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USMLE COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW > D1401-1600 > Flashcards

D1401-1600 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • β-Oxidation

A

Carnitine acyltransferase I

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2
Q

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • Ketogenolysis

A

HMG CoA synthase

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3
Q

What is the rate-limiting step of the following? • Cholesterol synthesis

A

HMG CoA reductase

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4
Q

What direction does RNA polymerase move along the template strand of DNA during transcription?

A

3’-5’ direction, synthesizing RNA in the 5’-3’ direction

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5
Q

True or false? Histidine activates the histidine operon.

A

False. Histidine operon is activated when there are low intracellular levels of histidine.

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6
Q

What organ is responsible for the elimination of excess nitrogen from the body?

A

The kidneys excrete the excess nitrogen from the body as urea in the urine.

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7
Q

What is the only way to increase maximum velocity (Vmax)?

A

Increase enzyme concentrations

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8
Q

Name the two purine bases found in both DNA and RNA.

A

Adenine and guanine

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9
Q

What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Tetracycline

A

EF-Tu and EF-Ts of the 30S ribosomal subunit

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10
Q

What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Erythromycin

A

EF-G of the 50S subunit

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11
Q

What prokaryotic positioning enzyme in translation is blocked by the following? • Streptomycin

A

IF-2 of the 30S subunit

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12
Q

True or false? DNA polymerases can correct mistakes, whereas RNA polymerases lack this ability.

A

True. DNA polymerases have 3’-5’ exonuclease activity for proofreading.

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13
Q

What are the two precursors of heme?

A

Glycine and succinyl-CoA

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14
Q

What two factors cause PTH to be secreted?

A

A decrease in Ca2+ and an increase in PO4-

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15
Q

What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt? Are the reactions they catalyze reversible or irreversible?

A

Transketolase and transaldolase. The reactions they catalyze are reversible.

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16
Q

What are the five AAs that are both ketogenic and glucogenic?

A

Isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan, tyrosine, and phenylalanine

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17
Q

What artificial sweetener must patients with PKU avoid?

A

Aspartame

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18
Q

Cri-du-chat syndrome results in a terminal deletion of the short arm of what chromosome?

A

Chromosome 5

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19
Q

What substrate gets built up in Gaucher’s disease?

A

Glucosyl cerebroside

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20
Q

What protein prevents ssDNA from reannealing during DNA replication?

A

Single-strand DNA binding protein

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21
Q

What type of jaundice is seen in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia, a transport defect

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22
Q

What type of DNA library is made from the mRNA from a tissue expressing a particular gene?

A

cDNA libraries are derived from mRNA, are continuous, and contain no introns or regulatory elements.

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of vitamin B6 deficiency?

A

Isoniazid treatment

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24
Q

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Gaucher’s disease?

A

Glucocerebrosidase

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25
Q

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Sphingomyelinase

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26
Q

What lysosomal enzyme is deficient in • Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Hexosaminidase A

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27
Q

What are the three exceptions to the rule of codominant gene expression?

A

Barr bodies in females, T-cell receptor loci, and immunoglobulin light and heavy chain loci

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28
Q

How many kilocalories per gram are produced from the degradation of fat? CHO? Protein?

A

9 kcal/g from fat metabolism; 4 kcal/g from both CHO and protein metabolism

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29
Q

What is the only way to increase the Vmax of a reaction?

A

Increase the concentration of enzymes

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30
Q

From which two substances are phospholipids made?

A

Diacylglycerols and phosphatidic acid

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31
Q

What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the TCA cycle?

A

Succinyl CoA

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32
Q

What vitamin is an important component of rhodopsin?

A

Vitamin A

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33
Q

What is the term to describe the 5’-3’ sequence of one strand being the same as the opposite 5’-3’ strand?

A

Palindrome

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34
Q

What gluconeogenic enzyme is absent in muscle, accounting for its inability to use glycogen as a source for blood glucose?

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase

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35
Q

What is the term for vitamin D deficiency prior to epiphyseal fusion?

A

Rickets prior to fusion, osteomalacia if the deficiency occurs after epiphyseal fusion.

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36
Q

In what disease is there a genetic absence of UDP-glucuronate transferase, resulting in an increase in free unconjugated bilirubin?

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

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37
Q

What enzyme requires molybdenum as a cofactor?

A

Xanthine oxidase

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38
Q

At what three sites can the HMP shunt enter into glycolysis?

A
  1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. Glucose-6-phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
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39
Q

What is the term for the pH range where the dissociation of H+ occurs?

A

pK (think of it as where half is base and half is acid)

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40
Q

What regulates the rate of ketone body formation?

A

The rate of β-oxidation

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41
Q

What are the eight liver-specific enzymes?

A
  1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. Pyruvate carboxylase 6. Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase 8. Glucose-6-phosphatase
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42
Q

How many bases upstream is the eukaryotic TATA box promoter?

A

There are two eukaryotic upstream promoters. The TATA box is -25 base pairs upstream; the CAAT box is -75 bases upstream.

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43
Q

What is needed to initiate translation?

A

IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)

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44
Q

What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

A

16S subunit

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45
Q

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Barbiturates

A

Complex I

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46
Q

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Antimycin A

A

Cytochrome b/c1

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47
Q

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Cyanide

A

Cytochrome a/a3

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48
Q

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Oligomycin

A

Fo/F1 complex

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49
Q

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Atractyloside

A

ATP/ADP Translocase

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50
Q

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • CO

A

Cytochrome a/a3

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51
Q

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Rotenone

A

Complex I

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52
Q

What component of the ETC is inhibited by the following? • Azide

A

Cytochrome a/a3

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53
Q

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Serotonin

A

Tryptophan

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54
Q

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • GABA

A

Glutamate

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55
Q

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Histamine

A

Histidine

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56
Q

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • Creatine

A

Glycine/arginine

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57
Q

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • NAD

A

Tryptophan

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58
Q

What AA is a precursor of the following substances? • N2O

A

Arginine

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59
Q

What two enzymes are vitamin B12-dependent

A

Homocysteine methyl transferase and methylmalonyl CoA transferase

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60
Q

What two post-transcriptional enzymes in collagen synthesis require ascorbic acid to function properly?

A

Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases

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61
Q

What three organs participate in production of vitamin D?

A
  1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
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62
Q

What water-soluble-vitamin deficiency is associated with neural tube defects in the fetus?

A

Folic acid

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63
Q

What phase of Interphase is haploid (N)?

A

G1 phase; G2 and S phase are diploid (2N).

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64
Q

What neurotransmitter inhibits the optic nerve bipolar cell and shuts off in response to light?

A

Glutamate

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65
Q

Which of the following—DNA methylating enzymes, scaffolding proteins, histone acetylases, or deacetylases—is a regulator of eukaryotic gene expression?

A

Histone acetylases is a regulator favoring gene expression. All of the others favor inactivation.

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66
Q

Name the pattern of genetic transmission characterized thus: both M and F affected; no M-to-M transmission; affected M passes trait to all daughters, every generation; affected F passes trait to both sons and daughters; a single mutant allele can produce the disease.

A

X-linked dominant

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67
Q

What fat-soluble vitamin is connected to selenium metabolism?

A

Vitamin E

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68
Q

Why are eukaryotes unable to perform transcription and translation at the same time like prokaryotes?

A

In eukaryotes transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm.

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69
Q

What is determined by the secondary structure of an AA?

A

The folding of an AA chain

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70
Q

What three vitamin deficiencies are associated with homocystinemia?

A

Folate, vitamin B12, and vitamin B6

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71
Q

If the pH is more acidic than the pI, does the protein carry a net positive or net negative charge?

A

When the pH is more acidic than the pI, it has a net positive charge, and when the pH is more basic than the pI, it has a net negative charge.

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72
Q

What form of continuous DNA, used in cloning, has no introns or regulatory elements?

A

cDNA, when it is made from mRNA

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73
Q

What is the start codon, and what does it code for in eukaryotes? Prokaryotes?

A

The one start codon, AUG, in eukaryotes codes for methionine and in prokaryotes formylmethionine.

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74
Q

What parasite found in raw fish can produce vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

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75
Q

Methylating uracil produces what pyrimidine base?

A

Thymine

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76
Q

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes tRNA, snRNA, and the 5S rRNA

A

RNA polymerase III

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77
Q

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes hnRNA, mRNA, and snRNA

A

RNA polymerase II

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78
Q

Name the eukaryotic RNA polymerase based on the following: • Synthesizes 28S, 18S and 5.8S rRNAs

A

RNA polymerase I

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79
Q

What is the primary screening test used to detect HIV-infected individuals? Confirmatory test?

A

ELISA is used as a screening test because it is very sensitive; Western blot is used as a confirmatory test because it detects antibodies (protein) to the HIV virus.

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80
Q

How many covalent bonds per purine-pyrimidine base pairing are broken during denaturation of dsDNA?

A

None. Denaturation of dsDNA breaks hydrogen bonds, not covalent bonds.

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81
Q

How many hydrogen bonds link A-T? C-G?

A

A-T are linked by 2 hydrogen bonds, C-G by 3 hydrogen bonds.

82
Q

What DNA replication enzyme breaks the hydrogen bond of base pairing, forming two replication forks?

A

Helicase (requires ATP for energy)

83
Q

What test is done to diagnose CGD?

A

Nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test (NBT). It is negative in patients with CGD because there is no production of oxygen radicals.

84
Q

What is the valence of an Ig molecule equal to?

A

The number of Ags that the Ab can bind

85
Q

What is the name of the process that ensures that each B cell produces only one heavy-chain variable domain and one light chain?

A

Allelic exclusion. It is to ensure that one B cell produces only one Ab.

86
Q

What is the major Ab of the primary immune response?

A

IgM

87
Q

What form of immunity is responsible for removal of intracellular infections?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

88
Q

True or false? Direct fluorescent Ab test is used to detect Abs in a patient?

A

False. Direct tests detect Ags; indirect tests detect Abs.

89
Q

What is the triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

A

Thrombocytopenia, eczema, and immunodeficiency is the triad of this X-linked recessive disorder.

90
Q

What complement factor deficiency leads to • Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections?

A

C3 deficiency

91
Q

What complement factor deficiency leads to • Recurrent gonococcal infections?

A

C5-C8 deficiency

92
Q

What complement factor deficiency leads to • Leukocyte adhesion deficiency with poor opsonization?

A

C1, C2, or C4 deficiency

93
Q

What complement factor deficiency leads to • Hereditary angioedema?

A

C1 inhibitor (C1-INH)

94
Q

Which IgG cannot activate complement?

A

IgG4

95
Q

Name the T-cell CD marker: • Essential for Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)

A

CD40 ligand

96
Q

Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC class I molecules

A

CD8

97
Q

Name the T-cell CD marker: • Expressed on all T cells and is needed as a signal transducer for the T cell receptor

A

CD3

98
Q

Name the T-cell CD marker: • Interacts with MHC class II molecules

A

CD4

99
Q

Name the T-cell CD marker: Is a costimulatory molecule in T cell activation

A

CD28

100
Q

What three cells are essential for T-cell differentiation in the thymus?

A

Dendritic cells, macrophages, and thymic epithelial cells

101
Q

What is the only specific Ag-presenting cell?

A

B cells; macrophages and dendritic cells are nonspecific.

102
Q

What is the tetrad of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and increase in temperature

103
Q

What is the name of the B cell that secretes Ig?

A

Plasma cell (mature B lymphocyte)

104
Q

What would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with papain?

A

There would be two Fab and Fc regions.

105
Q

What is the bone marrow maturation time for a phagocytic cell?

A

14 days

106
Q

Which leukotrienes are associated with the late-phase inflammatory response?

A

LTC4 and LTD4

107
Q

What is the term for the strength of the association between Ag and an Ab?

A

Affinity (one of each)

108
Q

True or false? More Ag is needed to produce a secondary immune response than a first immune response.

A

False. Fewer Ags are needed to trigger a secondary response.

109
Q

What is the term for the strength of association between multiple Abbinding sites and multiple antigenic determinants?

A

Avidity (more than one binding site)

110
Q

What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells, opsonizes, and is the Ig of the secondary immune response?

A

IgG

111
Q

What test is used to detect anti-RBC Abs seen in hemolytic anemia?

A

Coombs test

112
Q

What subset of T cells recognizes the MHC class I Ags?

A

CD8+ T cells (cytotoxic) Remember, 8×1=8 (CD×8×MHC class I=8); 4×2=8 (CD×4 MHC class II 8)

113
Q

What cell surface marker is found on activated helper T cells?

A

CD40

114
Q

What are the five Ig isotypes?

A

IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM

115
Q

Which integrin mediates the adhesion to endothelial cells for migration in and out of the blood during an immune response?

A

Beta2-integrins

116
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is an Ab-mediated response against our own cells, receptors, or membranes via IgG or IgM?

A

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

117
Q

What is the term to describe the limited portion of an Ag that is recognized by an Ab?

A

Antigenic determinant (epitope)

118
Q

What cytokine do Th1 cells secrete to inhibit Th2 cell function?

A

INF-gamma

119
Q

What three cells are essential for T-cell maturation?

A

Thymic epithelial cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages

120
Q

What is the term for a single isolated antigenic determinant?

A

Hapten (not immunogenic)

121
Q

What are the two opsonizing factors?

A

The Fc region of IgG and C3b

122
Q

What is the most common Ig deficiency?

A

IgA deficiency; patients commonly present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and GI disturbances.

123
Q

What is the name of the B cell-rich area of the spleen?

A

Primary follicle (in the white pulp)

124
Q

What IL, produced by macrophages, is chemotactic for neutrophils?

A

IL-8. It not only is chemotactic, it also acts as an adhesive for neutrophils.

125
Q

What Ig prevents bacterial adherence to mucosal surfaces?

A

IgA

126
Q

What are the three rules of clonal selection?

A
  1. One cell type 2. One Ab type 3. Random selection of hypervariable regions, and only cells with bound Ag undergo clonal expansion
127
Q

What is a plasma cell’s life expectancy?

A

7 to 14 days

128
Q

What are defined by Ag-binding specificity?

A

Idiotypes

129
Q

What type of binding occurs with one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?

A

Affinity

130
Q

What molecule that is needed to trigger T cell activation is noncovalently linked to TCR?

A

CD3 molecule. It transmits signals to the inside of the T cell to trigger activation

131
Q

What is the term for Ags that activate B cells without T-cell signaling?

A

Thymus-independent Ags

132
Q

What are the three rules governing a secondary immune response?

A
  1. Covalent bonding between the hapten and carrier 2. B-cell exposure to hapten twice 3. T-cell exposure to carrier twice
133
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is a T cell-mediated response to Ags that are not activated by Ab or complement?

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (delayed type because of the 48-96 hour latency)

134
Q

Name the macrophages by location: • Liver

A

Kupffer cells

135
Q

Name the macrophages by location: • Lungs

A

Alveolar macrophages

136
Q

Name the macrophages by location: • CNS

A

Microglial cells

137
Q

Name the macrophages by location: • Kidney

A

Mesangial macrophages

138
Q

What is the first human disease successfully treated with gene therapy?

A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency

139
Q

What receptors are the best markers for NK cells?

A

CD16 and CD56

140
Q

True or false? Ag-Ab binding is irreversible

A

False. It is reversible because the Ags and Abs are not linked covalently.

141
Q

What three major cell lines participate in the acquired immune system?

A

T cells, B cells, and macrophages

142
Q

What test is used to screen for HIV?

A

ELISA. It detects anti-p24 IgG.

143
Q

During what stage of B-cell development is IgM first seen on the surface?

A

Immature B cells

144
Q

What Ig is responsible for Antibody-Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity of parasites, has a high-affinity Fc receptor on mast cells and basophils, and is responsible for the allergic response?

A

IgE

145
Q

True or false? B-cell Ag receptors can be secreted.

A

True. B cell antigen receptors are Abs.

146
Q

Are more Abs produced in a primary or a secondary immune response?

A

More Ab is produced in less time in a secondary immune response (shorter lag period).

147
Q

By which process do Abs make microorganisms more easily ingested via phagocytosis?

A

Opsonization

148
Q

What MHC class acts to remove foreign Ags from the body?

A

MHC class II Ags. This is accomplished via CD4 T cells.

149
Q

What disorder is characterized by autoantibodies to IF?

A

Pernicious anemia

150
Q

What cytokines do Th2 cells secrete to inhibit Th1 cell function?

A

IL-4, IL-10, and IL-13

151
Q

What is the term for the number of Ag-binding sites on an Ig?

A

Valence

152
Q

Which major cell type is found in the red pulp of the spleen?

A

RBCs. That is why it is called red pulp.

153
Q

What is the name of the pathway that produces leukotrienes?

A

Lipoxygenase pathway, from arachidonic acid

154
Q

What is the term to describe basophils that have left the bloodstream and entered a tissue?

A

Mast cells

155
Q

What are the three major functions of secretory IgA?

A
  1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of IgA across epithelial barriers 3. Protection of IgA from degradative proteases
156
Q

What IL is important in myeloid cell development?

A

IL-3 (3 face down is an M)

157
Q

What is the term for different classes and subclasses of the same gene products?

A

Isotypes

158
Q

What is the first Ab a baby makes?

A

IgM

159
Q

What test, by using specific Abs to different receptors, allows for rapid analysis of cell types in a blood sample?

A

Flow cytometric analysis

160
Q

What is the name of the T cell-rich area of the spleen?

A

PALS (Parietolateral lymphocytic sheath)

161
Q

What three complement fragments are also anaphylatoxins?

A

C3a, C4a, and C5a

162
Q

Name the B-cell CD marker: • Required for class switching signals from T cells

A

CD40

163
Q

Name the B-cell CD marker: • Receptor for EBV

A

CD21; it is a complement receptor for cleaved C3

164
Q

Name the B-cell CD marker: • Used clinically to count B cells in blood

A

CD19

165
Q

What immunologic test checks for a reaction between Abs and a particular Ag? (hint: ABO typing)

A

Agglutination test

166
Q

Which leukotriene is chemotactic for neutrophils?

A

LTB4

167
Q

What Ig is associated with mucosal surfaces and external secretions?

A

IgA

168
Q

What are the genetic variants of a molecule within members of the same species?

A

Allotypes

169
Q

What cytokine do CD4 T cells secrete to activate B cells when the specific peptide in the groove of the MHC II molecule interacts with the TCR?

A

IL-4 is secreted to activate B cells. This begins the second step in the immune response, known as Activation. CD4 T cells secrete INF-alpha to activate macrophages

170
Q

Which protein prevents internal binding of self proteins within an MHC class II cell?

A

Invariant chain

171
Q

What would be the result if an Ab were cleaved with pepsin?

A

There would be a Fab’ region; thus, it would still be able to participate in precipitation and agglutination.

172
Q

Why are patients with Chronic Granulomatous Disease not prone to develop infections from catalase-negative bacteria?

A

Catalase-negative bacteria secrete H2O2 as a byproduct (remember, catalase breaks down H2O2), allowing the neutrophils to use it as the substrate for the other toxic metabolites. Patients with CGD are prone to catalase-positive bacterial infections.

173
Q

What are the two chains of the TCR that are mainly found on the skin and mucosal surfaces?

A

gamma and delta chains

174
Q

Which IL is associated with increases of IgG and IgE?

A

IL-4

175
Q

What branch of the immune system is acquired in response to an Ag?

A

Adaptive branch. The adaptive branch of the immune system has a slow initiation with rapid responses thereafter.

176
Q

True or false? T cells can recognize, bind, and internalize unprocessed Ags.

A

False. B cells recognize unprocessed Ags, but T cells can recognize only processed Ags.

177
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is a result of high circulating levels of soluble immune complexes made up of IgG or IgM Abs?

A

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

178
Q

At what stage of B-cell development can IgM or IgD be expressed on the cell surface?

A

Mature B cell; the memory B cell can have IgG, IgA, or IgE on its surface.

179
Q

What T cell deficiency syndrome is associated with facial anomalies, hypoparathyroidism, thymic hypoplasia, and recurrent viral and fungal infections?

A

DiGeorge syndrome, which is due to a failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouch development. Remember, B cell deficiencies are associated with extracellular infection. T cell deficiencies are associated with intracellular infections

180
Q

What is the stimulus for the classical pathway activation?

A

Ag-Ab complexes. The alternative pathway protects without use of Abs; the pathogen is the stimulus.

181
Q

What is the first membrane-bound Ig on B cell membranes?

A

IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.

182
Q

What region of the Ig does not change with class switching?

A

Hypervariable region

183
Q

In MHC class II molecules, what chain blocks access to the peptide-binding groove during transportation within the cell, ensuring that the MHC class II-peptide complex is transported to the surface?

A

Invariant chain. This is essential because the CD4 T cells have antigen receptors only for peptides bound to the MHC II molecule. (MHC restriction)

184
Q

What chromosome codes for HLA gene products?

A

The short arm of chromosome 6

185
Q

What cells are atypical on a peripheral blood smear in heterophil-positive mononucleosis?

A

T cells, not B cells

186
Q

What is the major Ig of the secondary immune response in the mucosal barriers?

A

IgA

187
Q

What AR disorder is seen by age 1 to 2 with recurrent sinopulmonary infections, uncoordinated muscle movements, and dilation of the blood vessels?

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

188
Q

What are the four chemotactic agents?

A
  1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4. Bacterial peptides
189
Q

What subset of CD4 helper T cells stimulate B-cell division and differentiation?

A

Th2

190
Q

Which region of the variable domain comprises the Ag-binding site of the Ab?

A

Hypervariable region (three per light chain; three per heavy chain)

191
Q

True or false? The increased oxygen consumption after phagocytosis is for ATP production.

A

False; it is for the production of toxic metabolites.

192
Q

What is the limited portion of a large Ag that will actually be recognized and bound to an Ab and that contains approximately five to six amino acids or four to five hexose units?

A

Antigenic determinant (epitope). (Idiotypes bind to epitopes.)

193
Q

What complement factor or factors are associated with • Chemotaxis?

A

C5a

194
Q

What complement factor or factors are associated with • Membrane attack complex (MAC)?

A

C5-C9

195
Q

What complement factor or factors are associated with • Opsonization?

A

C3b

196
Q

What complement factor or factors are associated with • Anaphylaxis?

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

197
Q

What happens to the Ab specificity when class switching occurs in mature B cells?

A

As the isotype is switched, the Ab specificity does not change because it does not affect the variable chains.

198
Q

What IL down-regulates cell mediated immunity?

A

IL-10

199
Q

Name the type of graft described by these transplants: • From one site to another on the same person

A

Autograft

200
Q

Name the type of graft described by these transplants: Between genetically identical individuals

A

Isograft

USMLE COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW (8 decks)

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