Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Police Academy > DAAT > Flashcards

DAAT Flashcards

1
Q

DAAT meaning

A

Defensive And Arrest Tactics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DAAT rules

A

-No officers are injured
-No subjects are injured needlessly.
-No one is accepted/detained or released improperly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DAAT Concepts

A

-Control is a perception based on an officer’s training, experience, and the fact situation.
-Control is not a 50/50 proposition.
-Proper police action balances safety and efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Safety Priorities:

A

-You
-Fellow Officers
-Civilians
-Suspects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When can officers use force?

A

-To achieve and maintain control of resistive subjects.
-To detain persons reasonably suspected of criminal behavior.
-To make lawful arrests.
-In defense of self or others.
-To prevent escapes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Key rules of Use of Force:

A

-The purpose is control.
-Escalation does not need to follow step by step through intervention options.
-You can always disengage and/or escalate.
-Once control is achieved, you must reduce the level of force to that needed to maintain control.
-You must always maintain a position of advantage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Categories of Force:

A

-A trained technique.
-A dynamic application of a trained technique.
-Not trained by justified under the circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Incident Response (RESPOND):

A

-Report
-Evaluate
-Stabilize
-Preserve
-Organize
-Normalize
-Document/Debrief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Incident Response (RESPOND):
-Four parts of R:

A

-Become aware
-Plan response
-Arrive/Assess
-Alarm/Inform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Incident Response (RESPOND):
-Three parts of E:

A

-Look for Dangers
-Determine back up needs
-Enter when appropriate/tactically sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Incident Response (RESPOND):
-Two parts of S:

A

-Subject/s
-Scene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Incident Response (RESPOND):
-Parts of P:

A

-Life
–>Conduct an initial medical assessment
–>Treat to level of training
–>Continue to monitor subject
-Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Incident Response (RESPOND):
-Three parts of O:

A

-Coordinate additional responding units (if necessary)
-Communicate with dispatch and others
-Organize the collection of evidence (if appropriate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Incident Response (RESPOND):
-Three parts of N:

A

-Provide for long-term monitoring (as appropriate)
-Restore scene to normal
-Return radio communications to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Incident Response (RESPOND):
-Two parts of D:

A

-Debrief self, others, subjects
-Document incident appropriately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 parts of Disturbance Resolution?

A
  1. Approach Considerations
  2. Intervention Options
  3. Follow through Considerations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three parts of approach considerations?

A

-Decision-making
-Tactical Deployment
-Tactical Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two parts of decision-making?

A

-Justification
-Desirability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the four parts of Tactical Deployment?

A

-Control of Distance
-Relative Positioning
-Relative Positioning with Multiple Subjects
-Team Tactics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the four parts of the Tactical Evaluation?

A

-Threat Assessment Opportunities
-Officer/Subject Factors
-Special Circumstances
-Level/Stage/Degree of Stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does REACT stand for?

A

-Request cooperation
-Explain Reason
-Allow Choice
-Check Decision (is there anything I can say to …)
-Take Action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Control of Distance

A

-Public >12 ft
-Social 4-12 ft
-Personal 1.5-4 ft
-Intimate 0-1.5 ft

23
Q

Danger Zones

A

-Unarmed = Less than 10 ft
-Club or Edged Weapon = Any distance where the officer reasonably perceives an imminent threat of death or great bodily harm
-Firearm = in the line of sight unbroken by cover (something that would stop the bullet).

24
Q

Threat Assessment Opportunities

A

-Level of Resistive Tension
-Early Warning Signs
-Pre-attack postures
-Indications of mental illness, emotional disturbance, or medically significant behavior
-Weapon Control Factors

25
Q

Officer/Subject Factors

A

-Numbers
-Age
-Size
-Relative Strength
-Skill Level

26
Q

What are some Special Circumstances?

A

-Factors or situation that may justify rapid escalation of force or selection of higher force options

27
Q

Some examples of special circumstances include?

A

-Reasonable perception of threat
-Special knowledge of subject
-Sudden assault
-Subject’s ability to escalate force rapidly
-Your physical positioning
-Injury or exhaustion
-Equipment or training
-Availability of backup
-Other special circumstances

28
Q

Level/Stage/Degree of Stabilization

A

-Presence stabilization
-Verbal stabilization
-Standing stabilization
-Wall stabilization
-Ground stabilization
-Special restraints

29
Q

3 Types of EDP’s

A

-Short term
-Long term
-Chemical abuser

30
Q

What are Early Warning Signs?

A

Signals or certain behaviors provided by the subject that are often associated with a high level of danger to officers

31
Q

Examples of Early Warning Signs?

A
  • Conspicuously ignoring
  • Excessive emotional attention
  • Exaggerated movement
  • Ceases all movement
  • Known violent history
32
Q

Definition of Pre-attack Postures

A

-Behaviors that may indicate imminent danger of physical assault

33
Q

Examples of Pre-attack Postures

A
  • Boxer stance
  • Hand set
  • Shoulder shift
  • Target glance
  • Thousand yard stare
34
Q

What does DONE stand for?

A
  • Danger
  • Overriding Concern
  • No progress
  • Escape
35
Q

What does GUN stand for?

A
  • Grab
  • Undo
  • Neutralize
36
Q

What are use of force restrictions?

A
  • US Constitution
  • Wis State Statutes
  • Wis Admin Code
  • Agency Policy
37
Q

What is the definition of de-escalation?

A
  • An officer’s use of time, distance and relative positioning in combination with Professional Communication Skills to attempt to stabilize a situation and reduce the immediacy of threat posed by an individual
38
Q

What are the color codes?

A
  • White = Unaware
  • Orange = Ready to act
  • Black = Blind Panic
  • Yellow = Relaxed and alert
  • Red = Action State
39
Q

What is passive Resistance?

A
  • Non-threatening and non-complaint behavior
40
Q

What is active resistance?

A
  • Behavior which physically counteracts an officers control efforts and which creates risk fo bodily harm to the officer, subject and/or other person
41
Q

What is continued resistance?

A
  • Maintaining a level of counteractive behavior that is not controlled by an officer’s current efforts
42
Q

Graham vs. Connor

A
  • Use-of-force must be objectively reasonable
43
Q

What is the definition of deadly force?

A

The intentional use of a firearm or other instrument that creates a high probability of death or great bodily harm

44
Q

What is the deadly force justification?

A
  • Behavior which has caused or imminently threatens to cause death or great bodily harm to you or another person or persons
45
Q

What is great bodily harm?

A
  • Bodily injury that creates a substantial risk of death or which causes serious permanent disfigurement, or which causes a permanent or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ or other serious bodily injury.
46
Q

What is the Imminent Threat Criteria?

A

-Imminent means “about to happen”
Suspect displays:
- Intent
- Weapon
- Delivery System

47
Q

Target Requirements:

A
  • Acquisition
  • Identification
  • Isolation
48
Q

What does Acquisition mean?

A
  • The process of locating your adversary.
49
Q

What does Identification mean?

A
  • The process of recognizing the subject as the adversary placing you/others in “Imminent Danger”
50
Q

What does Isolation mean?

A
  • The process of separating the subject from innocent persons.
51
Q

What is preclusion?

A

The officer reasonably believes all other options have been exhausted or would be ineffective.

52
Q

What is the Greater Danger Exception?

A
  • Shooting without Target isolation if the consequence of not stopping the threat would be worse than the possibility of hitting an innocent person/s.
53
Q

What is the Defense of Self or Others?

A
  • You may use deadly force when a subject poses an imminent threat of death or great bodily harm to you or to another person or persons
54
Q

What is monitor/Debrief?

A
  • Calm self and partner
  • Calm subject
  • Provide initial medical assessment
  • Reassure the subject
  • Rebuild subjects self esteem

Police Academy (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions