Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW > D401-600 > Flashcards

D401-600 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the form of spina bifida. • Defect in the vertebral arch

A

Occulta All except occulta cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the optic tract; output projects to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe

A

LGB (think EYES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the trigeminal pathways; output to primary somatosensory cortex of the parietal lobe

A

Ventral posteromedial nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from globus pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the primary motor cortex

A

Ventral lateral nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from medial lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; output to the primary somatosensory cortex

A

Ventral posterolateral nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from globus pallidus and substantia nigra; output to primary motor cortex

A

Ventral anterior nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and temporal lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the cingulated gyrus

A

Medial nuclear group (limbic system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from inferior colliculus; output to primary auditory cortex

A

MGB (think EARS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the thalamic nucleus based on its input and output. • Input from the mammillary bodies via the mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via the anterior limb of the internal capsule

A

Anterior nuclear group (Papez circuit of the limbic system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the name of a thin brown ring around the outer edge of the cornea, seen in Wilson’s disease?

A

Kayser-Fleischer ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do UMNs innervate?

A

They innervate LMNs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What area of the brain serves as the major sensory relay center for visual, auditory, gustatory, and tactile information destined for the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, or basal ganglia?

A

The thalamus (I like to think of the thalamus as the executive secretary for the cerebral cortex. All information destined for the cortex has to go through the thalamus.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the colliculi help direct the movement of both eyes in a gaze?

A

Superior colliculus (Remember S for Superior and Sight). The inferior colliculus processes auditory information from both ears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do the corticobulbar fibres of CN VII differ from the rest of the CNs?

A

Normally corticobulbar fiber innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the LMN receives information from both the left and right cerebral cortex), but with CN VII the LMN of the upper face receives bilateral input but the lower facial LMNs receive only contralateral input. ——————————————————————————–

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What syndrome is described by a lesion in the angular gyrus (area 39) resulting in alexia, agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and right-left disorientation?

A

Gerstmann’s syndrome; spoken language is usually understood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Cervical vertebrae?

A

Eight pairs through seven cervical vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Thoracic vertebrae?

A

Twelve pairs through twelve thoracic vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Lumbar vertebrae?

A

Five pairs through five lumbar vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Sacral vertebrae?

A

Five pairs through five sacral vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with • Coccygeal vertebrae?

A

One pair with three to five coccygeal vertebrae. Totaling 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the three sites where CSF can leave the ventricles and enter the subarachnoid space? (Name the lateral and the medial foramina.)

A

Two Lateral foramina of Luschka and 1 Medial foramen of Monroe (L for Lateral and M for Medial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What CNs arise from • The midbrain?

A

CN III and IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What CNs arise from • The pons?

A

CN V, VI, VII, and VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What CNs arise from • The medulla?

A

CN IX, X, and XII CN XI arises from the cervical spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What disconnect syndrome results from a lesion in the corpus callosum secondary to an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery, so that the person can comprehend the command but not execute it?

A

Transcortical apraxia; Wernicke’s area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion in the corpus callosum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or false? Glucose readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier.

A

False. Water readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier, but glucose requires carrier-mediated transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What encapsulated group of nerve endings seen at the muscle-tendon junction responds to an increase in tension generated in that muscle? (This is dropping a box that is too heavy to carry.)

A

Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by Ib afferent neurons in response to an increase in force or tension. The inverse muscle reflex protects muscle from being torn; it limits the tension on the muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What chromosome 4, AD disorder is a degeneration of GABA neurons in the striatum of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

Huntington’s chorea; patients have chorea, athetoid movements, progressive dementia, and behavioral problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What syndrome is described as bilateral lesions of the amygdala and the hippocampus resulting in placidity, anterograde amnesia, oral exploratory behavior, hypersexuality, and psychic blindness?

A

Klüver-Bucy syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

By asking a patient to close the eyes while standing with feet together, what two pathways are you eliminating from proprioception?

A

When a patient closes the eyes while standing with feet together, the visual and cerebellar components of proprioception are removed, so you are testing the dorsal columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a positive Romberg’s sign indicating a lesion in the dorsal columns. The cold water caloric test mimics a brainstem lesion by inhibiting the normal reflex response. (COWS: Cold Opposite Warm Same)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the name of bilateral flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, and hypotonia due to a viral infection of the ventral horn of the spinal cord?

A

Poliomyelitis; it is a bilateral LMN lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The ventrolateral two-thirds of the cervical spinal cord and the ventrolateral part of the medulla?

A

Anterior spinal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What branch off the vertebral artery supplies • The cerebellum and the dorsolateral part of the medulla?

A

PICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What syndrome causes inability to concentrate, easy distractibility, apathy, and regression to an infantile suckling or grasping reflex?

A

Frontal lobe syndrome (lesion in the prefrontal cortex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

True or false? The presence of PMNs in the CSF is always abnormal.

A

True. Although the CSF normally contains 0 to 4 lymphocytes or monocytes, the presence of PMNs is always considered abnormal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What cells lining the ventricles have cilia on their luminal surface to move CSF?

A

Ependymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the most common site for an aneurysm in cerebral circulation?

A

The junction where the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries join. As the aneurysm expands, it compresses the fibers from the upper temporal fields of the optic chiasm, producing bitemporal inferior quadrantanopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What fissure of the cerebral cortex runs perpendicular to the lateral fissure and separates the frontal and the parietal lobes?

A

Central sulcus (sulcus of Rolando)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the name of violent projectile movements of a limb resulting from a lesion in the subthalamic nuclei of the basal ganglia?

A

Hemiballismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the term for the type of pupil seen in neurosyphilis, and what ocular reflexes are lost?

A

Argyll Robertson pupils accompany a loss of both direct and consensual light reflexes, but the accommodation-convergence reaction remains intact. It can also be seen in patients with pineal tumors or multiple sclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or false? Intrafusal fibers form muscle spindles.

A

True. Muscle spindles are modified skeletal muscle fibers. They are the sensory component of the stretch reflexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Broca’s area?

A

Areas 44 and 45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary auditory cortex?

A

Areas 41 and 42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary somatosensory cortex?

A

Areas 1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Somatosensory association cortex?

A

Areas 5 and 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary motor cortex?

A

Area 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Premotor cortex?

A

Area 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Visual association cortex?

A

Areas 18 and 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Frontal eye fields?

A

Area 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Primary visual cortex?

A

Area 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What Brodmann area is associated with • Wernicke’s area?

A

Area 22 and occasionally 39 and 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the fluid of the posterior compartment of the eye?

A

Vitreous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What aphasia produces a nonfluent pattern of speech with the abilty to understand written and spoken language seen in lesions in the dominant hemisphere?

A

Expressive aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls the axial and proximal musculature of the limbs?

A

The vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Is involved in motor planning?

A

Lateral part of the hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls balance and eye movements?

A

Flocculonodular lobe (one of my favorite words in all of medicine!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In a topographical arrangement of the cerebellar homunculus map, what area or lobe • Controls distal musculature?

A

Intermediate part of the hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What glial cell is derived from mesoderm and acts as a scavenger, cleaning up cellular debris after injury?

A

Microglia (Microglia and mesoderm both begin with M)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What direct-pathway basal ganglia disease is described by masklike facies, stooped posture, cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling tremor at rest, and a gait characterized by shuffling and chasing the center of gravity?

A

Parkinson’s disease (I can’t underestimate all of the buzzwords in this question. Remember it.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What artery supplies most of the lateral surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

Middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for the production of ADH?

A

Supraoptic nuclei; lesions here result in diabetes insipidus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

True or false? High-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea.

A

True. High-frequency sound waves stimulate the hair cells at the base of the cochlea, whereas low-frequency sound waves stimulate hair cells at the apex of the cochlea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the satiety center, regulating food intake?

A

Ventromedial nucleus; lesions here result in obesity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What cells of the retina sees in color and needs bright light to be activated?

A

Cones (C for color and cones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What cell’s axons are the only ones that leave the cerebellar cortex?

A

The Purkinje cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What splanchnic carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that innervate the hindgut and the pelvic viscera?

A

Pelvic splanchnics (They all begin with P.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Is nystagmus defined by the fast or slow component?

A

Nystagmus is named by the fast component, which is the corrective attempt made by the cerebral cortex in response to the initial slow phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left optic nerve lesion

A

Left eye anopsia (left nasal and temporal hemianopsia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Right calcarine cortex lesion

A

Left homonymous hemianopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right LGB lesion (in the thalamus)

A

Left homonymous hemianopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Optic chiasm lesion

A

Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • A right lateral compression of the optic chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal carotid artery)

A

Right nasal hemianopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Name the ocular lesion; be specific. • Left Meyer’s loop lesion of the optic radiations.

A

Left homonymous hemianopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary skeletal muscle contractions. (Think coordination.) Remember, the function of the basal ganglia is to initiate gross voluntary skeletal muscle control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the name for inability to stop a movement at the intended target?

A

Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger-to-nose test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

If a lesion occurs before the onset of puberty and arrests sexual development, what area of the hypothalamus is affected?

A

Preoptic area of the hypothalamus; if the lesion occurs after puberty, amenorrhea or impotence will be seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What sulcus divides the occipital lobe horizontally into a superior cuneus and inferior lingual gyrus?

A

Calcarine sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Do alpha-or gamma-motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers?

A

alpha-Motor neurons innervate extrafusal muscle fibers (a motor unit), whereas gamma-motor neurons innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Contracting both medial rectus muscles simultaneously makes the images of near objects remain on the same part of the retina. What term describes this process?

A

Convergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Will a unilateral lesion in the spinothalamic tract result in a contralateral or ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature?

A

Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract enters the spinal cord and immediately synapses in the dorsal horn, crosses over, and ascends contralateral in the spinal cord, brainstem, thalamus, and postcentral gyrus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What ganglion supplies the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary muscles of the eye?

A

Ciliary ganglion

82
Q

In what tract does pain, temperature, and crude touch sensory information ascend to the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe?

A

Spinothalamic tract (anterolateral system)

83
Q

What CN nucleus receives auditory information from both ears via the cochlear nuclei?

A

Superior olivary nucleus

84
Q

What parasympathetic nucleus is found on the floor of the fourth ventricle and supplies preganglionic fibers innervating the terminal ganglias of the thorax, foregut, and midgut?

A

Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X

85
Q

What sensory system is affected in the late spinal cord manifestation of syphilis?

A

Bilateral degeneration of the dorsal columns in the spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as tabes dorsalis. A high-step gait is seen in patients with tabes dorsalis because of the inability to feel the ground beneath their feet.

86
Q

What do LMNs innervate?

A

They innervate skeletal muscle.

87
Q

What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the lower limbs in the spinal cord?

A

The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), which lies closest to the midline of the spinal cord.

88
Q

True or false? CSF is a clear, hypertonic solution with higher concentrations of K + and HCO3-, than the serum.

A

False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution with lower concentrations of K+ and HCO3-. It does have higher concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+.

89
Q

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal root?

A

Sensory

90
Q

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal rami?

A

Both

91
Q

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral rami?

A

Both

92
Q

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Ventral root?

A

Motor

93
Q

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Dorsal root ganglion?

A

Sensory

94
Q

What type of fiber or fibers are carried in (answer motor, sensory, or both) • Spinal nerve?

A

Both

95
Q

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Dorsal column tract?

A

Ipsilateral loss at and below the level of the lesion

96
Q

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Corticospinal tract?

A

Ipsilateral loss below the level of the lesion

97
Q

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • LMN?

A

Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis

98
Q

Describe the loss for each of the following in a hemisection of the spinal cord. (Brown-Sáequard syndrome) • Spinothalamic tract?

A

Contralateral loss below and bilateral loss at the level of the lesion

99
Q

What area of the brain acts as the center for ipsilateral horizontal gaze?

A

PPRF

100
Q

What aphasia is seen as an inability to comprehend spoken language and speaking in a word salad?

A

Receptive aphasia is due to a lesion in Brodmann areas 22, 39, and 40; generally the patient is unaware of the deficit.

101
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Initiate and manage gross skeletal muscle movement control

102
Q

What artery is formed by the union of the two vertebral arteries?

A

The basilar artery is formed at the pontomedullary junction.

103
Q

What disease is described by bilateral flaccid weakness of the upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral spastic weakness of the lower limbs (UMN) beginning at the cervical level of the spinal cord and progressing up or down the cord?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease) is a LMN lesion at the level of the lesion and UMN lesion below the level of the lesion.

104
Q

Which dopamine receptor excites the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

D1 receptor; inhibition of the direct pathway occurs through the D2 receptors.

105
Q

Does the direct or indirect basal ganglia pathway result in a decreased level of cortical excitation?

A

Although both pathways are associated with disinhibition, the indirect basal ganglia pathway is associated with a decreased level of cortical excitation.

106
Q

What fissure of the cerebral cortex separates the frontal and temporal lobes rostrally and partially separates the parietal and temporal lobes?

A

Lateral fissure (fissure of Sylvius)

107
Q

What area of the brain acts as the center for contralateral horizontal gaze?

A

Frontal eye field (Brodmann area 8)

108
Q

In an adult, where does the spinal cord terminate and what is it called?

A

The conus medullaris terminates at the level of the second lumbar vertebra.

109
Q

If a patient with a cerebellar lesion has nystagmus, which way is the fast component directed, toward or away from the lesion?

A

The fast component is directed toward the affected side of a cerebellar lesion.

110
Q

What area of the limbic system is responsible for attaching emotional significance to a stimulus?

A

Amygdala; it helps imprint an emotional response in memory.

111
Q

What is the name of the tremor that occurs during movements and is absent while the person is at rest?

A

Intention tremor; it is a sign of cerebellar lesions. A tremor at rest (i.e., pill rolling) is seen in basal ganglia lesions.

112
Q

What is the term for making up stories regarding past experiences because of an inability to retrieve them?

A

Confabulation; it is commonly seen in Korsakoff’s syndrome.

113
Q

What frontal lobe cortex is associated with organizing and planning the intellectual and emotional aspect of behavior?

A

Prefrontal cortex; it is in front of the premotor area.

114
Q

What is the largest nucleus in the midbrain?

A

The substantia nigra is the largest nucleus in the midbrain. It contains melanin and uses GABA and dopamine as its neurotransmitters.

115
Q

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Left eye can’t look to the left

A

Left abducens nerve

116
Q

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? • Right eye can’t look left, left eye nystagmus, and convergence is intact

A

Right medial longitudinal fasciculus

117
Q

Where is the lesion that produces these symptoms when a patient is asked to look to the left? Neither eye can look left with a slow drift to the right

A

Left abducens nucleus or right cerebral cortex

118
Q

What area of the hypothalamus is the feeding center?

A

Lateral hypothalamic zone; lesions here result in aphagia. (Notice the difference between the feeding center and the satiety center; they are in different zones.)

119
Q

In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in hyperactive cortex with hyperkinetic, chorea, athetosis, tics, and dystonia?

A

Indirect pathway (Tourette syndrome for example)

120
Q

What happens to muscle tone and stretch reflexes when there is a LMN lesion?

A

The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are absent or decreased reflexes, muscle fasciculations, decreased muscle tone, and muscle atrophy What two areas of the skin do flaccid paralysis). Don’t forget, LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of the lesion!

121
Q

In what pathway of the basal ganglia do lesions result in an underactive cortex with hypokinetic, slow, or absent spontaneous movement?

A

Direct pathway; a good example is Parkinson’s disease.

122
Q

What sided muscle weakness is seen in an UMN corticospinal tract injury above the pyramidal decussation?

A

Contralateral muscle weakness when above the decussation, whereas an UMN injury below the pyramidal decussation results in ipsilateral muscle weakness.

123
Q

What area of the retina consists of only cones and has the greatest visual acuity?

A

Fovea

124
Q

What tract carries the ipsilateral dorsal column fibers from the upper limbs in the spinal cord?

A

The fasciculus cuneatus

125
Q

What CNS demyelinating disease is characterized by diplopia, ataxia, paresthesias, monocular blindness and weakness, or spastic paresis?

A

Multiple sclerosis

126
Q

What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) controls the constriction of the pupil in response to light?

A

Parasympathetic

127
Q

With which CN are preganglionic parasympathetic axons arising from the Edinger- Westphal nucleus associated?

A

CN III

128
Q

Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what artery?

A

Internal carotid artery

129
Q

What thalamic relay nucleus do the mammillary bodies project to?

A

The anterior nucleus of the thalamus

130
Q

What cells contribute to the blood-brain barrier and proliferate in response to CNS injury?

A

Astrocytes

131
Q

What causes slow writhing movements (athetosis)?

A

Hypermyelination of the corpus striatum and the thalamus (seen in cerebral palsy)

132
Q

What area of the brain is responsible for emotion, feeding, mating, attention, and memory?

A

The limbic system

133
Q

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The papillary sphincter and ciliary muscle of the eye?

A

Ciliary ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN III. Remember it like this:-ili-in ciliary ganglion looks like the III of CN III.)

134
Q

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The parotid gland?

A

The otic ganglion. (These fibers are carried in CN IX. Remember it like this: the -oti-is in both otic ganglion and parotid gland.)

135
Q

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

The submandibular ganglion. (Submandibular ganglion innervates the submandibular gland; easy enough.)

136
Q

What is the name of the postganglionic parasympathetic ganglion that innervates • The lacrimal gland and oral and nasal mucosa?

A

Pterygopalatine ganglion (I remember this as the only ganglion left.)

137
Q

What neuronal cell bodies are contained in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord? (T1-L2)

A

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons

138
Q

What limb of the internal capsule is not supplied by the middle cerebral artery?

A

Anterior limb of the internal capsule is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.

139
Q

What tract is responsible for voluntary refined movements of distal extremities?

A

Corticospinal tract

140
Q

Craniopharyngiomas are remnants of what?

A

Rathke’s pouch; they can result in compression of the optic chiasm.

141
Q

Clarke’s nucleus is the second ascending sensory neuron of which spinocerebellar tract?

A

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract; the accessory cuneate nucleus is the second nucleus for the cuneocerebellar tract.

142
Q

Name the three postganglionic sympathetic ganglia that receive input from thoracic splanchnics.

A

Celiac, aorticorenal, and superior mesenteric ganglias. (Remember all “ Splanchnics” are Sympathetic except for the Pelvic splanchnics, which are Preganglionic Parasympathetic fibers.)

143
Q

What is the only CN to arise from the dorsal surface of the midbrain?

A

CN IV

144
Q

What basic reflex regulates muscle tone by contracting muscles in response to stretch of that muscle?

A

The myotatic reflex is responsible for the tension present in all resting muscle.

145
Q

Where are the LMN cell bodies of the corticospinal tract?

A

In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. UMN cell bodies are in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.

146
Q

What nucleus, found in the intermediate zone of the spinal cord, sends unconscious proprioception to the cerebellum?

A

Clarke’s nucleus

147
Q

The vertebral artery is a branch of what artery?

A

The subclavian artery

148
Q

What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by the mandibular division of CN V?

A

Tensor tympani

149
Q

The fibers of nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus cross at the medullary decussation and ascend contralateral to what thalamic relay nucleus?

A

VPL nucleus sends its fibers to synapse in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.

150
Q

What muscle of the middle ear is innervated by CN VII?

A

The stapedius muscle

151
Q

What part of the inner ear contains the gravity receptors for changes in the position of the head?

A

Saccule and utricle

152
Q

What nucleus supplies the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary ganglion?

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus (via CN III)

153
Q

What reticular nuclei synthesize serotonin from L-tryptophan and plays a role in mood, aggression, and inducing sleep?

A

The raphe nuclei

154
Q

Will a patient with a unilateral lesion in the cerebellum fall toward or away from the affected side?

A

Patients with unilateral cerebellar lesions fall toward the side of the lesion.

155
Q

A unilateral lesion in what nucleus will produce ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate?

A

Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion.

156
Q

True or false? Neurons in the dorsal horn participate in reflexes.

A

True. They are the sensory component of a spinal reflex.

157
Q

What ganglion receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1-2 and innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, head, thoracic viscera, and blood vessels of the body wall and limbs?

A

Sympathetic chain ganglion

158
Q

What preganglionic sympathetic fibers are responsible for innervating the foregut and the midgut?

A

Thoracic splanchnic fibers

159
Q

Does light or darkness regulate the pineal gland?

A

Light regulates the activity of the pineal gland via the retinal-suprachiasmatic- pineal pathway.

160
Q

Name the three hormones produced by pinealocytes.

A

Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK

161
Q

Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic, or neutral?

A

The pH of CSF is 7.33, acidotic.

162
Q

What ascending sensory system carries joint position, vibratory and pressure sensation, and discriminative touch from the trunk and limbs?

A

The DCML system. (Remember, everything but pain and temperature.)

163
Q

What reflex enables the eyes to remain focused on a target while the head is turning?

A

The vestibulo-ocular reflex

164
Q

What cells of the retina see in black and white and are used for night vision?

A

Rods

165
Q

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Discontinuous voluntary contraction, multinuclear striated unbranched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T tubules, troponin and desmin as Z disc intermediate filament.

A

Skeletal muscles

166
Q

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Continuous involuntary contraction, uninuclear striated branched fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for banding pattern, dyadic T tubules, intercalated discs, troponin and desmin as a Z disc intermediate filament.

A

Cardiac muscle

167
Q

Name the muscle type based on these descriptions: • Involuntary contraction, uninuclear nonstriated fibers, actin and myosin not forming banding pattern; lack of T tubules, gap junctions, and calmodulin.

A

Smooth muscle

168
Q

What segment of the small intestine is associated with Brunner’s glands?

A

Duodenum

169
Q

Who is responsible for passing on mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders?

A

Mitochondria-linked disorders are always inherited from the mother.

170
Q

What part of a neuron receives information?

A

Dendrites receive information, whereas axons send information.

171
Q

What type of collagen is associated with the basement membrane?

A

Type IV collagen

172
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the prostatic portion of the urethra?

A

Transitional epithelium. The distal portion of the penile urethra is composed of stratified epithelium.

173
Q

What cell of the nephron is responsible for renin production and secretion?

A

Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell

174
Q

What cell surface modification of ependymal cells and respiratory epithelium has a 9 + 2 microtubular configuration and movement as its function?

A

Cilia

175
Q

True or false? The following are functions of hepatocytes: protein production, bile secretion, detoxification, conjugation, and lipid storage.

A

True. (They are quite a busy bunch of cells!)

176
Q

What substance found in eosinophils is toxic to parasitic worms?

A

Major basic protein

177
Q

After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum • Secrete progesterone?

A

Granulose cells secrete progesterone. After fertilization the granulose cells form from follicular cells.

178
Q

After fertilization, what cells of the corpus luteum • Secrete estrogen?

A

Theca cells secrete estrogen. After fertilization the theca cells form from the theca interna.

179
Q

What is the largest organ in the body?

A

Integument (skin and its derivatives)

180
Q

On what layer of the epidermis does all mitosis occur?

A

Malpighian layer (made up of the stratum basale and stratum spinosum)

181
Q

What ribosomal subunit binds first to the mRNA strand?

A

The small subunit (40S) binds first.

182
Q

What is the T-cell area of the spleen?

A

PALS

183
Q

What element is needed for the proper alignment of tropocollagen molecules?

A

Copper (Cu+)

184
Q

What type of cell surface projection lies on the lateral surface of cells closest to the apex and acts to seal off the outside environment from the rest of the body?

A

Zonula occludens (tight junctions)

185
Q

What organelle is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis?

A

Nucleolus. Ribosomal assembly also takes place in the nucleolus.

186
Q

What sweat gland type is associated with odor production and hair follicles and is found in the axilla?

A

APocrinE glands (APES is my memory aid) Axilla, Areola, and Anus all begin with A. APES are hairy (associated with hair follicles). They smell (odor production), and if confronted by an APE, your Adrenergic nervous system would be firing (innervation).

187
Q

What papillae send their senses via chorda tympani of CN VII?

A

Fungiform papillae

188
Q

True or false? The portal tract of the liver lobule is the first area to be oxygenated in the liver.

A

True. (Remember, blood flows from the portal tracts to the central vein, so it is the first area to receive blood and therefore oxygen.)

189
Q

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/2n (divide meiotically)

A

Spermatogonia (type A)

190
Q

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/4n

A

Primary spermatocyte

191
Q

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 23/1n

A

Spermatid

192
Q

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 46/2n (divide mitotically)

A

Spermatogonia (type B)

193
Q

Match the chromosome and haploid number with the stage of sperm development, spermatid, spermatocyte (primary or secondary), spermatogonia (type A or B): • 23/2n

A

Secondary spermatocyte

194
Q

What are the four functions of SER?

A

Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification, triglyceride resynthesis, and Ca2+handling

195
Q

Which immunoglobulin is secreted by the plasma cells in the gastrointestinal tract?

A

IgA

196
Q

What area of the lymph node is considered the thymic-dependent area?

A

The inner cortex (paracortex) contains the T cells, so it is considered the thymic-dependent area.

197
Q

What type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?

A

Heterochromatin, the light stuff in the nucleus on an electron microscope image.

198
Q

Both submandibular and sublingual glands are innervated by CN VII (facial) and produce mucous and serous secretions. Which one mainly produces serous secretions?

A

Submandibular gland produces mainly serous and the sublingual gland produces mainly mucous secretions.

199
Q

What is the only neuroglial cell of mesodermal origin?

A

Microglia. All others are neuroectodermal derivatives.

200
Q

Where is tropocollagen aggregated to form a collagen fibril?

A

Outside the cell

USMLE COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions