DA42NG Layer 1 Block 2

Question 1

How are the propeller RPM and the blade angle controlled?

Answer 1

RPM, is controlled by blade angle which in-turn is controlled by counter weights and spring tension for coarse pitches, and the CSU for finer pitches. The CSU is controlled by the ECU which responds to power levels set by the pilot.

Question 2

What is the CSU and what does it do?

Answer 2

The CSU is the propeller Constant Speed Unit. Controlled by the ECU the CSU sets the optimum propeller RPM for the percentage power selected by the pilot by controlling the amount of gearbox oil in the propeller hub.

Question 3

Describe the electrical system voltage, batteries, and sources of power.

Answer 3

The system 28 volts, driven by two 70 amp engine driven alternators and a 24 volts 13.6 amp-hour main battery. The battery provides continuous power to the ELT and the map light, and switched power to the rest of the system. The system then splits into left and right buses that connect to the left and right alternators and ECUs. The starter relays and avionics are run through the right main bus. The ECU’s also have dedicated batteries that provide up to 30 minutes of flight time in the event of a complete electrical failure. Both alternators are designed to carry the whole load, and if one fails the other is capable of sustaining the demand.

Question 4

How would you recognize an alternator failure?

Answer 4

There is an alert displayed that indicates L/R ALTN FAIL

Question 5

How would you handle a single alternator failure?

Answer 5

If a single alternator fails the other will take up the load. 1. If in icing conditions leave icing conditions. 2. Switch affected alternator switch off. 3. Monitor bus voltage. 4. Load shed. 5. Land

Question 6

How would you handle a double alternator failure?

Answer 6

30 Minutes remain. Follow Abnormal Checklist. 1. Avionics Master Off. 2. Alternator Switches OFF. 3. Transponder STBY. 4. Gear Down and Locked (then pull manual extension handle). 5. Pitot heat off. 6. Lights off. 7. Land.

Question 7

What do the alternator switches do?

Answer 7

The switches connect/disconnect the alternators to/from the main buses.

Question 8

How are the heat and defrost provided to the cabin?

Answer 8

Engine coolant flows through heat exchanges in the engine nacelles. Located on the outboard side of each just above the exhaust pipe (DA42NG). The exchanger on the left provides heat for the defrost and the right is for cabin heat.

Question 9

What powers the standby artificial horizon in the event of an electrical system failure?

Answer 9

The Artificial Horizon has a dedicated non-rechargeable battery (also powers the glare shied flood light), which can be activated using a protected emergency switch. The battery provides 90 Minutes of power.

Question 10

How many G1000 cooling fans does the DA42 have?

Answer 10

There are four. One is the rear of the avionics for GIA cooling. One underneath the glare shield for cooling between the fiore-wall and instrument panel and two behind the instrument panel, one for each display.

Question 11

Describe the antennae on the DA42.

Answer 11

On the top of the fuselage, just aft of the canopy there are three there “puck like” antennae. Two for GPS, and one (if used) for XM services. Further aft there are the three protruding antennae. The foremost of these is the ELT, then, behind it, a fin type antenna for active traffic, and aft of that is the antenna for Com1. In the empennage there are interna antennae for VOR/LOC and glide slope, and an optional internal antenna for storm-scope. On the underside of the fuselage, there are additional fin type antennae. One double-fin for active traffic, and a single fin for the transponder. There is also another “puck like” antennae for marker beacons and another protruding whip for Com 2.

Question 12

Where are the normal and alternate static sources located?

Answer 12

The normal static sources are outside static ports mounted on the fuselage, on either side, aft of the canopy, [CHECK] and the alternate static source is through a petcock valve located in the cockpit above the pilots left knee beneath the dashboard.

Question 13

What equipment is required for day VFR?

Answer 13

Tomato FFLAMES and FFLAPS: Tachometer, Oil Pressure Gauge, Manifold Pressure Gauge, Altimeter, Temperature Gauge for Gauge for Liquid Cooled Engines, Oil Temperature Gauge for Air Cooled Engines, Fuel Gauge, Flotations (if used for hire), Landing Gear Position indicator (if retractable) Airspeed Indicator, Anti-Collision Lights (beacon or strobe), Magnetic Compass, ELT, Safety Belts.

Question 14

What equipment is required for night VFR?

Answer 14

FFLAPS: Flashlight, Fuses, Landing Light, Anti-Collision (beacon/strobe), Positions lights (nav), Source of electricity.

Question 15

What equipment is required for IFR?

Answer 15

GRAB A CARDD: Generator, Radios, Altimeter, Ball, Altitude encoding Transponder, Clock, Attitude Indicator, Rate of Turn Indicator, Directional Gyro, Data Base

Question 16

How does one handle inoperative equipment?

Answer 16

Check the KOEL and regs, then 1. Determine if the flight can be conducted safely, 2. Placard the equipment as in-op, 3. Remove or deactivate the equipment, and 4. Document your actions in the maintenance logbook.

Question 17

What are the maximum landing and take-off weights?

Answer 17

MTOW is 4189 lbs, and MLW is 3979

Question 18

Are maximum landing weight and maximum take-off weight the same?

Answer 18

No, the MLW is lower; however, Landings above MLW, up to MTOW are allowed as an Abnormal Procedure.

Question 19

What is the zero fuel weight limit?

Answer 19

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight is 3891

Question 20

What is the combined weight limit for the rear baggage compartments?

Answer 20

140 pounds. 100 in the Cabin Baggage and 40 in the Baggage Extension

Question 21

What is VA?

Answer 21

VA is the design maneuvering speed – or the speed at which it is “Unwise to make a full application of any single flight control.”

Question 22

What effect does the aircrafts weight have on VA and why?

Answer 22

Review…

Question 23

Describe VMC, VY, and VYSE.

Answer 23

Rudder displaced toward operating engine and aircraft banked up 5° toward operating engine. The horizontal lift produces by combining the bank with the dihedral angle mitigates the drag from the sideslip caused by the rudder.

Question 24

Define single engine service ceiling.

Answer 24

The single engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude at which VYSE produces a 50 FPM climb with the critical engine out.

Question 25

Define maximum operating altitude.

Answer 25

The maximum altitude up to which operation is allowed, limited by flight, structural, powerplant, functional, and equipment characteristics. Is the instance of the DA42NG, that altitude is 18,000 ft.

Question 26

Describe the procedure for identifying an engine failure.

Answer 26

When an engine failure is suspected: 1: Lower the nose to maintain airspeed. 2. Identify: ounter the yaw with rudder and ID engine (dead foot=dead engine) 3. Verify: Reduce power in suspected engine to verify no change. 4. Bank 2° to 3° toward the operating engine…

Question 27

Under what conditions would you try troubleshoot a failed engine?

Answer 27

If above 3000 AGL and not on an instrument approach, and time and workload permit, troubleshoot the engine.

Question 28

Describe the engine restart procedure?

Answer 28

Max Altitude 10,000 ft. Speed 85 to 90 KIAS, Affected switch ON, Wait for prop to unfeather, Start when prop is stationary, Keep engaged until 500 RPM

Question 29

What factors determine which engine is critical?

Answer 29

The critical engine the engine, the loss of which most adversely affects performance. The four factors are: PAST: P-factor, Accelerated Slip stream, Spiraling Slipstream and Torque

Question 30

What are the DA42 drag factors for windmilling propeller on the critical engine, landing gear, flaps APP, and flaps LDG?

Answer 30

Windmill: -300 ft/min, gear extended: -300, Flaps app: -400, Flaps LDG: -600

Question 31

Describe the zero sideslip configuration.

Answer 31

Rudder displaced toward operating engine and aircraft banked up 5° toward operating engine. The horizontal lift produces by combining the bank with the dihedral angle mitigates the drag from the sideslip caused by the rudder.

Question 32

What is the accelerate-stop distance?

Answer 32

Distance required to accelerate to V1, abort the takeoff and bring the aircraft to a stop.

Question 33

What is the accelerate-go distance?

Answer 33

Distance required to accelerate to V1, experience the loss of a the critical engine, continue the takeoff, accelerate to a safe takeoff speed and climb to at least 35’

Question 34

What is a balanced field condition?

Answer 34

A condition where the Accelerate Stop Distance is equal to the Accelerate-Go distance based on weight, configuration, wind, density altitude, and runway condition

Question 35

What factors affect takeoff and accelerate-stop performance?

Answer 35

Weight, Runway slope and condition, desity altitude and wind.

Question 36

Describe the take-off briefing for emergencies.

Answer 36

1. Engine failure or anomaly prior to rotation-abort: Power/Idle, stop straight ahead, engine master and fuel off. 2. After rotation: Emergency land straight ahead: Power/Idle, Stop, Engine and fuel off. 3. After rotation/gear up and continuing: Power lever full, verify clean, identify & verify, Secure and feather, Declare emergency and return for landing.