Dairy 2 Flashcards

***emphasized in class*** material from dry period onwards.

1
Q

what is the dry period in cattle? give length and what happens to mammary gland

A

period between end of one lactation and beginning of next [this will be before parturition]. mammary gland is involuting during first 5 weeks. total length is 50-60 days

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2
Q

what is the 2 group nutritional scheme for dry period

A

in the 2 group scheme, diet 1 has lower Mcal/kg and is fed until 21 days before parturition. diet 2, the last 21 days before birth, has higher Cal/kg

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3
Q

give at least 3 reasons why transition period in dairy cows is a critical time of life

A

many physiological and metabolic changes (from pregnant nonlactating to non pregnant lactating), most health disorders occur during this time, most infectious diseases occur during this time (eg. milk fever, ketosis, immunosuppression mastitis), important for health and production of the animals

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4
Q

definition of transition period in dairy cows

A

period between 3 weeks before and 3 weeks after parturition

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5
Q

in the dry period, what is happening to the rumen

A

adaptation of rumen microbiota to digest higher starch diet, adaptation of epithelium and papillae to absorb large amount FVAs produced by fermentation, size of luminal papillae are decreasing and then 2 weeks pre-parturition begin increasing

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6
Q

during the transition period nutrient requirements are __ and DMI is ___ (at least until birth)

A

increasing, decreasing (after birth, DMI increases)

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7
Q

what is linked with greater incidences of periparturient health problems

A

excessive lipid mobilization from adipose tissue

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8
Q

DMI increases or decreases as calving approaches during transition period of dairy cows

A

decreases

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9
Q

how does body condition target score change from calving day to dry period

A

calving day target BCS is 3.25-3.75, this drops to a low of 2.25-2.75 at 75 days post calving (while they are in negative energy balance), then increases back to 3.25-3.75 by beginning of dry period.

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10
Q

with short dry periods (under 30 days) or no dry period, cows may have ____

A

lower chance of somatic cell count reduction due to self-cure or cure achieved with dry cow antibiotics

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11
Q

what are 3 benefits of shortened dry periods (28-40 days)

A

allow 1-group nutritional scheme, can be used for multiparous cows to extend lactation period, and simplifies nutritional management of farm

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12
Q

describe high-fibre controlled energy dry cow feeding “Goldilocks diet”

A

provides just enough energy to cow, lots of chopped straw, includes ingredients of lactation diet, forage NDF is 40-50% of DM, fed as TMR, may need to add water

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13
Q

objectives of well balanced early lactation diets

A

maximize DMI, supply minimum requirement of fibre and protein, maximize diet energy availability, balance protein and carbohydrate fractions, meet all nutritional needs, prevent loss BCS and maximize milk production

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14
Q

heifers have a higher %DMI (by BW) compared to cows in the 3 weeks before calving, true or false

A

heifers have lower DMI compared to cows. (both cows and heifers are decreasing their DMI intake in the 3 weeks before calving)

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15
Q

in an obese cow, there will be a larger and more problematic reduction in DMI in the 3 weeks approaching calving, true or false

A

true

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16
Q

why do we even bother maintaining rumen fill during dry period of cow? give at least 2 reasons

A

decreases assisted calving, milk fever, retained placenta, displaced abomasum, and ketosis

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17
Q

give 5 parameters that should be monitored in early lactation

A

intake, poops (consistency, presence of grind. and finer particles), milk fat concentration, milk solids (higher protein than fat is not good), BCS

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18
Q

as milk production increases (kg/d), BW loss ____

A

also increases (higher negative energy balance)

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19
Q

Bertha the cow has went from BCS 3.75 to 2.75 from day 0 to 30 postpartum. should we be concerned she has lost this much body condition?

A

as long as we limit the BCS change to more than -1.25, and her lowest BCS is above 2.25, it is ok (negative energy balance is normal during this time)

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20
Q

at 4 days postpartum (very early lactation period), cows are consuming _____ net energy and metabolizable protein than is required to maintain a) neutral energy balance? b) demands of mammary use

A

a) less net energy and metabolizable protein that is required to maintain neutral energy balance (ie. they are in negative energy balance). b) enough for mammary use

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21
Q

what is the length of the net energy balance in cow location period? when is it most severe? what do we need to pay careful attention to during this time?

A

45-50 days; most severe first 3 weeks postpartum; monitor BCS

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22
Q

cows need nutrients for maintenance, lactation, growth, and gestation during their lactation period. the nutrient requirements of lactating cows vary according to what 6 factors

A

parity, cow size, body condition, milk production, physical activity/temperature, gestation/fetal growth

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23
Q

how is water lost from Bessie the cow

A

milk production, urine excretion, fecal excretion, sweat, vapour loss from lungs

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24
Q

what sources of water does Bessie the cow have

A

drinking/free water intake, ingestion in feed, water produced by body metabolism of nutrients

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25
Q

did you know, cows drink several times a day, up to 150 L/day and 4-15 kg/minute. water intake is increased by what 5 factors?

A

milk production, diet DM, diet salt content, exposure to direct sunlight, high temperature (drink 29% more at 30C compared to 18C)

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26
Q

water availability and quality are important for animal health and productivity. how much salt should be in good water

A

under 100 mg/L total soluble salts (TSS)

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27
Q

deficiencies in trace elements and vitamins, especially Se and vitamin E, may be associated with what

A

increased reproductive disease

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28
Q

rumen microbes make what vitamins

A

vitamin K and all B vitamins, as long as the rumens are healthy (if stressed may need added B3 (niacin) and thiamine (B1); minerals and vitamins are supplemented in feed as well)

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29
Q

what is net energy for maintenance in a 650 kg cow

A

NE maintenance per day = 0.080 Mcal/kg x BW^0.75 = 0.080 Mcal/kg x 650^0.75 = 10.3 Mcal/d

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30
Q

what is net energy for maintenance? what is NE for lactation in a 650 kg cow who produced 10 kg milk?

A

energy contained in milk produced.
the true formula is NEL (Mcal/kg) = (0.0929 x fat%) +( 0.0547 x CP%) + (0.0395 x lactose%).
the shortcut is 0.68 Mcal/kg milk, so about 6.8 Mcal/10 L.
I don’t know if we need to know the long formula. (also the cow weight doesn’t matter, I was being tricky)

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31
Q

what is the effect on NE lactation as: milk CP% increases? milk fat % increases? milk lactate % increases?

A

these all increase the net energy for lactation

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32
Q

for every 10 degree C reduction in ambient temperature below 20 degrees C, what is the effect?

A

1.8% reduction in DM digestibility for lactating cows (increases DMI which increases rate of passage of feed through digestive tract)

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33
Q

mild to severe heat stress have what affect on maintenance requirements?

A

increase (estimated by 7-25%, which is not great because DMI is reduces by heat stress. note heat stress is affected by ambient temperature, relative humidity, radiant energy, and wind speed)

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34
Q

primary goal of any nutrition program is

A

formulate diets that meet nutrition requirements of animal

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35
Q

what 2 things are needed as a major factor influencing nutrient utilization, to design an effective nutritional program for lactating dairy cows

A

DMI (the most important) and nutrient digestibility

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36
Q

what is DMI driven by in lactating dairy cows? does DMI increase increase or decrease digestibility of nutrients?

A

milk production. DMI increase (eg. due to increased milk production)–> faster passage rate of ingest –> decrease digestibility of nutrients

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37
Q

give the DMI (kg/d) in a cow with 4% fat corrected milk (FCM), 600 kg body weight (BW), at 4th week of lactation WOL).

A

DMI (kg/d) = [0.372 x FCM + 0.0968 x BW^0.75] x [1-e^(-0.192 x (WOL + 3.67)] = [0.372 x 0.04 + 0.0968 x 600^0.75] x [1-e^(-0.192 x (4 + 3.67)] = 9.06 kg/d. (note: there’s no sample calculation so I don’t know if this is right. also you are adjusting as needed in practice)

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38
Q

give the super approximate DMI, BW, milk production, %CP, %NDF, %starch, and %fatty acids for cows in Michigan, Ohio, Georgia study

A

23 kg/d DMI, 669 kg BW, 38 kg/d milk, 17% CP, 31% NDF, 27% starch, 2.6% fatty acids (I really don’t know what we’re expected to memorize, sorry)

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39
Q

as DMI increases, dry matter digestibility decreases according to the model formula DMD = 69 - 0.83 x DMI%BW.. the model works well for Ohio cows (midwestern USA) but not Georgia (southern USA). why?

A

the model works better for cooler areas. Georgia’s a warm state

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40
Q

as forage fibre increases in the diet, what happens to DMI

A

reduces DMI (note if there is too little fibre, adding fibre will help DMI, ie. increasing 20-25%. but then decreasing when cow is fed feasible rations of 25%-45%)

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41
Q

as NDF (as % of DM) increases in diet, what happens to DMI? what happens to fill limitation?

A

as NDF intake increases, max DMI increases, but fill limitation value decreases (say you fed 30% NDF to a cow, its fill limitation is at 4%, but it will only eat 2.75% DMI (for this particular cow). if you increase to 40% NDF, its fill limitation is now decreased to 3% but its DMI has increased to 3%)

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42
Q

optimum NDF intake occurs at

A

point of maximum milk yield, usually about 1.25% BW per day for cows in mid to late lactation

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43
Q

are cows eating more or less at second lactation, compared to first

A

more

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44
Q

pectins, hemicellulose, lignins, and cellulose make up cell walls. which are part of NDF? which are part of ADF?

A

hemicellulose, legnini, and cellulose are part of NDF (non-digestible fibre) (lignin is a non-fibre carbohydrate). only lignins and cellulose are ADF (acid detergent fibre)

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45
Q

what is formula for NFC (non fibre carbohydrate)?

A

NFC = 100% - CP% - NDF% - EE (ether extract) - ash

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46
Q

the volatile fatty acids ____ and ___ are used to produce triglycerides, responsible for milk fat. ____ is used to produce glucose and lactose, responsible for milk yield

A

acetate and butyrate; propionate

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47
Q

as the concentrates in diet increase and forages decrease, milk production _____

A

increases until 70:30 concentrate:forage ratio, at which point it plummets

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48
Q

as the concentrates in diet increase and forages decrease, milk fat _____

A

remains steady until 70:30 concentrate:forage ratio, at which point it decreases

49
Q

as the concentrates in diet increase and forages decrease, what happens to total VFA production, propionic acid production, acetic acid production, and butyric acid production

A

total VFA production and propionic acid production increase until concentrates exceed 70% of diet, at which point they decrease. acetic acid produced decreases. butyric acid remains the same

50
Q

as milk fat production increases, luminal pH

A

increases (more alkaline)

51
Q

which ferment the fastest in the rune: pectin, soluble carbohydrates,or cellulose

A

soluble carbohydrates fastes (cellulose slowest)

52
Q

order these processed corn grains from lowest to highest total digestible nutrients (TDN): ground, high-moisure, steam-flaked, and cracked

A

cracked, ground, high-moisture, steam-flaked (these are increasing rate of fermentation, so could influence risk of acidosis)

53
Q

as minimum forage NDF decreases, minimum dietary NDF _____, maximum dietary NFC ________, and the minimum dietary ADF ________

A

minimum dietary NDF increases (need to get from a source other than forage), maximum dietary NFC decreases, minimum dietary ADF increases

54
Q

NDF concentration in the diet must be higher when forage is _________

A

finely chopped

55
Q

consider these 6 things when formulating diets at minimum concentration of NDF

A

base on composition of feed (not table values), particle size >3mm, grain source processing, feed as TMR, careful of feed mixing and delivery errors, and that it is better not to feed at the minimum NDF level

56
Q

what is effective NDF, eNDF

A

sum total ability of NDF in feed to replace NDF if forage or roughage so that %milk fat is maintained

57
Q

most sources of NDF from nonforage (eg. NDF from beet pulp or grain, rather than long coarsely chopped NDF) is significantly less effective at ____ than are forages

A

maintaining milk fat % (on average, non forage eNDF is only half was effective as NDF from forage, but listed cottonseed is an exception and has higher eNDF value than other non forages)

58
Q

what is peNDF (physically effective peNDF)

A

physical characteristics of NDF, especially particle size, that affect chewing activity and biphasic nature (gas and liquid) or rumen contents

59
Q

peak microbial protein production is about 4 kg/d. this will occur at what value of organic matter fermented in rumen per day?

A

25 kg/d (as organic matter in rumen increases, so does the microbial protein production, until that peak value. then after that drops off slightly)

60
Q

pef should be _______ of ration DM for lactating dairy cows

A

> 21-22%

61
Q

why do we need a minimum NDF

A

rumen health

62
Q

why do we need a minimum NFC

A

for rumen fermentation (VFA and microbial protein synthesis) as well as for milk yield and protein. so, NFC is needed to supply energy to animal as well as the rumen microbiota

63
Q

availability of carbohydrates with fast degradation in the rumen, ie. NFC, will have what effects on microbes and the animal

A

increase microbial protein synthesis as well as increase supply of metabolizable protein to animal

64
Q

how does decreasing NFC in diet decrease milk protein production

A

decreased NFC –> decrease microbial protein synthesis –> decrease metabolizable protein supply –> decrease milk protein production

65
Q

what is optimum NFC in dairy cow diet

A

38-40% DM

66
Q

**an excess of NFC in dairy cow diet will have what effects? **

A

decrease ruminal pH, promoting subclinical or clinical acidosis, decreasing the milk yield and fat content

67
Q

**an excess of NFC in dairy cow diet will have what effects? **

A

decrease ruminal pH, promoting subclinical or clinical acidosis, decreasing the milk yield and fat content

68
Q

what should dairy cow poop look like

A

formed shape, see concentric rings

69
Q

what should dairy cow feed look like

A

variety of particle sizes, the long fibres shouldn’t be super long or the cows will sort through them and not eat them

70
Q

what is metabolizable protein?

A

true protein that is digested postruminally and the component amino acids absorbed by the small intestine.
ie. microbial protein + rumen undegradable protein + endogenous protein = metabolizable protein

71
Q

how much protein does the dairy cow need? when does maximal microbial protein synthesis occur?

A

maximum microbial protein synthesis at 22 mg ammonium per decilitre of fumes fluid. MINIMUM level is 5 mg N-NH3/dl in rumen fluid, about 7% CP, but want more than this ideally

72
Q

who will produce the most microbial protein (in kg/d): a dry cow, a cow producing 50L milk/d, or a cow producing 10 L milk/d

A

more milk = more microbial protein production. dry cows produce very little

73
Q

which NFC type promotes higher efficiency of luminal microbial protein synthesis, NDF or starch?

A

starch

74
Q

what are main 3 limiting amino acids in lactating cows?

A

methionine, lysine, histamine

75
Q

when is methionine limiting amino acid in dairy cows

A

when majority of the rumen undegraded protein is supplied by oilseed meal (eg. soybean or canola meal) or animal protein

76
Q

when is lysine limiting amino acid in dairy cows

A

when majority of the rumen undegraded protein is supplied by corn product

77
Q

when is histamine limiting amino acid in dairy cows

A

when grass, barley, or oat silage is in diet

78
Q

why should we avoid feeding excess protein in diet

A

energy intensive to convert to urea. (if we increase 4 mg/dl plasma urea N, corresponding loss of 200g of body fa or 1.5 L of milk. N is expensive to convert to urea). also negative effect on reproduction.

79
Q

protein: what crude protein (CP) level do we aim for? how much of this CP should be rumen degradable vs undegradable protein (RDP vs RUP)?

A

16-17% CP. 60-65% of CP should be RDP, 35-40% of CP should be RUP

80
Q

we monitor protein levels in dairy cattle with what biochemical parameter? what level do we aim for?

A

milk urea nitrogen (MUN) should be 12-18 mg/dl. milk protein also needs to be >3.2%

81
Q

diets with excess CP (>19%) have a negative effect on reproduction. give a few specific negative effects related to reproduction (or other negative effects).

A

increase blood urea, decrease uterine pH, chance uterine fluid composition, decrease plasma progesterone decrease conception rate, increase services per pregnancy, increase days open, increase embryonic loss

82
Q

give 4 benefits of fat supplementation

A

increase energy density, reduce heat increment, increase feed efficiency, decrease methane production

83
Q

give 2 drawbacks of excess fat supplementation

A

decrease rumen fermentable matter, decrease fibre degradation in rumen (especially with unsaturated fats), reduce milk fat percentage through altering fermentation

84
Q

how much fat to give in diet of lactating dairy cow

A

3-4% DM as supplemental fat; 6-7 ether extract in total diet DM

85
Q

what is TMR? give an advantage of using TMR

A

most dairy herds are fed this diet type. every bite is a complete, nutritionally balanced diet. make milk fat depression and other digestive upsets less likely to occur

86
Q

compare and contrast using a single-ration TMR vs several TMR-rations for a herd

A

single ration: simpler, formulated for needs of higher producing group (could lead to over conditioning of lower need groups), based on principle that higher needs cows will have higher DMI. multiple rations: can meet needs of different groups, reduces feed costs, and easier to control BCS, but requires moving animals (can cause stress) as their needs chance

87
Q

give two ways concentrate amounts can be fed to lactating dairy cows

A

tie-stall and stanchion barns (these involve manually dispensing the concentrate on top of the TMR) vs free-stall barns with a computerized concentrate feeder (program the allowances of feed)

88
Q

what is a potentially disadvantage of using concentrate as a motivating factor for cows to enter the robotic milking system

A

diet consumed may be different from what is formulated (1 kg of dispensed feed may replace 0.8-1.6 kg of the partial mixed ration, ie cows not eating to their needs)

89
Q

when there is a sudden increase in Ca demand from late gestation to early lactation, what disease can occur? give subclinical and clinical indicator (hint: give the blood value)

A

hypocalcemia (milk fever), a decrease in plasma Ca concentration. subclinical is total blood Ca 1.4-2.0 mol/L; clinical is <1.4 mmol/L

90
Q

subclinical hypocalcemia has what 4 negative effects on dairy cows

A

increase risk of metabolic and infectious disease, increase risk of reproductive disorders, increase early culling, decrease milk production

91
Q

calcium homeostasis: alkaline blood causes a conformational change in PTH receptors, causing what

A

loss of tissue sensitivity to PTH

92
Q

calcium homeostasis: hypomagnesia causes loss of tissue sensitivity to what

A

PTH

93
Q

what breed and age is most susceptible to hypocalcemia

A

older cows > heifers (heifer bones are more responsive to PTH and more receptors for vitamin D in intestine); Jersey cows more susceptible

94
Q

give 2 diet strategies to prevent hypocalcemia

A

low Ca diets or low dietary cation-anion diets

95
Q

excessive dietary intake of P increases the risk of what

A

hypocalcemia

96
Q

low plasma calcium stimulates ___ release, which acts to resorb calcium from bone and ____ renal absorption of Ca

A

PTH (parathyroid hormone); enhance

97
Q

high plasma calcium stimulates _____ secretion which lowers plasma calcium by limiting _______

A

calcitonin; bone resorption

98
Q

parathyroid hormone has what 2 functions

A

raise calcium via bone resorption and renal calcium reabsorption; stimulate vitamin D production by kidney

99
Q

prepartum dairy cow diets should be balanced for what 3 nutrients and 1 other factor to reduce the risk of hypocalcemia

A

Ca, Mg, P intake; dietary cation-anion diet value (details: Ca intake 50-70g/d; Mg 40-50 g/d; P <35/d; DCAD -150 to 150 mEq kg/DM

100
Q

diet DCAD should be adjusted to achieve average urinary pH of what in Holstein cows? what about Jersey cows?

A

6.0-7.0 for Holsteins, 5.5-6.5 for Jerseys (think, Jersey cows are little, so they have a little lower pH)

101
Q

ketosis, which a majority of high-producing cows are likely to experience to some degree subclinically in early lactation, can occur is negative energy balance state due to ______

A

excessive fat mobilization (end-products of liver fat metabolism are ketone bodies)

102
Q

how can ketosis be detected

A

blood, milk, urine, and smelling cow breath (sweet breath)

103
Q

how can ketosis be detected

A

blood, milk, urine, and smelling cow breath (sweet breath)

104
Q

you cow is off feed, constipated, depressed, loses some BCS, and is producing less milk. you smell her sweet breath and grab a confirmatory test and some treatment for her condition. how are you treating her condition

A

propylene glycol is preferred treatment, IV glucose may have some immediate benefit

105
Q

_________ administration to close-up dry cows reduces the incidence of ketosis

A

monensisn sodium

106
Q

you cow is off feed, constipated, depressed, loses some BCS, and is producing less milk. you smell her sweet breath and scribble the disorder you suspect on your SOAP, which is ______

A

ketosis

107
Q

most LDAs are diagnosed during what stage of a cow’s life

A

first 2 weeks postpartum

108
Q

the abomasum can rotate under the rumen and omasum to the left or right, but usually rotates to the ___ side

A

left (90% cases)

109
Q

when excess gas collects in the abomasum and rotates under the rumen and then up on the left side of the body behind the rumen (which is emptier than usually due to decreased feed intake), this is known as ______ and surgical intervention may be required

A

left displaced abomasum

110
Q

how can LDAs be prevented, give at least 3 ways

A

prevent decrease in DM intake prevent hypocalcemia, promote adequate rumen fill, manage BCS

111
Q

what is the most common metabolic disorder in dairy cattle? give term and explain the condition

A

subacute rumen acidosis = pH of rumen between 5.2 and 5.6 for at least 3 hours in a day

112
Q

define rumen acidosis, including clinical signs

A

rumen pH below 5.0; this is less common but more serious than subacute rumen acidosis; causes elevated HR, diarrhea, depression, potential death if untreated

113
Q

what are at least 3 possible causes of rumen acidosis

A

decreased VFA production reducing absorption and buffering; excess grain or NFC in diet; rapid increase in dietary NFC, highly fermentable forages and/or insufficient dietary coarse fibre; insufficient rumen buffering due to inadequate chewing and salivation, cows sorting forage from diet

114
Q

incidence of subacute rumen acidosis is _______ in early and mid lactation dairy cow

A

19-26%

115
Q

give at least 4 consequences of subacute rumen acidosis

A

feed intake depression, reduced fibre digestion, milk fat depression, diarrhea, laminitis, liver abscesses, increased production bacterial endotoxin, inflammation

116
Q

high levels of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) indicate a state of ne

A
117
Q

low levels of beta-hydroxy butyrate are acceptable during period of negative energy balance in dairy cows (small amount of body weight loss is acceptable). at what level of BHBA is excessive, indicating that the degree negative energy balance is too large?

A

> 1 mmol/L

118
Q

nonesterified fatty acid (NEFA) level limits are _____ prepartum and ___ postpartum

A

0.29 mmol/L prepartum and 0.57 mmol/L postpartum (it is normal to have some degree of negative energy balance postpartum; these are the limits)