D401-600 Flashcards
Name the form of spina bifida. • Defect in the vertebral arch
Occulta All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the optic tract; output projects to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe
LGB (think EYES)
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the trigeminal pathways; output to primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe
Ventral posteromedial nucleus
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from globus pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the primary motor cortex
Ventral lateral nucleus
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from medial lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary somatosensory cortex
Ventral posterolateral nucleus
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from globus pallidus and substantia nigra; output to primary motor cortex
Ventral anterior nucleus
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated gyrus
Medial nuclear group (limbic system)
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from inferior colliculus; output to primary auditory cortex
MGB (think EARS)
Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the mammillary bodies via the mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via the anterior limb of the internal capsule
Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit of the limbic system)
What is the name of a thin brown ring around the outer edge of the cornea, seen in Wilson’s disease?
Kayser-Fleischer ring
What do UMNs innervate?
They innervate LMNs.
What area of the brain serves as the major sensory relay center for visual, auditory, gustatory, and tactile information destined for the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, or basal ganglia?
The thalamus (I like to think of the thalamus as the executive secretary for the cerebral cortex. All information destined for the cortex has to go through the thalamus.)
Which of the colliculi help direct the movement of both eyes in a gaze?
Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.
How do the corticobulbar fibres of CN VII differ from the rest of the CNs?
Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex), but with CN VII the LMN of the upper face receives bilateral input but the lower facial LMNs receive only contralateral input. ——————————————————————————–
What syndrome is described by a lesion in the angular gyrus (area 39) resulting in alexia, agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation?
Gerstmann’s syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Cervical vertebrae?
Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Thoracic vertebrae?
Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Lumbar vertebrae?
Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Sacral vertebrae?
Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Coccygeal vertebrae?
One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
What are the three sites where CSF can leave the ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name the lateral and the medial foramina.)
Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)
What CNs arise from • The midbrain?
CN III and IV
What CNs arise from • The pons?
CN V, VI, VII, and VIII
What CNs arise from • The medulla?
CN IX, X, and XII CN XI arises from the cervical spinal cord.
What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery, so that the person can comprehend the command but not execute it?
Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke’s area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the corpus callosum.
True or false? Glucose readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier.
False. Water readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier, but glucose requires carrier-mediated transport.
What encapsulated group of nerve endings seen at the muscle-tendon junction responds to an increase in tension generated in that muscle? (This is dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)
Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.
What chromosome 4, AD disorder is a degeneration of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?
Huntington’s chorea; patients have chorea, athetoid movements, progressive dementia, and behavioral problems.
What syndrome is described as bilateral lesions of the amygdala and the hippocampus resulting in placidity, anterograde amnesia, oral exploratory behavior, hypersexuality, and psychic blindness?
Klüver-Bucy syndrome
By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together, what two pathways are you eliminating from proprioception?
When a patient closes the eyes while standing with feet together, the visual and cerebellar components of proprioception are removed, so you are testing the dorsal columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a positive Romberg’s sign indicating a lesion in the dorsal columns. The cold water caloric test mimics a brainstem lesion by inhibiting the normal reflex response. (COWS: Cold Opposite Warm Same)
What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, and hypotonia due to a viral infection of the ventral horn of the spinal cord?
Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN lesion.
What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The ventrolateral two-thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?
Anterior spinal artery
What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The cerebellum and the dorsolateral part of the medulla?
PICA
What syndrome causes inability to concentrate, easy distractibility, apathy, and regression to an infantile suckling or grasping reflex?
Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)
True or false? The presence of PMNs in the CSF is always abnormal.
True. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4 lymphocytes or monocytes, the presence of PMNs is always considered abnormal.
What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?
Ependymal cells
What is the most common site for an aneurysm in cerebral circulation?
The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands, it compresses the fibers from the upper temporal fields of the optic chiasm, producing bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia
What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the frontal and the parietal lobes?
Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)
What is the name of violent projectile movements of a limb resulting from a lesion in the subthalamic nuclei of the basal ganglia?
Hemiballismus
What is the term for the type of pupil seen in neurosyphilis, and what ocular reflexes are lost?
Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both direct and consensual light reflexes, but the accommodation-convergence reaction remains intact. It can also be seen in patients with pineal tumors or multiple sclerosis.
True or false? Intrafusal fibers form muscle spindles.
True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle fibers. They are the sensory component of the stretch reflexes.
What Brodmann area is associated with • Broca’s area?
Areas 44 and 45
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary auditory cortex?
Areas 41 and 42
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary somatosensory cortex?
Areas 1, 2, and 3
What Brodmann area is associated with • Somatosensory association cortex?
Areas 5 and 7
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary motor cortex?
Area 4
What Brodmann area is associated with • Premotor cortex?
Area 6
What Brodmann area is associated with • Visual association cortex?
Areas 18 and 19
What Brodmann area is associated with • Frontal eye fields?
Area 8
What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary visual cortex?
Area 17
What Brodmann area is associated with • Wernicke’s area?
Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40
What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?
Vitreous humor
What aphasia produces a nonfluent pattern of speech with the abilty to understand written and spoken language seen in lesions in the dominant hemisphere?
Expressive aphasia
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?
The vermis
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Is involved in motor planning?
Lateral part of the hemispheres
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls balance and eye movements?
Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all of medicine!)
In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls distal musculature?
Intermediate part of the hemispheres
What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger, cleaning up cellular debris after injury?
Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)
What direct-pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike facies, stooped posture, cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling tremor at rest, and a gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center of gravity?
Parkinson’s disease (I can’t underestimate all of the buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)
What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres?
Middle cerebral artery
What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the production of ADH?
Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes insipidus.
True or false? High-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea.
True. High-frequency sound waves stimulate the hair cells at the base of the cochlea, whereas low-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the apex of the cochlea.
What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the satiety center, regulating food intake?
Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here result in obesity.
What cells of the retina sees in color and needs bright light to be activated?
Cones (C for color and cones)
What cell’s axons are the only ones that leave the cerebellar cortex?
The Purkinje cell
What splanchnic carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the hindgut and the pelvic viscera?
Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin with P.)
Is nystagmus defined by the fast or slow component?
Nystagmus is named by the fast component, which is the corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in response to the initial slow phase.
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left optic nerve lesion
Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Right calcarine cortex lesion
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)
Left homonymous hemianopsia
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Optic chiasm lesion
Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right lateral compression of the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal carotid artery)
Right nasal hemianopsia
Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left Meyer’s loop lesion of the optic radiations.
Left homonymous hemianopsia
What is the function of the cerebellum?
Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember, the function of the basal ganglia is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.
What is the name for inability to stop a movement at the intended target?
Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger-to-nose test.
If a lesion occurs before the onset of puberty and arrests sexual development, what area of the hypothalamus is affected?
Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion occurs after puberty, amenorrhea or impotence will be seen.
What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?
Calcarine sulcus
Do alpha-or gamma-motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers?
alpha-Motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers (a motor unit), whereas gamma-motor neurons innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.
Contracting both medial rectus muscles simultaneously makes the images of near objects remain on the same part of the retina. What term describes this process?
Convergence
Will a unilateral lesion in the spinothalamic tract result in a contralateral or ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature?
Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn, crosses over, and ascends contralateral in the spinal cord, brainstem, thalamus, and postcentral gyrus.
What ganglion supplies the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the eye?
Ciliary ganglion
In what tract does pain, temperature, and crude touch sensory information ascend to the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe?
Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)
What CN nucleus receives auditory information from both ears via the cochlear nuclei?
Superior olivary nucleus
What parasympathetic nucleus is found on the floor of the fourth ventricle and supplies preganglionic fibers innervating the terminal ganglias of the thorax, foregut, and midgut?
Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X
What sensory system is affected in the late spinal cord manifestation of syphilis?
Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high-step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.
What do LMNs innervate?
They innervate skeletal muscle.
What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the lower limbs in the spinal cord?
The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), which lies closest to the midline of the spinal cord.
True or false? CSF is a clear, hypertonic solution with higher concentrations of K + and HCO3-, than the serum.
False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution with lower concentrations of K+ and HCO3-. It does have higher concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+.
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal root?
Sensory
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal rami?
Both
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral rami?
Both
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral root?
Motor
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal root ganglion?
Sensory
What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Spinal nerve?
Both
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Dorsal column tract?
Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Corticospinal tract?
Ipsilateral loss below the level of the lesion
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • LMN?
Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis
Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Spinothalamic tract?
Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level of the lesion
What area of the brain acts as the center for ipsilateral horizontal gaze?
PPRF
What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend spoken language and speaking in a word salad?
Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22, 39, and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.
What is the function of the basal ganglia?
Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control
What artery is formed by the union of the two vertebral arteries?
The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary junction.
What disease is described by bilateral flaccid weakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral spastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN) beginning at the cervical level of the spinal cord and progressing up or down the cord?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.
Which dopamine receptor excites the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?
D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.
Does the direct or indirect basal ganglia pathway result in a decreased level of cortical excitation?
Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition, the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a decreased level of cortical excitation.
What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the frontal and temporal lobes rostrally and partially separates the parietal and temporal lobes?
Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)
What area of the brain acts as the center for contralateral horizontal gaze?
Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)
In an adult, where does the spinal cord terminate and what is it called?
The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.
If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus, which way is the fast component directed, toward or away from the lesion?
The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.
What area of the limbic system is responsible for attaching emotional significance to a stimulus?
Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.
What is the name of the tremor that occurs during movements and is absent while the person is at rest?
Intention tremor; it is a sign of cerebellar lesions. A tremor at rest (i.e., pill rolling) is seen in basal ganglia lesions.
What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences because of an inability to retrieve them?
Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff’s syndrome.
What frontal lobe cortex is associated with organizing and planning the intellectual and emotional aspect of behavior?
Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.
What is the largest nucleus in the midbrain?
The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Left eye can’t look to the left
Left abducens nerve
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Right eye can’t look left, left eye nystagmus, and convergence is intact
Right medial longitudinal fasciculus
Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? Neither eye can look left with a slow drift to the right
Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex
What area of the hypothalamus is the feeding center?
Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)
In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in hyperactive cortex with hyperkinetic, chorea, athetosis, tics, and dystonia?
Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)
What happens to muscle tone and stretch reflexes when there is a LMN lesion?
The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased reflexes, muscle fasciculations, decreased muscle tone, and muscle atrophy What two areas of the skin do flaccid paralysis). Don’t forget, LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of the lesion!
In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic, slow, or absent spontaneous movement?
Direct pathway; a good example is Parkinson’s disease.
What sided muscle weakness is seen in an UMN corticospinal tract injury above the pyramidal decussation?
Contralateral muscle weakness when above the decussation, whereas an UMN injury below the pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral muscle weakness.
What area of the retina consists of only cones and has the greatest visual acuity?
Fovea
What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the upper limbs in the spinal cord?
The fasciculus cuneatus
What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia, ataxia, paresthesias, monocular blindness and weakness, or spastic paresis?
Multiple sclerosis
What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) controls the constriction of the pupil in response to light?
Parasympathetic
With which CN are preganglionic parasympathetic axons arising from the Edinger- Westphal nucleus associated?
CN III
Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what artery?
Internal carotid artery
What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project to?
The anterior nucleus of the thalamus
What cells contribute to the blood-brain barrier and proliferate in response to CNS injury?
Astrocytes
What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?
Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)
What area of the brain is responsible for emotion, feeding, mating, attention, and memory?
The limbic system
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The papillary sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye?
Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. Remember it like this:-ili-in ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The parotid gland?
The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the -oti-is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The submandibular and sublingual glands?
The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)
What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?
Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the only ganglion left.)
What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1-L2)
Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by the middle cerebral artery?
Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.
What tract is responsible for voluntary refined movements of distal extremities?
Corticospinal tract
Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?
Rathke’s pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.
Clarke’s nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?
Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.
Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.
Celiac, aorticorenal, and superior mesenteric ganglias. (Remember all “ Splanchnics” are Sympathetic except for the Pelvic splanchnics, which are Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers.)
What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface of the midbrain?
CN IV
What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by contracting muscles in response to stretch of that muscle?
The myotatic reflex is responsible for the tension present in all resting muscle.
Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?
In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
What nucleus, found in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord, sends unconscious proprioception to the cerebellum?
Clarke’s nucleus
The vertebral artery is a branch of what artery?
The subclavian artery
What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?
Tensor tympani
The fibers of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus cross at the medullary decussation and ascend contralateral to what thalamic relay nucleus?
VPL nucleus sends its fibers to synapse in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.
What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by CN VII?
The stapedius muscle
What part of the inner ear contains the gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head?
Saccule and utricle
What nucleus supplies the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?
Edinger-Westphal nucleus (via CN III)
What reticular nuclei synthesize serotonin from L-tryptophan and plays a role in mood, aggression, and inducing sleep?
The raphe nuclei
Will a patient with a unilateral lesion in the cerebellum fall toward or away from the affected side?
Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the lesion.
A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate?
Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.
True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in reflexes.
True. They are the sensory component of a spinal reflex.
What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1-2 and innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, head, thoracic viscera, and blood vessels of the body wall and limbs?
Sympathetic chain ganglion
What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the foregut and the midgut?
Thoracic splanchnic fibers
Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?
Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal-suprachiasmatic- pineal pathway.
Name the three hormones produced by pinealocytes.
Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK
Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic, or neutral?
The pH of CSF is 7.33, acidotic.
What ascending sensory system carries joint position, vibratory and pressure sensation, and discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?
The DCML system. (Remember, everything but pain and temperature.)
What reflex enables the eyes to remain focused on a target while the head is turning?
The vestibulo-ocular reflex
What cells of the retina see in black and white and are used for night vision?
Rods
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Discontinuous voluntary contraction, multinuclear striated unbranched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T tubules, troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate filament.
Skeletal muscles
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Continuous involuntary contraction, uninuclear striated branched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, dyadic T tubules, intercalated discs, troponin and desmin as a Z disc intermediate filament.
Cardiac muscle
Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Involuntary contraction, uninuclear nonstriated fibers, actin and myosin not forming banding pattern; lack of T tubules, gap junctions, and calmodulin.
Smooth muscle
What segment of the small intestine is associated with Brunner’s glands?
Duodenum
Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders?
Mitochondria-linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.
What part of a neuron receives information?
Dendrites receive information, whereas axons send information.
What type of collagen is associated with the basement membrane?
Type IV collagen
What is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion of the urethra?
Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium.
What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion?
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell
What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?
Cilia
True or false? The following are functions of hepatocytes: protein production, bile secretion, detoxification, conjugation, and lipid storage.
True. (They are quite a busy bunch of cells!)
What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parasitic worms?
Major basic protein
After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum • Secrete progesterone?
Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.
After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum • Secrete estrogen?
Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca cells form from the theca interna.
What is the largest organ in the body?
Integument (skin and its derivatives)
On what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur?
Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)
What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?
The small subunit (40S) binds first.
What is the T-cell area of the spleen?
PALS
What element is needed for the proper alignment of tropocollagen molecules?
Copper (Cu+)
What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the rest of the body?
Zonula occludens (tight junctions)
What organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis?
Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.
What sweat gland type is associated with odor production and hair follicles and is found in the axilla?
APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla, Areola, and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production), and if confronted by an APE, your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innervation).
What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?
Fungiform papillae
True or false? The portal tract of the liver lobule is the first area to be oxygenated in the liver.
True. (Remember, blood flows from the portal tracts to the central vein, so it is the first area to receive blood and therefore oxygen.)
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/2n (divide meiotically)
Spermatogonia (type A)
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/4n
Primary spermatocyte
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 23/1n
Spermatid
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/2n (divide mitotically)
Spermatogonia (type B)
Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 23/2n
Secondary spermatocyte
What are the four functions of SER?
Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification, triglyceride resynthesis, and Ca2+handling
Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the gastrointestinal tract?
IgA
What area of the lymph node is considered the thymic-dependent area?
The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells, so it is considered the thymic-dependent area.
What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?
Heterochromatin, the light stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.
Both submandibular and sublingual glands are innervated by CN VII (facial) and produce mucous and serous secretions. Which one mainly produces serous secretions?
Submandibular gland produces mainly serous and the sublingual gland produces mainly mucous secretions.
What is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin?
Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.
Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?
Outside the cell
