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Fixed Wing > Dans Instrument Study > Flashcards

Dans Instrument Study Flashcards

0
Q

How do you choose an alternate?

A

Step one: look for published nonstandard alternate minima on the airport information.
Step two: if no nonstandard alternate minima exist I use the standard alternate minima:
At the estimated time of arrival:
-If the airport has a precision approach at least 600 foot ceilings and 2 statute miles visibility
- If the airport has a non-precision approach at least 800 foot ceilings and two statute miles visibility
- If the airport has no published instrument approaches I must be able to to descend from the minimum enroute altitude, approach, and land under basic VFR

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1
Q

When do you require an alternate?

A

If from one hour before and one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the forecasted ceilings are 2000 or less and three statute miles visibility or less, then I must file an alternate

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2
Q

What are the standard alternate minima?

A

At the estimated time of arrival:

  • If the airport has a precision approach at least 600 foot ceilings and 2 stute miles visibility
  • If the airport has a non-precision approach at least 800 foot ceilings and two statute miles visibility
  • If the airport has no published instrument approaches I must be able to to descend from the minimum enroute altitude, approach, and land under basic VFR
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3
Q

When can you descend below decision altitude?

A

To descend below decision attitude I must:

  1. ) Be able to descend to land with a normal rate of descent and normal maneuvers,
  2. ) Have the required flight visibility and
  3. ) Have at least one of the following insight:
    • The approach lighting system except that I cannot descend below 100 feet above touchdown zone elevation.
    • The threshold, lights, or markings
    • The runway, lights, or markings
    • The touchdown zone lights or markings
    • The runway end identifier lights
    • The VASI (papi included)
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4
Q

What is the definition of flight visibility?

A

Flight visibility is the average forward horizontal distance that can be seen as viewed from the cockpit of an airplane in flight where prominent unlighted objects can be seen during the day and prominent lighted objects can be seen at night

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5
Q

Can you use an airport that only has a GPS approach as an alternate?

A

Yes but forecast weather at estimated time of arrival must allow descent from VFR conditions.

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6
Q

When can the pilot only descend to 100 feet above TDZE?

A

When only the approach lights (partial system) are in sight. To land the aircraft one of the other visual cues must be visible in addition to the normal position to land, and required flight visibility.

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7
Q

What transponder code should be used when two-way radio communication is lost?

A

7600

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8
Q

If VFR conditions are encountered after lost comms what action should be taken?

A

The pilot should maintain VFR and land as soon as practicable.

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9
Q

If lost comms is encountered in instrument meteorological conditions what route should the pilot use?

A

In order of priority:

  • last route assigned
  • last vectored
  • last expected
  • route filed
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10
Q

If lost comms is encountered in instrument meteorological conditions what altitude should the pilot use?

A

The highest of:

  • minimum in route altitude
  • last expected
  • last assigned
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11
Q

How will a pilot terminate a flight when communications have been lost in instrument meteorological conditions

A

The pilot will fly the proper route and altitude to the clearance limit. when the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expected further clearance time if one has been received, Or if one has not been received as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended estimated time en route. If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins leave the clearance limit at the expect further clearance time if one has been received or if none has been received upon arrival over the clearance limit and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins to commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended estimated time en route.

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12
Q

If no minimum altitude is published at what altitude must the pilot operate the aircraft?

A

Mountainous terrain: 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within four nautical miles.

Non-mountainous terrain: 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within four nautical miles.

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13
Q

At what altitude should be the aircraft operate above in IFR flight.

A

Aircraft should be operated above the IFR minimum for that segment of flight. usually this is the MEA but in the case of an MEA and MOCA the pilot can operate below the MEA but above the MOCA provided they are within 22 nautical Miles of the applicable VOR.

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14
Q

When changing altitude based on IFR minimum altitude, the climb should be initiated after passing the point where the minimum changes, unless obstacles prevent this. If the minimum crossing altitude MCA exists the aircraft must cross this point at or above the MCA.

A

Part 91.177
climb to a higher minimum I FR altitude shall begin immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies except that when ground obstructions intervene, the point beyond which that higher minimum altitude applies shall be crossed at or above the applicable MCA.

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15
Q

If the pilot is operating VFR on top what altitudes should be observed when operating below 18,000 feet MSL?

A

The semicircular rule applies For VFR altitudes

East is odd, West is even

magnetic course of 0° through 179° any odd thousand foot MSL altitude (3000 5000 7000)

Magnetic course of 180° through 359° any even thousand foot MSL altitude (2000 4000 6000)

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16
Q

What factors are considered when selecting an altitude for an IFR flight plan?

A
  1. Above all IFR minimum altitudes.
  2. Most favorable winds aloft.
  3. Correct altitude for direction of flight.
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17
Q

When can a pilot log instrument time?

A

A Pilot can log instrument time in his or her logbook when in actual or simulated conditions. If a safety pilot is required the pilot must log the location and type of each instrument approach accomplished and the name of the safety pilot.

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18
Q

What are the instrument currency requirements for the instrument airplane rating?

A

Within the preceding six calendar months the pilot must have accomplished:

  • Six approaches in actual or simulated conditions
  • Holding
  • Intercepting and tracking through the use of navigational sources

If the pilot has not accomplish this within the six-month period, there is a second six calendar months where the pilot can fly the requirements with an appropriately rated safety pilot if both six-month periods lapse for a total of 12 calendar months the pilot must find an ASI DPE or appropriately rated instructor CFII to perform an IPC.

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19
Q

What documents are required for flight?

A 
A- Airworthiness certificate 
R- Registration 
R- Radio certificate(for international flights) 
O- Operating limitations 
W- Weight and Balance
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20
Q

Go around missed approach 5 C’s

A 
C- Cram (Max power)
C- Climb (initiate climb)
C- Clean (aircraft configuration)
C- Cool (speed/ climb for temp)
C- Call (advise ATC)
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21
Q

Lost procedures: six C’s

A 
C- Climb
C- Circle
C- Conserve
C- Call
C- Confess
C- Comply
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22
Q

Three errors of instrument scan

A

Fixation
Omission
Emphasis

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23
Q

Transponder codes

A 
1200 VFR
7500 Hijack
7600 lost communication
7700 emergency
7777 military intercept
24
Q

Five T’s of holding

A 
T- Turn (entry heading)
T- Time (start timer)
T- Twist (twist OBS to inbound)
T- Throttle (set power for speed)
T- Talk (advise air-traffic control)
25
Q

Aircraft airworthiness (AVIATES)

A

A- Annual inspection
V- VOR
I- 100 hour inspection (for hire)
A- Airworthiness directives
T- Transponder (24 months)
E- Emergency locator transponder (12 months, one half shelf life, 1cumulative hour of use)
S- Static system (24 months) includes system and altimeter

26
Q

VOR equipment checks

A 
VOT ± 4
Ground checkpoint ± 4
Airborne checkpoint ± 6
VOR airway / point ± 6
Dual VOR ± 4
A & P test signal
27
Q

Compass errors

A 
Variation (magnetic versus true)
Deviation (interference) 
Oscillation (turbulence)
Magnetic dip 
Northerly turning (UNOS) 
Acceleration error (ANDS)
28
Q

Acceleration errors (ANDS)

A

Accelerate
North
Decelerate
South

29
Q

Northerly turning errors (UNOS)

A

Undershoot
North
Overshoot
South

30
Q

What are preferred routes?

A

Predetermined routes between airports that allow a pilot to file this predetermined routing to avoid rerouting and reduce ATC workload. Found in the airfield directory.

31
Q

What are standard instrument departures?

A

Predetermined routes designed to allow pilot to transition from the terminal structure to the en route structure. designed for traffic separation and to reduce ATC workload must possess at least the textual description of the procedure to accept.

32
Q

What are standard terminal arrival routes?

A

Predetermined routes designed to allow the pilot to transition from the enroute structure to the terminal structure. Designed for traffic separation and to reduce ATC workload, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the procedure to accept

33
Q

What are the five segments of an approach

A 
Arrival segment
Initial approach segment 
Intermediate approach segment 
Final approach segment 
Missed approach procedure
34
Q

What is the arrival of segment of an approach?

A

The route followed from the enroute phase of the flight to the initial approach fix. It usually starts at an enroute fix and ends at the initial approach fix, generally the first navigational facility associated with the procedure. Also known as a feeder route or a terminal route.

35
Q

What is the initial approach segment of an approach?

A

That segment of an instrument approach procedure between the initial approach fix and the intermediate approach fix or, where applicable, the final approach fix or point.

36
Q

What is the intermediate approach segment?

A

That segment between either the intermediate fix and the final approach fix or point, or between the end of a reversal, race track, or dead reckoning track procedure and the final approach fix or point, as appropriate.

37
Q

What is the final approach segment?

A

The segment in which the alignment and descent to landing are accomplished.

38
Q

What is the missed approach procedure portion of an approach?

A

The procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be continued for any reason.

39
Q

MEA - minimum enroute altitude

A

Minimum enroute altitude ensures signal reception along the entire route an obstacle clearance of:

mountainous terrain - 2000 feet above the highest obstacle

non mountainous terrain - 1000 feet above the highest obstacle

40
Q

MOCA- minimum obstruction clearance altitude

A

The minimum obstruction clearance altitude ensures signal reception only guaranteed within 22 nautical miles of the VOR and obstacle clearance of:

mountainous terrain - 2000 feet above the highest obstacle

non mountainous terrain - 1000 feet above the highest obstacle

41
Q

MAA - maximum authorized altitude

A

The maximum authorized altitude is the maximum altitude along that route it ensures signal reception without interference from same frequency stations.

42
Q

MRA - minimum reception altitude

A

The minimum reception altitude is the lowest altitude an intersection can be identified (from cross signal)

43
Q

MCA - minimum crossing altitude

A

Minimum crossing altitude the lowest altitude a fix can be crossed. You must cross that fix at or above this altitude.

44
Q

OROCA (MORA)

Off Route obstruction clearance altitude AKA minimum off route altitude.

A

The OROCA or MORA provides no signal guarantee and an obstacle clearance of

mountainous terrain - 2000 feet above the highest obstacle

non mountainous terrain - 1000 feet above the highest obstacle

45
Q

What questions should be asked when issued a hold?

A

Where to hold - what makes up the fix.
How to hold - standard / nonstandard and inbound course.
How long to hold - Expect further clearence time.
How to enter - determine entry procedure.

46
Q

Maximum holding speeds

A

Up to 6000 feet 200 kn indicated airspeed

6001 through 14,000 feet up to 230 kn indicated airspeed

14,001 feet and above up to 265 kn indicated airspeed

47
Q

Holding times

A

Standard holds below 14,000 feet are one minute legs.

Holds 14,000 feet and above our half minute legs.

48
Q

Pitot heat usage

A

Instrument flying handbook says the Most conducive range for icing to occur is +5°C to -20°C in visible moisture. In this range Pitot heat should be used in anticipation of icing also use Pitot heat when icing is suspected.

49
Q

Moad C requirements

A

A Mode C (altitude encoding) transponder is required when operating in:

  • Class A B and C airspace
  • Within 30 nautical miles of a class B primary airport (Mode C veil)
  • Above class B and C up to 10,000 feet MSL
  • All airspace above 10,000 feet MSL except below 2500 feet AGL
50
Q

GPS modes

A

Enroute - greater than 30 nautical miles from the FPL (or direct to) destination airport, or loaded approach
- sensitivity is five nautical miles either side of course = full deflection.

Terminal - within 30 Nautical miles from the FPL (or direct to) destination airport, or loaded approach
-sensitivity is one nautical mile either side of course = full deflection.

Approach-2 Nautical miles from the final approach fix on approach (also the green approach mode(RAIM))
- Sensitivity is .3 nautical miles either side of course = full deflection.

51
Q

Standard terminal arrival route

A

STAR Simplifies clearances, provides guidance from enroute, to approach, to destination. must have at least textual or graphic depiction in order to perform. if you don’t want a star right no star in the remarks section of flight-plan

52
Q

When is a procedure turn prohibited?

A
  1. NoPT on chart
  2. Procedure turn NA on chart
  3. Radar vectors to final
  4. Timed approach from a hold
53
Q

What’s the difference between a localizer, localizer directional aid, and simplified directional facility?

A

Localizer: 3-6° wide, aligned within 3° of the runway.
LDA: 3-6° wide, aligned greater than 3° to end of the runway.
SDF: 6-12° wide, no glide slope, might not be aligned with the runway.

54
Q

How wide is the localizer signal at the approach end of the runway?

A

700 feet

55
Q

What fuel minimum is required for an IFR flight?

A

Fuel onboard must be suitable to fly from the departure to the planned arrival location through the alternate then for an additional 45 minutes.

56
Q

What is required for a thunderstorm to form?

A
  1. Lifting Action
  2. Instability
  3. Moisture
57
Q

What is the thunderstorm life cycle?

A
  1. Cumulus - Updraft
  2. Mature - precipitation begins
  3. Dissipating - mostly downdrafts

Fixed Wing (2 decks)

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