
Q

What is on Emergency bus?

A 
Selected LH instruments
LDG gear position 
Engine ignition (L) 
Emer pitch trim 
VHF Nav1
Engine Fire detection 
Standby bus
105
Q

What is purpose of battery charge bus?

A

Central connection for all DC power

Allows one generator to power whole system

106
Q

What is the purpose of the battery tie in relay?

A

Allows battery to charge from generators

107
Q

When will you get an AC bus shed?

A

Emergency bus is powering #2 inverter

108
Q

What does putting the generator reset switches into: off, norm, and reset do?

A

Off - isolates generator from system
Norm - GCU controls generator operation
Reset - resets generator and GCU

109
Q

During gear retraction, when will the fuselage doors close?

A

Once all gear are up and locked

110
Q

What are the flap G limits

A

Flaps up: -1.0 to 3.2

Flaps ext: 0 to 2.0

111
Q

What speed on taxi does anti-skid become active?

A

14 knots

112
Q

What is max speed for emergency gear extension?

A

150 KIAS

113
Q

What type of braking is available?

A

Power
Manual
Anti-skid
Emergency

114
Q

What is the pressure of the brake accumulator?

A

900 +- 50

115
Q

What does the rudder servo do?

A

Yaw damper
Rudder boost
Autopilot

116
Q

What is max landing gear operating altitude?

A

20,000 feet

117
Q

How does EMER Door Close work?

A

Sends nitrogen to being fuselage doors up: takes 3 sec

118
Q

When will the landing gear horn sound?

A

All gear not down/locked:
Flaps 0-10, one/both throttles <70% N2
Flaps extended beyond 10 - cannot be silenced

119
Q

What does downlock release let you do?

A

Move gear handle if stuck down due to weight on wheels issue

120
Q

The fuselage doors will only close under normal conditions if

A

All three wheels are down and locked

121
Q

How long is normal gear extension?

A

7 secs

122
Q

What does the Emerg L/G Down handle do?

A

Releases mechanical up locks for fuselage doors and all gear
Takes 30 secs
All gear lights will illuminate

123
Q

What does a red unlocked light mean on the landing gear indicator?

A

Main fuselage doors not closed and locked

124
Q

What bleed air psi goes into the hydraulic reservoir?

A

15 psi

125
Q

When will HYD LEVEL LO illuminate?

A

.6 gallons

126
Q

What is the flow rate and psi of the hydraulic pumps

A

0 gpm at 1500 psi

3.9 gpm at 1400 psi

127
Q

When will L/R H PMP PRESS LO illuminate?

A

750 psi

128
Q

What is the capacity of the hydraulic system?

A

1.2 gallons

129
Q

What will illuminate when the hydraulic filter becomes clogged?

A

Nothing

130
Q

At what psi will the hydraulic pressure release valve open?

A

1650 psi

131
Q

At what hydraulic psi does the pilot have to open the bypass valve?

A

1850 psi

132
Q

What do the mixing valves do?

A

Allow braking from either pilot/copilot side

133
Q

In a full turn, what are the degree limits of the spoiler

A

-14 deg away from turn
68 deg up inner
72 deg up outer

134
Q

What causes a flap asym?

A

7 deg difference
Right flap affects flap gauge
When annunciators illuminates, power is removed from flap lever

135
Q

What deflection will speed brakes go up to?

A

36 deg

136
Q

How long does it take for speed brakes to be extended?

A

2.6 sec in flight

.6 sec on the ground

137
Q

How long does it take for horiz stab trim to move from nose up to nose down?

A

14 sec

45 for emergency

138
Q

What is max rudder deflection?

A

30 deg

139
Q

What are the deflection limits on the elevator?

A

25 deg up

12 deg down

140
Q

Is there a warning horn for rudder trim?

A

No

141
Q

What will cause speed brakes to retract?

A

Throttles moved to Norm TO

Flaps extended beyond 10 deg

142
Q

What restrictions are in place with flaps?

A

20,000 feet
200 knots to extend to 10
170 to extend 10-30
165 flaps 30

143
Q

Do the aft flaps have asym detection?

A

No. Can only be detected thru I commanded roll/yaw

144
Q

What types of flaps are on the T-1?

A

Double slotted fowlers

145
Q

What are the secondary flight controls?

A

Flaps
Speed brake
Trim

146
Q

What does the rudder boost use to determine asymmetric thrust?

A

Bleed air differential

147
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A

Rudder
Elevator
Spoilers

148
Q

At what energy will brakes fail?

A

14.8 million foot/lbs

149
Q

What are some of the limitations of setting the parking brake?

A

Do not set with hot brakes
Do not set when cold w/ visible moisture
Do not set with copilot brakes

150
Q

At what temp will thermal(fuse) plugs blow?

A

430 deg F

151
Q

At how many foot/lbs will fuse plugs blow?

A

4.05 million foot/lbs per brake

152
Q

Do not use autopilot below

A

200 feet AGL

153
Q

What does the GND MAP button do?

A

Helps determine ground features such as water, cities

154
Q

What is the max commanded roll by the heading bug?

A

27 deg

155
Q

What does 1/2 bank do?

A

Limits bank to 1/2 normal

Approx 15 deg

156
Q

What is min/max range of radar?

A

5-300 NM

157
Q

What is the tilt range of the radar?

A

+- 14 deg
Controlled by tilt knob
1/4 deg increments

158
Q

What does Auto on radar tilt do?

A

Adjusts for aircraft altitude

159
Q

What is attenuation?

A

Decrease in radar strength

Occurs due to precipitation/distance

160
Q

How to calculate cloud tops?

A

(Diff of tilt *100) * dist = height

161
Q

What is a PAC alert?

A

Yellow bar on MFD with Wx overlay indicating system is detecting attenuation

162
Q

What can you do to suppress ground return?

A

Use GND CLTR SPRS

163
Q

What’s a good radar tilt for departure?

A

+5 - +7

164
Q

Calculation for radar tilt value on descent?

A

Alt / (range * 0.7) = tilt from 0

165
Q

Start malfunction prior to moving throttle from CUTOFF to IDLE?

A

Push to Diseng

166
Q

Start malfunction after moving throttle to IDLE after 8% N2 call

A

Throttle - cutoff
Ignition - off
15 second fuel purge
Push to disengage

167
Q

Starter malfunction: starter does not disengage by 45% N2, EFC was just called

A

Push to Diseng (no extinguish)
Throttle - cutoff
Battery - off
Master Gen - Emergency

168
Q

For engine start, at what temp is external power required?

A

5 deg F

-15 deg C

169
Q

Min voltage for battery start?

A

22 volts

170
Q

Min voltage for GPU start?

A

28 volts

171
Q

When should final flap setting be selected?

A

By 250 AGL

172
Q

With the left stall warning computer failed, what stall indications are available?

A

Both stall lights

Both stick shakers

173
Q

Does the MFD range affect TCAS range?

A

No

Displays from 12 to as low as 4.5 NM

174
Q

What are TCAS’ display limits in ABV/BLO, and only ABV?

A

+-9900

+9900/-2700

175
Q

What does open blue diamond on TCAS indicate?

A

General traffic

176
Q

What does a solid blue diamond indicate on TCAS?

A

Close traffic

177
Q

What does a solid yellow circle indicate on TCAS?

A

Potential conflict

“TRAFFIC(x3)”

178
Q

What does a solid red box on TCAS indicate?

A

Traffic conflict

Accompanied by RA

179
Q

On map mode, what needs to be selected to see the traffic overlay/TCAS?

A

TFC ON

180
Q

Will you get an RA with a mode C transponder?

A

Yes

Not coordinated

181
Q

When will you get an RA/TA?

A

RA - 15-35 sec prior

TA - 20-45 sec prior

182
Q

During an RA, where should you put VSI needle?

A

In the green arc by about 250 feet/min

183
Q

With no power, standby indicator will remain on with how many degrees for how long?

A

+-6 degrees

9 minutes

184
Q

What is a rough guide to correct the standby altimeter by due to position error?

A

By flight level

FL 300 = 30,300 feet

185
Q

A standard rate turn is

A

360 deg turn
30 deg bank
2 minutes

186
Q

On the mag compass, which way should you turn to get your desired heading?

A

Away

187
Q

What will cause the ELT to go off?

A

5 g’s

ELT switch - on

188
Q

What is AOA for an on speed approach?

A

0.6

189
Q

What is on speed Vco AOA?

A

0.7

190
Q

What is best endurance AOA?

A

0.45

Also L/D Max

191
Q

What is max range AOA?

A

0.18

192
Q

What is surveillance area of TCAS, and how many aircraft can it track?

A

4.5-14 NM

30 aircraft

193
Q

What is approach to stall AOA

A

0.75

194
Q

The difference between displayed and actual bearing of an aircraft on TCAS can be up to?

A

+-10 degrees

195
Q

By when should you comply with an RA, and increase/decrease/reversal?

A

5 secs

2.5 secs

196
Q

When does cabin pressure hi illuminate?

A

11 +-1 PSI

197
Q

When operating normally, pressure differential should not exceed

A

9.1 psi

198
Q

With BLO 1 selected, which blower is active?

A

Aft blower unit

199
Q

With throttles advanced to Norm TO, on takeoff, cabin is pressurized to a __ to __ differential

A

80

120

200
Q

During the H Stab Anti-Ice test, how long do u hold button?

A

3 secs

201
Q

What’s the difference between windshield heat HIGH/LOW?

A

High - just lower portion

Low - broad

202
Q

When does ICING illuminate?

A

.020 inches

50-70 sec cycle to melt

203
Q

What does BL Air Duct Fail illuminate?

A

Greater than 3.5+-0.5 psi or 350 deg F in wing anti-ice duct

204
Q

Why might blowers stay on when OFF is selected, right after hearing was selected?

A

To cool heating elements down to 100 deg F

205
Q

When will the oxygen dump overboard?

A

2700 psi

206
Q

A temp drop of ___ deg results in an oxygen psi drop of ___%?

A

100 deg F

20%

207
Q

If either horiz stab anti-ice/de ice fail, what must you do?

A

Turn both off, activate STB Deice backup

208
Q

What temp comes out ACU?

A

39 deg F

209
Q

What triggers a Cabin Air OV HT?

A

390 +-15

210
Q

What does the bleed air selector do?

A

Selects the source of bleed air for environmental system

211
Q

When does Wing OV HT illuminate?

A

212 deg F

350 deg F

212
Q

What’s the difference between Sys1 and Sys2?

A

Nothing. Just different valves

213
Q

When does ENG ICE TEMP LO(L/R) illuminate?

A

120 deg F

214
Q

1/2 inch of ice could add how many lbs to aircraft?

A

500 lbs

215
Q

What does the temp controller do?

What does the mode switch do?

A

Selects how much hot air gets mixed with conditioned air from ACU
Mode switch senses temp

216
Q

When does Cabin Pressure Lo illuminate?

A

9,500+-500

217
Q

What does the cabin dump handle do?

A

Opens right outflow valve

Allows cabin px to equal outside px

218
Q

When above 18,000 feet, what needs to be turned on?

A

Windshield heat

219
Q

What is the wiper limitation?

A

200 KIAS

220
Q

What does AV BLO FAIL indicate?

A

Loss of cooling to avionics rack

221
Q

Does Aux Cool power any blowers?

A

Yes

1 and 2

222
Q

When does Wing Ice Temp LO illuminate?

A

Below 140 deg F

223
Q

What happens when selecting EMER on bleed air select?

A

Hot unconditioned air is forced into cabin

Will get Air Cond Fail

224
Q

If cabin altitude exceeds 12,500+-500 and red PASS OXYGEN is not pulled, will masks drop?

A

Yes

225
Q

If red PASS OXYGEN knob is pulled by accident, what should you do?

A

Push knob in before pulling SYS READY

226
Q

How do you use H STB DEICE switch?

A

Hold momentarily

30 sec of power is provided/repeat every 2 min

227
Q

What is the horiz stab anti-ice?

A

Heat mats on leading edge of 260-280 and elevator horn

228
Q

What is horiz stab de-ice?

A

Also consists of mats, elevator horn, and gap
When powered, 12 zones activated
10 zones - 16 secs
2 zones - 30 secs

229
Q

When does STB DEICE FAIL illuminate?

A

Malfunction in sequence timer, heater mat, or current sensor

230
Q

When does STB ANTI ICE FAIL illuminate?

A

If the horiz stab temp reached 310 deg F or current sensors fail

231
Q

What happens if temp leaving ACU compressor is <400 deg C or <53 psi?

A

Closes pressure regulator shutoff valves
Cuts off bleed air to ACU
AIR COND FAIL

232
Q

Moving the manual pressurization knob to full decrease could result in cabin altitude to depressurize to a max of

A

12,500+-1,500

233
Q

Describe difference between Auto FLDK, Auto Duct, and Man Duct

A

Senses in flight deck/supply ducts
Senses in air ducts
Pilot opens/closes control valve

234
Q

At what temp will heaters’ overheat protection activate?

A

420+-30

235
Q

When does windshield overheat illuminate?

A

130 deg F

236
Q

When the VCS is on, where does refrigerant go to?

A

BLO 1,2

Avionics rack

237
Q

What triggers BL AIR DCT FAIL?

A

350 deg F

3.5 psi or less in Wing Anti-Ice

238
Q

The cabin rate of climb is adjustable between

A

50-2000 fpm

239
Q

What is temp and psi from bleed air?

A

600 deg F
150 psi

30 psi once thru regulator

240
Q

Where is heater 1?

Heater 2?

A

Side window, Defoe, flight deck

Glareshield

241
Q

VCCS will auto shed when?

A

Engine start button pressed
Windshield heat on
Horiz stab anti/de-ice
Outside air temp < 20 deg F

242
Q

If icing conditions are encountered, use no greater than 10 deg flaps unless which conditions are encountered?

A

Icing less than 19 minutes and RAT is warmer then -8 deg C

RAT greater than 10 deg C is observed during descent, approach, or landing

T-1 (4 decks)

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