Damages Flashcards
What are the aim of damages within a contract? Robinson v Harman 1848
The rule of the common law is that where a party sustains loss by reason of a breach of contract, he is, so far as money can do it, to be placed in the same situation, with respect to damages, as if the contract had been performed.” - be placed in the same position as before the damage.
This aim of damages means that…
Since the aim is to protect the expectation interest of the parties, contract damages are not to be awarded to punish the party in breach.
Do punitive damages relate to the loss suffered?
No - they will not serve to cast the innocent party forward to the position the party would have been in if the contract was performed.
What can the loss of bargain be identified as?
- The profit lost as a result of the breach; or
* The difference in value between the contract price and the market price
Where the breach causes damage to property, the innocent party’s lost bargain could be reflected by
- The cost of correcting the breach (the cost of cure); or
* Damages to reflect the difference in value between what the innocent party got and what was contracted for.
Is it also possible to claim damages in which reflect non-financial expectation losses?
Yes -
• Damages for loss of enjoyment and disappointment/distress
• Physical inconvenience
Will the mere fact that it is difficult to assess what the claimant has lost act as a bar to claim for expectation damages?
no -
Chaplin v Hicks 1911 - Claimant lost chance as d promised audition - c entitled to £100 damages.
What was held in BCCI v Ali 2002?
claimant must show on the balance of probabilities that s/he has lost a “substantial chance rather than a speculative one
What is the reliance interest?
This is damages in which restore previous position.
So how is the award of reliance damages different to the award of expectation damages?
- An award of reliance damages casts the injured party back to the pre-contractual position;
- The traditional contract law measure casts the innocent party forward to the position they would have been in had the contract been performed.
What was held in Anglia TV v Reed 1971?
Profit loss was too speculative - The film could have made a lot of money or it could have been a flop. On that basis, the CA awarded the claimant the expenditure incurred before the breach so that the damages restored the status quo.
Is there always a choice for the innocent part or are reliance damages the only option only if there is either no lost profit; or very little lost profit; or if the lost profit is too speculative?
CCC Films Ltd v Impact Quadrant Films 1985 - The plaintiff has an unfettered choice: it is not only in those cases where he establishes by evidence that he cannot prove loss of profit or that such loss of profits as he can prove is small that he is permitted to frame his claim as one for wasted expenditure
Can it be argued that the use of the reliance measure (wasted expenditure claims) is consistent with the expectation/performance interest?
Yes, such a claim can be seen as the claimant arguing that if the contract had been performed, the expenditure would have been recouped
What is the traditional common law position if there is no loss resulting from a breach?
The traditional common law position is that if there is no loss resulting from a breach then there is no basis for compensation.
What is disgorgement damages’ or ‘gain-based damages’?
However it is common for other jurisdictions (in particular the civil law jurisdictions) to strip the guilty party’s profit made from the breach and award to the innocent party. Such a claim is founded in the law of unjust enrichment and it is to reverse the wrongful transfer of wealth (the remedy of restitution)