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Tri-State Training > Daily System Questions > Flashcards

Daily System Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which doors are not monitored by the PSEU system?

A

Aft equipment bay door / system hatch

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2
Q

What limitations are placed on the passenger door?

A

4 passengers or 1,000lbs

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3
Q

Which door(s) are not integral parts of the pressure vessel?

A

Aft equipment bay door and TRU bay

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4
Q

What would happen if the PFD was to fail in flight? What panel could be used to provide PFD information?

A

Display revisionary panel on the MFD

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5
Q

At what altitude during a descent does the Radio Altimeter begin indicating altitude information on the PFD?

A

2,500

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6
Q

Which panel and knob is used to display white needles or green needles on the PFD?

A

Display control panel and the NAV source selector

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7
Q

What will occur when airspeed drops to the low speed cue (snake)?

A

Shakers

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8
Q

How is aircraft yaw represented on the PFD?

A

The brick on the AH

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9
Q

Which air data computer normally provides information to the first officer’s PFD?

A

ADC 2

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10
Q

What is the difference between the MAG and DG settings on the COMPASS panel?

A

DG is slewed and the MAG is slaved

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11
Q

Which panel is used to set approach minimums (DH or MDA)?

A

Air Data Reference Panel

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12
Q

What is the function of the AIR DATA and ATTD HDG knobs on the SOURCE SELECTOR panel?

A

Switch between ADC 1/2 and AHRS 1/2

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13
Q

What are the two main components of an IDG?

A

CSD and generator

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14
Q

What medium does the CSD use to change variable engine speed to a constant output speed?

A

Self contained oil

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15
Q

What type of electrical power do the generators produce?

A

AC

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16
Q

What is the sequence of AC Generator priority and what controls it?

A

Controlled by the GCU
* Onside generator
* APU
* Cross side generator
* ADG
* Ground Power

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17
Q

If the number one generator fails in cruise flight, from where will the AC ESS Bus receive power?

A

AC Bus 1

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18
Q

When will the AC ESS XFER light be illuminated?

A

When AC bus 1 is not powering the essential bus

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19
Q

What does an amber AUTO XFER FAIL message indicate

A

Bus fail or fault

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20
Q

What will cause an IDG to automatically disconnect?

A

Overheat / over torque

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21
Q

If an IDG disconnects in flight, can it be reconnected?

A

No

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22
Q

Which busses are receiving power in the service configuration?

A

DC service bus and APU battery direct bus

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23
Q

When will the AC Utility Busses automatically load shed (in flight and on the ground)?

A

Loss of generator power in the air. Doors closed flaps down will shed on ground.

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24
Q

With AC power supplied, what does the DC Service switch control?

A

DC service bus, AC service, DC utility

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25
Q

From which sources can the AC ESS Bus receive power?

A

AC bus 1/2, ADG

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26
Q

Which DC TIEs operate automatically, and which ones operate manually

A

DC 1/2 automatic and manual
Essential is manual only

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27
Q

When will the ADG automatically deploy and what does it power?

A

Total loss of AC power
Powers AC essential bus

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28
Q

Which generator and bus parameters do the GCUs monitor?

A

Onside engines
Priority to its related side

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29
Q

What will cause a fault light to illuminate in the IDG switchlight?

A

HOT LOP
High Oil Temp / Low Oil Pressure

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30
Q

The FIRE DETECTION system is being tested for what when the TEST switch is selected to the WARN position.

A

Simulates a fire

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31
Q

The FIRE DETECTION system is being tested for what when the TEST switch is taken to the FAIL position.

A

Simulates a short

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32
Q

What indications should be present when the TEST switch is taken to the FAIL position?

A

Fire Fail
Jet Fail
APU Fail

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33
Q

What indications should be present when the TEST switch is taken to the WARN position?

A

L/R Jet pipe overheat
Firebell
Tripple chime
L/R Engine Fire
Oral Jet pipe overheat
Fire source lights
Bottle switch lights

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34
Q

Which aircraft components are being tested when the APU or ENGINE BOTTLE switches are in the TEST position?

A

Fire suppression systems

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35
Q

The FIRE DETECTION system incorporates how many bottles of Halon for engine fire extinguishing?

A

2 total for both engines

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36
Q

What EICAS indications are present if an engine bottle has been discharged

A

L/R Squib 1/2

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37
Q

What possible problems exist if an ENG FIRE FAIL message is displayed?

A

Loop short

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38
Q

List the functions of the ENG FIRE switch.

A

Arm the bottle
Bleed SOV closed
Fuel SOV Closed
Hydolic SOV Closed
Turn off IDG

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39
Q

What is the FMA and where is it located?

A

Flight Mode Annuciater
Located above the AH

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40
Q

Where is “armed” FMA information displayed?

A

To the right and dispayed in white

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41
Q

Does the autopilot control the rudder?

A

No

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42
Q

Pushing a TOGA button on the ground before takeoff performs what function?

A

Activates Takeoff mode
Configures for possition

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43
Q

Pushing a TOGA button in flight performs what function?

A

Go Around Mode

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44
Q

At cruise with the autopilot engaged, what FCP functions must be accomplished in order to descend?

A

Setting an altitude lower than current and a verticle mode

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45
Q

What is the flight director’s “Basic” mode? What is the difference between the ALT and ALTS flight director modes?

A

Pitch / Roll
ALTS is a captured
and ALT is held current alt

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46
Q

What is the recommended method to engage the autopilot?

A

Verticle mode, Lateral mode, autopilot on

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47
Q

What is the normal method to disengage the autopilot?

A

AP disc on yoke

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48
Q

What is the correct way to remove the flight directors from both PFD’s?

A

PF flight director mode off

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49
Q

When does the FCC 1 only control FD 1?

A

Takeoff, app, and go around

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50
Q

After making a selection of the FCP, two green lights illuminate on each side of the button that has been depressed. These two green lights indicate what?

A

The FCP has acknoledged the button press

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51
Q

What is the difference between the CLB and IAS flight director modes?

A

CLB protects with atleast 50’ per minute
IAS will do whatever to capture airspeed mode

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52
Q

What is 10th stage bleed air used for?

A

Packs and engine start

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53
Q

What is 14th stage bleed air used for?

A

Anti-ice
Reversers

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54
Q

How are the 10th & 14th SOVs and ISOL valves controlled and operated?

A

Controlled electronically and operated pneumaticly

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55
Q

In what position do the 10th & 14th stage SOVs and ISOL valves fail?

A

10th closed
14th open

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56
Q

What is the difference between a huffer and a bottle? Why is it important to know which you are using?

A
  • Huffer is high pressure and can help start your engine
  • Bottle is one shot
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57
Q

What sources can pressurize the 10th stage bleed air manifold? What about the 14th stage?

A

10th APU, L/R Engine
14th L/R Engine

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58
Q

The 10th stage “Interlock Protection” circuit is based upon what?

A

If engines SOVs are open the LCV closes

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59
Q

How are bleed air leaks detected in the 10th stage system?

A

Leak detection duel loops

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60
Q

How are bleed air leaks detected in the 14th stage system?

A

Leak detection single loops

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61
Q

When the DUCT MON switch is in the TEST position, what system is being tested for electrical continuity?

A

Duct Mon loops

5 Duct fail lights
Oral duct fail
Test OK EICAS

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62
Q

When is it not permissible to bleed 10th and 14th stage bleed air from the engines simultaneously? Why?

A

Takeoff, Landing, Go around.
It reduces thrust

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63
Q

Which ACMP is normally in the ON position with power supplied to the aircraft?

A

3A

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64
Q

How are hydraulic systems 1 & 2 cooled?

A

Ram air/fluid heat exchanger

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65
Q

While in normal flight, when will hydraulic 1B pump come on automatically?

A

When flaps are out of zero

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66
Q

If the ADG is deployed in flight, which hydraulic pump does it automatically power?

A

3B

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67
Q

With both engines’ shutdown, when can the APU power hydraulic pumps 1 & 2 B?

A

When the switches are in the on position

68
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are not available if the number 2 engine fails in flight?

A

1B and 2A

69
Q

How many Hydraulic systems are normally used to power the rudder?

A

All 3

70
Q

What is motive flow, and what provides it on the CRJ?

A

High pressure fuel goes into a venturi, increases velocity, and creates low pressure suction as it exits. Engine driven high pressure fuel pump.

71
Q

Which pumps can provide fuel to the engines?

A

Boost pumps and main ejectors

72
Q

The XFER ejectors move fuel from where to where?

A

Center to wing tanks

73
Q

The SCAVENGE ejectors move fuel from where to where?

A

From the wings to the collectors

74
Q

What button on the FUEL PANEL would you press to transfer fuel from the center tank to a wing tank?

A

It does it itself

75
Q

With the fuel crossflow system in AUTO, what is the function of the L and R switchlights on the fuel panel?

A

Indicate where the fuel is being transfered to

76
Q

Describe the actions you would take to transfer fuel from the left wing to the right wing in manual mode?

A

Push in the XFLOW Auto Override and the low tank

77
Q

When does the amber FUEL IMBALANCE message appear?

A

800lbs

78
Q

When does auto crossflow (wing to wing) take place?

A

200lbs imbalance

79
Q

How is fuel heated?

A

Oil heat exchanger on the engines

80
Q

How many of the STALL PCT PUSHER switches must be on for the pusher to operate?

A

Both

81
Q

After pulling and turning the ROLL DISC handle what does the illumination of the ROLL SEL light indicate?

A

Who has control

82
Q

After disconnecting the aileron torque tube via the ROLL DISC handle, can the torque tube be reconnected?

A

Yes

83
Q

While in normal cruise flight the PLT ROLL switch-light illuminates indicating what?

A

Pilot that has control of the roll

84
Q

What conditions must be met for all of the GLD to automatically deploy? (Spoilers)

A

Weight on wheel
Trust levers idle
Wheel speed
RA active

85
Q

What is the STAB TRIM priority?

A

Pilot, Co pilot, auto pilot, auto trim, mach trim

86
Q

How many PCUs power the: a) ailerons, b) elevator, and c) rudder?

A

Ailerons: 2
Elevator: 6 (3 each side)
Rudder: 3

87
Q

Which stage bleed air does the wing anti-ice system use?

A

14th

88
Q

What are the main differences between NORM and STBY on the wing anti-ice?

A

Norm will maintain 107°
Standby begins heating when it gets too cold

89
Q

During flight with at least one generator on line can the probe heat be turned off?

A

No always on with weight off wheels

90
Q

What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve?

A

isolate the two side of the 14th stage or connect the wing anti ice

91
Q

Is it possible to cross bleed cowl anti-ice?

A

No

92
Q

While in normal cruise flight the amber ICE message is displayed. What is the correct action.

A

Wing Anti ice on / Cowl anti ice on

93
Q

What is the difference between a “WING OVHT” message and an “ANTI ICE DUCT” message?

A

One is an overheat and one is a leak

94
Q

If the DISPLAY FAN on the AVIONICS COOLING panel is in the NORM position, which fans operate in flight?

A

Flight fan

95
Q

What is the CPAM and what are its functions?

A

Monitors status of cabin pressure. Sends message about cabin pressure cautions and warnings. Sends message about oxygen masks and deployment

96
Q

What happens when the EMER DEPRESS button is pushed in cruise flight at FL 240?

A

Outflow valves open and cabin alt clibs to 14,500

97
Q

Which aircraft components control the outflow valves?

A

Manual rate dial

98
Q

What will the PACKs automatically shut down for?

A

Over temp / over pressure

99
Q

When transferring the PACKs bleed source to the APU, what is the correct sequence when pushing the 10th stage bleed switchlights?

A

A- APU LCV
L- Left
I- ISOL
R- Right

100
Q

What is the difference between Auto and Manual PACK temperature control?

A

No fault protection in manual

101
Q

What happens when the RAM AIR switch is depressed in normal cruise flight?

A

Nothing

102
Q

What is the difference between CARGO FAN and CARGO COND AIR?

A

Cargo fan is recirculating air
Cargo Cond has a heater

103
Q

What component of the aircraft generates EICAS messages?

A

DCUs

103
Q

Which buttons on the ECP will remain active in the event of an ECP microprocessor failure?

A

Step

104
Q

What is the function of the EICAS knob on the SOURCE SELECT panel?

A

Move ED1 to ED2 or the opposit

105
Q

What actions are required to “CHECK and CLEAR” the EICAS?

A

Box messages

106
Q

If multiple caution messages are displayed on the EICAS, in what order are they displayed?

A

Chronologicaly from red to amber

107
Q

What is the “Dark Cockpit” concept?

A

Dark is normal

108
Q

How many compressor stages does the CF34-3B1 have?

A

14

109
Q

How many low and high-pressure power turbine stages does the CF34-3B1 have?

A

Low pressure: 4 stages
High pressure: 2 stages

110
Q

Which ignition system does the DC Battery Bus power?

A

B

111
Q

When should the engine starter cut out?

A

55% N2

112
Q

What actions must be taken (from memory) when a hot start is observed?

A
  • Trust levers idle
  • Ignition off
  • Dry motor
113
Q

Which engine ignition system is supplied continuous ignition with the CONT switchlight?

A

A and B

114
Q

What actions must be taken (from memory) when the starter fails to cut out?

A

Stop engine starter

115
Q

The speed switches in the “ON” position allow what components to be powered?

A

ECUs

116
Q

When does N1 speed governing take place?

A

Above 79% N1

117
Q

What are the arming parameters for the APR?

A

Both engine speed switches on
Above 79% N1

118
Q

Once armed, how long will the APR remain armed?

A

5 min

119
Q

What conditions must be met for the APR system to activate?

A

Either engine goes below 68% N1

120
Q

What conditions must be met for the Thrust Reversers to arm?

A

Switches to arm
Respective 14th stage bleed valve open

121
Q

What do the blocker doors redirect when the Thrust Reversers are deployed?

A

Bipass air

122
Q

What conditions must be met for the Thrust Reversers to deploy?

A

Weight on wheels
Levers idle

123
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the NWS?

A

3

124
Q

Can the gear horn be muted?

A

Yes

125
Q
A
126
Q

The Anti-skid System provides protection down to what speed?

A

10 kias

127
Q

What are the limitations placed on the BTMS?

A

15 min cool off required
Takeoff not authorized with with over 5 on the temp indicator of any wheel

128
Q

Describe the Anti-Skid test on the Before Start Checklist

A

Barking break off
Hold to test position
Inboard/outboard EICAS message
Release test switch
Messages go away
Parking Break on

129
Q

What are the 4 TCAS traffic symbols and what do they represent?

A

White - no factor
Blue - near by
Yellow - advisory
Red - RA

130
Q

How many frequencies can be tuned by each NAV radio?

A

2

131
Q

What does it mean to put a NAV radio in AUTOTUNE?

A

It will autotune nearby nav source and ID it

132
Q

What will prevent a NAV radio from being in AUTOTUNE?

A

Active on the PFD

133
Q

Can the FMS navigate without the GPS?

A

Yes

134
Q

What navigation options are available to you if the FMS fails in flight?

A

Ground based or dead reckoning mode

135
Q

Is there any time you are not required to comply with a TCAS RA?

A

Limited by perforance
or you know its a false indication

136
Q

Where in the aircraft are the COM and NAV radios installed?

A

In the avionics bay

137
Q

What is the function of the EMER position of the Emergency / Normal switch on the pilot’s Audio Control Panel?

A

Put the pilot com into com 1

138
Q

What is the function of the 1 / 2 button on the RTU?

A

Two to switch between RTUs to change frequencies

139
Q

If RTU 1 is inoperative, are COM 1 and NAV 1 accessible?

A

Yes via the 1/2 switches

140
Q

When does the CVR begin to operate?

A

Power applied to aircraft

141
Q

When does the FDR begin to operate?

A

Beacon, strobes or weight off wheels

142
Q

Describe the indications of “performance increasing” windshear.

A

Amber windsheer alert

143
Q

What will the AFCS do during a “performance increasing” windshear?

A

Nothing

144
Q

Describe the indications of a “performance decreasing” windshear.

A

Red windshear alert
Verbal warning

145
Q

What will the AFCS do during a “performance decreasing” windshear?

A

Disconnect

146
Q

Passenger oxygen is provided by what?

A

Chemical generator
or bottle in the 850

147
Q

Crew oxygen is provided by what?

A

Bottle

148
Q

When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?

A

Cabin pressure alt at or above 14,000

149
Q

Where should you look to determine if you have enough oxygen to carry a jumpseater?

A

Limitations OM Vol 1

150
Q

What is the power source for the Emergency Lights?

A

4 batteries in the ceiling

151
Q

While in the ARM position, when will the Emergency Lights automatically illuminate?

A

Total loss of AC Power

152
Q

What, besides the beacon, is powered with the Beacon switch while on the ground?

A

FDR (Flight Data Recorder)

153
Q

Which aircraft component controls all APU operations?

A

ECU

154
Q

The APU will automatically shut down for which conditions in flight?

A

Critical failure

155
Q

From which tanks does the APU normally receive fuel?

A

Left and right

156
Q

The illumination of the green AVAIL light on the APU START / STOP switch indicates what?

A

Ready to accept bleed air loading

157
Q

Given: The aircraft is at the gate. The APU is supplying electrical and pneumatic power to the aircraft per the First Flight Check. (The Packs are on). How will the 10th stage valves be affected if the left 10th SOV switchlight is selected open?

A

Nothing will happen

158
Q

While starting the APU, what indications on the EICAS displays are presented by pressing the APU PWR FUEL switchlight?

A

APU in Bite
APU SOV Open
APU Indications appear on ED2
APU door open

159
Q

When starting the APU in flight, why must the PWR FUEL and the START/STOP buttons be pressed in “rapid succession”?

A

The APU will windmill and potentially cause damage when starting

160
Q

What is the purpose of the Immediate Action Card? What type of checklist items are on the Immediate Action Card?

A

Immediate action / emergency items

161
Q

What does it mean when a checklist title is in CAPITAL LETTERS?

A

Its a memory item

162
Q

Which checklists consider multiple malfunctions?

A

QRH

163
Q

Where is the MEL located?

A

EFB

164
Q

What time zone is MEL expiration based upon?

A

Zulu

Tri-State Training (27 decks)

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