Dash 1 Ch 1

Question 1

One engine thrust, MIL and MAX:

Answer 1

2200/3300

Question 2

Fuel flow for one engine, MAX at rest and Mach 1:

Answer 2

7300, 11,400 lb/hr

Question 3

Pushing start arms ignition circuit for ___

Answer 3

30 sec

Question 4

One engine normal oil capacity and air expansion space:

Answer 4

4 qt, 1 qt

Question 5

Gravity flow guaranteed up to ___ alt:

Answer 5

6,000

Question 6

Fuel cutoff switches operated by ___ and cut off fuel in ___:

Answer 6

DC, 1 sec

Question 7

Fuel low level light comes on after ___ sec below ___ amount

Answer 7

7.5. 250 lbs

Question 8

Gearbox shift occurs at ___ range:

Answer 8

65-75%

Question 9

Voltage of battery is ___V and of DC rectifiers is ___V:

Answer 9

24, 28

Question 10

AC system provides ___/___V power:

Answer 10

115/200

Question 11

AC generators cut-in between ___:

Answer 11

43-48%

Question 12

Min battery voltage of ___ is required to close batt relay:

Answer 12

18 V

Question 13

Left engine provides ___ psi for ___ system:

Answer 13

3200, utility

Question 14

Right engine provides ___ psi for ___ system:

Answer 14

3200, flt control

Question 15

Hyd low press comes on at ___ psi, and goes back out at ___ psi:

Answer 15

1500, 1800

Question 16

Rudder limited to ___ deg each side when nosegear out 3/4 or less:

Answer 16

6 deg

Question 17

Landing gear extension/retraction takes approx ___:

Answer 17

6 sec

Question 18

Gear horn and warning light come on when gear not down and locked and ____ kts or less, attitude ___ or below, and both throttles below ___:

Answer 18

210 kts, 10,000, 96%

Question 19

When accelerating, gear light may not go out until ___:

Answer 19

240 kts

Question 20

Landing gear alt release pulled out ___ inches, and requires ___ sec:

Answer 20

10 in, 15-35 sec

Question 21

Rear canopy follows front by ___ after canopy jettison:

Answer 21

1 sec

Question 22

Aneroid delays parachute opening until between ___:

Answer 22

15,000 to 11,500

Question 23

Seat ejection occurs ___ after canopy jettison:

Answer 23

0.3 sec

Question 24

Fuel for left engine is ___ gal serviced/usable and ___ lbs usable:

Answer 24

293/286 gal, 1916 lbs

Question 25

Fuel for right engine is ___ gal serviced/usable and ___ lbs usable:

Answer 25

305/297 gal, 1990 lbs

Question 26

Total fuel is ___ gal serviced/usable and ___ lbs usable:

Answer 26

598/583 gal, 3906 lbs

Question 27

With single-engine and less than ___ in either system, leave both boost pumps on and crossfeed on:

Answer 27

250 lbs

Question 28

A minimum of ___ RPM is required to achieve any engine fuel flow

Answer 28

12-14%

Question 29

___% RPM is the heart of airstart envelope at any altitude:

Answer 29

18-20%

Question 30

Ignition must occur before fuel flow reaches ___:

Answer 30

360 lb/hr

Question 31

After aborted start, wait ___ min before attempting another start:

Answer 31

2 min

Question 32

If EGT doesn’t rise w/in ___ sec of fuel flow indication, abort start:

Answer 32

12 sec

Question 33

Flaps should be +/- ___ of 60% position:

Answer 33

5%

Question 34

Normal rotation speed on initial takeoff is ___:

Answer 34

141 KIAS (this is rounded to 145)

Question 35

Normal liftoff speed on initial takeoff is ___:

Answer 35

165 KIAS

Question 36

Delay takeoff a min of ___ minutes behind large and ___ behind heavy aircraft

Answer 36

2, 4

Question 37

With a xwind > __ knots, spacing behind large/heavy aircraft can be reduced

Answer 37

5

Question 38

Abort takeoff if either afterburner doesn’t light within ___ sec:

Answer 38

5

Question 39

Final turn speed is ___ plus I knot per 100 lb over 1000 lb fuel:

Answer 39

180 KIAS

Question 40

Final appr speed is ___ plus I knot per 100 lb over 1000 lb fuel:

Answer 40

160 KIAS

Question 41

Touchdown speed is ___ plus I knot per 100 lb over 1000 lb:

Answer 41

135 KIAS

Question 42

Minimum Hydraulic pressure ___:

Answer 42

1500 psi

Question 43

Each generator is ___ phase:

Answer 43

3

Question 44

The O2 low light comes on at or below ___ liter, may blink at or below ___:

Answer 44

1, 3 liters

Question 45

Below __, the engine anti-ice is always open, regardless of switch position:

Answer 45

65 % RPM

Question 46

There are ___ rotating beacons, located where ___:

Answer 46

2, tail/lower fuselage

Question 47

Battery energizes DC bus for ___:

Answer 47

15 minutes at 80% power

Question 48

If oil pressure is high in cold weather, should be in limits Win ___:

Answer 48

6 min

Question 49

The radio attenuation switch reduces UHF and VHF volume by ___:

Answer 49

66%

Question 50

IDENT sends a pulse with transponder replies for ___ seconds:

Answer 50

15

Question 51

Standby Al provides ___ deg climb, ___ deg dive, ___ deg roll capacity, and provides ___ minutes of useful info within +/- ___ deg after DC failure:

Answer 51

92, 78, 360 deg, 9 min, + 6 deg

Question 52

Maintain a minimum of ___ RPM to ensure effective anti-ice operation:

Answer 52

80% RPM

Question 53

Due to oil supply restriction, zero G flight restricted to ___ sec:

Answer 53

10 sec

Question 54

Due to oil supply restriction, negative G flight restricted to ___ sec:

Answer 54

30 sec

Question 55

Rudder system failure may push rudder to ___ deg

Answer 55

30 deg

Question 56

Stab aug system failure may push rudder to ___ deg

Answer 56

2 deg

Question 57

Touchdown greater than ___ KCAS should not be attempted

Answer 57

200 kts

Question 58

With asymmetric flaps, maintain ___ kts above final appr/touchdown speed:

Answer 58

20 kts;

Question 59

Do not touchdown at less than ___ kts with asymmetric flaps:

Answer 59

165 kts

Question 60

On SE go-around, climb only as necessary until reaching ___ kts:

Answer 60

200 kts

Question 61

When landing with all gear up, touch down ___ kts faster than normal:

Answer 61

10 kts

Question 62

Maximum speed for nosewheel on runway:

Answer 62

174 kts

Question 63

Estimation for landing roll is ___ ft + fuel (not including 1000 ft down):

Answer 63

2500 ft

Question 64

Landing roll approximately ___ for no flap landing:

Answer 64

doubled

Question 65

Anti-ice will cause a loss of ___ % thrust in MIL and ___ in MAX:

Answer 65

8.5%, 5.5%

Question 66

If flab-slab interconnect fails and flaps needed for landing, ___ % flaps provides adequate control authority and controllable stick forces:

Answer 66

30-45%

Question 67

Pressure reg. maintain cabin alt of ___ +/- ___ from ___ alt.to ___ alt:

Answer 67

8000 +/- 2000, 8 to 23

Question 68

Avoid Max thrust dives when below ___ lb in either fuel tank:

Answer 68

650

Question 69

Use ___ knots as go/no-go for simple tire failure:

Answer 69

100 kts

Question 70

Increase final approach speed and touchdown speed by ___ gust factor:

Answer 70

½

Question 71

Increase final turn, approach and touchdown by ___ kts for no flap:

Answer 71

15 kts

Question 72

How many seconds until full parachute deployment:

Answer 72

3.42 sec

Question 73

Landing light retraction takes ___ sec:

Answer 73

10 sec

Question 74

AOA max range is ___. Max endurance/best angle of climb is ___:

Answer 74

0.18,0.3

Question 75

Nozzles should stabilize within ___ sec after rapid throttle movements:

Answer 75

10 sec

Question 76

Max allowable sink rates for landing: ___ fpm normal landing and ____ fpm crab landing (>1700 lbs fuel); and ____, _____ for

Answer 76

340, 200, 590, 395

Question 77

First 4½ “ of stick travel provides ___ aileron deflection, Next 1½ “ of stick travel provides ___ aileron deflection:

Answer 77

50% , Full

Question 78

Crossfeed recommended with fuel imbalance of ___ or greater:

Answer 78

200 lbs

Question 79

Holding airspeed:

Answer 79

250-265 kts

Question 80

Radar pattern typically burns ___ fuel:

Answer 80

325 lbs

Question 81

Turbulent air/thunderstorm penetration speed is ___ kts:

Answer 81

280 kts

Question 82

Climb possible at SETOS is ___ fpm:

Answer 82

100 fpm.

Question 83

Climb increased by ___ fpm each kt between SETOS - SETOS + 10:

Answer 83

8-50 fpm

Question 84

Gear retraction may take ___ when retracted between SETOS+ 10 and 200:

Answer 84

1 min

Question 85

If unable to retract gear, best climb at ___ for 60% flaps, ___ for 0% flaps:

Answer 85

200 kts, 220 kts

Question 86

Optimum pitch for ejection zoom:

Answer 86

20 deg

Question 87

With loss of canopy, slow to ___ kts; min drag occurs at ___ kts:

Answer 87

300, 225 kts

Question 88

If one hydr system reads zero, hydr system transfer may occur, and flight time could be limited to ___ min:

Answer 88

35 min

Question 89

Controllability check should be accomplished at ___ AGL or higher:

Answer 89

6,000 ft

Question 90

Maintain ___ kts above min controllable airspeed in descent/landing approach:

Answer 90

20 kts

Question 91

Best glide speed is ___ kts + I knot/ 100 lbs fuel:

Answer 91

230

Question 92

Multiply altitude in thousands of feet by ___ for glide distance in NM:

Answer 92

1.7

Question 93

Max crosswind, dry runway (dash-1):

Answer 93

30 kts

Question 94

Max crosswind, wet runway:

Answer 94

20 kts

Question 95

Max crosswind, icy or standing water:

Answer 95

10 kts

Question 96

Gross weight with fuel and two souls

Answer 96

12,800 lbs