Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

POD Exam 3 > Dasgupta > Flashcards

Dasgupta Flashcards

1
Q

MOPP

A

Hodgkin’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ABVD

A

Hodgkin’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CHOP

A

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CMF

A

Breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CAF

A

Breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PACE

A

Small cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

VIP

A

Germ cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BIP

A

Cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

M-BACOD

A

Lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BEP

A

Ovarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CVD

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

PEB

A

Testicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

G1 phase of cell cycle

A

Cell contents other than chromosomes are duplicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

S phase of cell cycle

A

DNA is replicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

G2 phase of cell cycle

A

Preparing for division (proteins produced, spindle apparatus forms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

M phase of cell cycle

A

Cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

G0 phase of cell cycle

A

Resting cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Alkylating agents: MOA

A

Add methyl (other alkyl group) to guanine residue of DNA causing cross-bridging between DNA nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Alkylating agent causing cross-linking between 2 DNA strands vs cross-linking between 2 residues on 1 DNA strand

A

Cross-linking between 2 strands = GOOD
Cross-linking of 2 residues on 1 strand results in increased ability to develop mutations that lead to resistance (due to DNA repair causing fragmentation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name 3 main alkylating agents

A
  • Mustragen (mechlorethamine)
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Chlorambucil

These are the other ones:

  • Estramustine phosphate
  • Busulfan
  • Nitrosureas (streptozocin, procarbazine, dacarbazine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Unique property of mustragen (mechlorethamine)

A

NOT excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What disease is mustragen commonly used to treat

A

Hodgkin’s disease (along with other chemotherapy agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Unique property of cyclophosphamide

A

Must be activated by p450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

2 Unique toxicities of cyclophosphamide

A
  • Hemorrhagic cystitis

- SIADH (water intoxication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What 3 diseases is cyclophosphamide used to treat

A
  1. Burkitt’s lymphoma
  2. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
  3. Other lymphomas/leukemias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drug that is generally administered to decrease side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis

A

MESNA (Mercaptoethanesulfonate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does MESNA work?

A

Reacts with acrolein (toxic by product of cyclophosphamide metabolism) in urine and detoxifies it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Estramustine phosphate route of administration and unique therapeutic effects

A
  • Can be given orally

- Anti-mitotic effect in addition to alkylating effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Unique toxicity with busulfan

A

Pulmonary fibrosis and hyper-pigmentation of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Unique toxicity with nitrosureas

A

Pulmonary fibrosis and nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What alkylating agent is given as a first line therapy for brain tumors? Why?

A

Nitrosureas due to being lipophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What should patients taking procarbazine avoid?

A
  • MAOInhibitors
  • Alcohol

*cause rapid increase in BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dacarbazine: MOA

A

Methylates DNA and RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cisplatin: MOA

A

Intrastrand crossling by binding to guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What element is contained in cisplatin

A

Platinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the hallmark side effect involving platinum drugs

A

NEPHROTOXICITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is generally administered with all chemotherapeutic agents? Why?

A
  • Normal saline for hydration

- Eliminate toxic metabolites and flush out the chemotherapy quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Are alkylating agents CCS or CCNS?

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Are platinum containing agents CCS or CCNS?

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

2 major drugs in the anthracycline category

A
  1. Doxorubicin

2. Daunorubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Antracycline: MOA

A
  • Intercalation of 2 strands of DNA, inhibiting topoisomerase
  • Cause single and double strand DNA breaks
  • Histone eviction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Are anthracyclines CCS or CCNS?

A

CCNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Unique toxicity with anthracyclines

A

Cardiotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What drug can be administered with anthracyclines to reduce there unique toxic side effect

A

Dexrazoxane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What drug has a similar mechanism of action to doxorubicin but has decreased incidence of cardiotoxicity

A

Mitoxantrone

*Note if cardiotoxicity is seen with this drug however, it is SEVERE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Main 2 drugs in the topoisomerase II inhibitor category

A
  • Etoposide

- Tenopside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Topoisomerase II active agent: MOA

A

Forms an inhibitory complex with DNA-topoisomerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Main cancers that topoisomerase II inhibitors are used in

A
  • Testicular

- Small-cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Are topoisomerase II inhibitors CCS or CCNS?

A

CCS = S and G2 phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Camptothecin Analog: MOA

A

Inhibitors of topoisomerase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

3 main drugs in the camptothecin analog family

A
  1. Camptothecin
  2. Topotecan
  3. Irinotecan
52
Q

Why is irinotecan different from the other 2 drugs in the camptothecin analogs

A

It is a prodrug, activated by TISSUE CARBOXYESTERASES

53
Q

Tissue carboxyesterases are produced in high levels in what type of cancer

A

Carcinoma

54
Q

Unique side effect of camptothecin analogs

A

Severe Diarrhea

55
Q

Are camptotheicn analogs CCS or CCNS?

A

CCS = S phase

56
Q

2 major chemotherapeutic antibiotics

A
  1. Bleomycins

2. Dactinomycin (Actinomycin D)

57
Q

Main use of Bleomycins

A
  • Testicular carcinoma (high cure rate)

- Lymphomas

58
Q

Is bleomycin CCNS or CCS?

A

CCS = G2 phase

59
Q

Unique toxicity associated with bleomycin use

A

Pulmonary fibrosis and pneumonitis

60
Q

Bleomycin: MOA

A

Bind to reduced iron (Fe2+) leading to free radical production

61
Q

Dactinomycin: MOA

A
  • Intercalates between purine-pyrimidine base pairs preventing transcription
  • Also causes SS breaks
62
Q

Is dactinomycin CCS or CCNS?

A

CCNS

63
Q

Dactinomycin unique property

A

Most potent anti-tumor agent known

64
Q

Unique toxicity: Dactinomycin

A
  • Oral and GI ulceration

- Stomatitis

65
Q

3 Major uses of dactinomycin

A
  • Methotrexate resistant tumors
  • Wilm’s tumor
  • Rhabdomyosarcoma
66
Q

Definition of Antimetabolites

A

Compounds that mimic endogenous biochemicals required for DNA/RNA synthesis

67
Q

2 Folic acid antimetabolite

A
  • Methotrexate

- Pemetrexed

68
Q

3 Pyrimidine antimetabolite

A
  • 5-Fluorouracil
  • Cytarabine
  • Gemcitabine
69
Q

Purine antimetabolite

A

6-mercaptopurine

70
Q

Folic acid analog: MOA

A

Inhibit DHFR

71
Q

Pemetrexed is what type of chemotherapeutic agent and what is special about this drug when compared to the others in its class

A

Folic acid analog, it inhibits TYMIDYLATE SYNTHASE as well as DHFR
*Thymidylate synthase is used in purine synthesis

72
Q

How does inhibiting DHFR result in cell death

A

Inability to form purines and pyrimidines

73
Q

Main therapeutic use of methotrexate and pemetrexed

A

Coriocarcinoma

74
Q

What other uses do methotrexate and pemetrexed have

A
  • Chemotherapy maintenance in ALL children, less active in adult
  • Combination therapy
75
Q

Unique toxicity: Folic acid analogs

A
  • Oral and GI ulceration
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Pulmonary toxicity
76
Q

Are folic acid analogs CCS or CCNS

A

CCS = S phase

77
Q

What is leucovorin

A

A “rescue regimen” given 24-36 hours after high-dose methotrexate

78
Q

What does leucovorin do?

A

Minimizes toxic effects of folate depletion

79
Q

T/F Leucovorin diminishes the anti-tumor activity or methotrexate

A

False

80
Q

5-Fluorouracil: MOA

A
  • Inhibit tymidylate synthase

- Incorporate directly into DNA/RNA

81
Q

Cytarabine: MOA

A
  • Inhibit DNA polymerase

- Incorporate directly into DNA

82
Q

Is 5-fluorouracil CCS or CCNS

A

CCNS

83
Q

Is cytarabine CCS or CCNS

A

CCS = S phase

84
Q

Is gemcitabine CCS or CCNS

A

CCNS

85
Q

Unique toxicity: Pyrimidine analogs

A

Oral and GI ulceration

86
Q

6-Mercaptopurine: MOA

A

Inhibition of purine precursor formation

87
Q

Is 6-Mercaptopurine CCS or CCNS

A

CCS = S phase

88
Q

What drug inhibits the metabolism of 6-mercaptopurine?

A

Allopurinol

*Commonly given to Diabetics suffering gout

89
Q

If a patient is taking allopurinol and you want to start 6-mercaptopurine as a chemotherapeutic agent, what must you do?

A

Decrease the dose of 6-mercaptopurine

90
Q

Adenosine Deaminase inhibitors: MOA

A

Inhibits adenosine deaminase (key enzyme needed in DNA synthesis)

91
Q

Main cancers where adenosine deaminase inhibitors are used

A

Hairy cell leukemia

*Other leukemias and lymphomas

92
Q

What are the 2 categories of tubular-binding agents

A
  • Vinca alkaloids

- Yew alkaloids

93
Q

3 vinca alkaloids

A
  • Vincristine
  • Vinblastine
  • Vinorelbine
94
Q

2 yew alkaloids

A
  • Paclitaxel (Taxol)

- Docetaxel

95
Q

Vinca alkaloids: MOA

A
  • Bind to tubulin

- Block Polymerization

96
Q

Yew alkaloid: MOA

A

Prevent microtubule DEPOLYMERIZATION

97
Q

Unique toxicity: Vinca alkaloids

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • SIADH
  • Hair loss
98
Q

Unique toxicity: Yew alkaloids

A

Peripheral neuropathy

99
Q

Are tubular binding agents CCS or CCNS

A

CCS = M phase

100
Q

Interferon: MOA

A

Inhibit tumor by increasing activity of host immune system

101
Q

Are interferons CCS or CCNS

A

CCNS

102
Q

Prednisone: MOA

A
  • Anti-inflammatory properties

- Induce apoptosis

103
Q

Cancer type where prednisone is used

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma and leukemias

104
Q

Progestins: MOA

A

Bind cancer cells expressing progesterone receptor

105
Q

2 Anti-estrogen drugs

A
  1. Tamoxifen

2. Toremefine

106
Q

Anti-estrogen: MOA

A

Binds estrogen receptor expressed on certain cancer cells

107
Q

Anti-androgen: MOA

A

Blocks androgen induced growth

108
Q

What drug is often combined with anti-androgen drugs and why

A

-Leuprolide

109
Q

Leuprolide

A

Inhibits testosterone production by blocking LH release

110
Q

Total androgen ablation

A

Blockage of production and binding of androgens by administering drug combinations

111
Q

How can antibodies be used as a chemotherapeutic regimen

A

Block cell surface receptors which promote tumor growth (or prevent angiogenesis)

112
Q

Main 3 antibody chemotherapuetic agents

A
  1. Bevuczimab
  2. Denusomab
  3. Trastuzumab
113
Q

Bevuczimab: MOA

A

Blocks VEGF preventing angiogenesis

114
Q

Denusomab: MOA

A

Blocks RANK-RANK-lingand in bone

115
Q

Trastuzumab: MOA

A

Blocks Her2/c-Neu

116
Q

Main 3 “targeted inhibitors” of cancer growth

A
  1. Imatinib
  2. Erlotinib/Gefitinib
  3. Crizotinib
117
Q

Imatinib: MOA

A

Block Bcr-Abl kinase

118
Q

Erlotinib/Gefitinib: MOA

A

Blocks EGFR signaling

119
Q

Crizotinib: MOA

A

Blocks ALK-1 kinase

120
Q

Is Bcl-2 a pro- or anti- apoptotic protein

A

Anti-apoptotic

121
Q

Venetoclax: MOA

A

Binds Bcl-2 and inhibits its expression

122
Q

Main cancer type where anti-apoptotic chemotherapies are used

A

Leukemias

123
Q

What category of chemotherapeutics do Vorinostat and Romidepsin fall under

A

HDAC (histone deacetylase) inhibitors

124
Q

HDAC inhibitors: MOA

A

Prevent histone de-acetylation, thereby preventing replication

125
Q

PARP-1 normal function

A

Rescue cells by base excision repair

126
Q

How is PARP-1 expression changed in most cancer cells?

A

Increased, thereby aiding in survival

127
Q

What 1 drug is a PARP-1 Inhibitor

A

Olaparib

POD Exam 3 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions