D1 Ch1 Flashcards

Domain 1

1
Q

GAPP stands for

A

Generally Accepted privacy Principals

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2
Q

Difference between security and privacy

A

Security - how the org protects its own data

Privacy - how the org is allowed to collect, process, and share the data of individuals

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3
Q

The 10 principals of GAPP and what they mean

A

Management
The org must have a privacy policy and other docs to govern the use of data

Notice
The org must notify individuals about what info is collected and how it is collected

Choice and consent
Individuals must consent to the storage, use, and sharing of their PII

Collection
Info may only be collected for the purposes identified in the notice and consent

Use, retention, and disposal
The org may not use the info for undisclosed purposes

Access
The individual can request access to their PII at any time

Disclosure
The org may disclose the PII only when consistent with the notice and consent

Security
The org must protect the data from unauthorized access

Quality
The org must maintain accurate and complete info

Monitoring and enforcement
The org must maintain compliance with their security policy

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4
Q

A weakness in a device, system, app, or process that may allow an attack to take place

This is under the CS professionals’ control

A

Vulnerability

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5
Q

An outside force that may exploit a vulnerability

This is NOT under the CS professionals’ control

A

Threat

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6
Q

A combination of threat and corresponding vulnerability

A

Risk

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7
Q

True/False:

Both vulnerability and threat must be present for there to be any risk

A

True

For example, if a datacenter is vulnerable to earthquakes, but the building is not in an area that is prone to earthquakes, there is no threat - therefore no risk.

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8
Q

Risk equation

A

Risk = Vulnerability x Threat

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9
Q

What type of threat?:

An individual, group, or org deliberately undermining the security of an org

A

Adversarial

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10
Q

What type of threat?:

An individual performing routine work who makes a mistake that undermines the security of the org

A

Accidental

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11
Q

What type of threat?:

The failure of equipment, software, or environmental controls

A

Structural

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12
Q

What type of threat?:

Natural or human-made disasters outside of the control of the org (ex. flooding, power outage)

A

Environmental

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13
Q

What type of graph is used to create a qualitative analysis of risk?

A

Risk matrix

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14
Q

What 2 measurements are used to create a qualitative analysis of risk?

A

Likelihood and impact

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15
Q

What type of control?:

Systems, devices, software, and settings that enforce CIA requirements

A

Technical

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16
Q

What type of control?:

Practices and procedures (ex. pen testing, reverse engineering software for analysis)

A

Operational

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17
Q

NAC stands for

A

Network Access Control

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18
Q

A security solution that limits network access to authorized individuals

A

NAC

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19
Q

What are the 3 elements that comprise an 802.1X comm?

A

Supplicant (client computer), authenticator, RADIUS server

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20
Q

What is the difference between agent-based and agentless NAC solutions?

A

Agent-based
Involves software that is installed on the client computers that communicates with the NAC service

Agentless
Authentication happens via web browser, and no installed software is needed

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21
Q

What is the difference between in-band and out-of-band NAC solutions?

A

In-band
Dedicated NAC appliances sit between devices and resources. These appliances deny/limit network access. (ex. A captive portal)

Out-of-band
Existing network devices are used to communicate with authentication servers. The devices then reconfigure the network to grant/deny access accordingly. (ex. 802.1X)

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22
Q

NAC may deny access to a computer because that computer does not have the adequate updates or security measures.

How does the NAC authenticator tell that this is the case?

A

Agents installed on the computer

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23
Q

What does it mean when a firewall is called “triple-homed”?

A

The firewall connects to 3 networks

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24
Q

ACL stands for

A

Access Control List

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25
Q

A firewall rule base is called

A

ACL

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26
Q

A principal common to firewalls where, if a packet does not meet any of the predetermined rules, it is automatically dropped

A

Default deny

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27
Q

A type of firewall that checks packets against the ACL, and does not have any further intelligence. Very rudimentary.

A

Packet filtering

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28
Q

A type of firewall that maintains information about the state of each connection passing through the firewall. The most basic firewall sold as a stand-alone product.

It keeps track of which internal requests use which port numbers; any packets that don’t match what the firewall was expecting get dropped. This all but eliminates IP spoofing.

A

Stateful inspection

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29
Q

NGFW stands for

A

Next Generation Firewall

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30
Q

A type of firewall that uses contextual information about users, apps, and business processes. Currently, it is the state-of-the-art firewall.

A

NGFW

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31
Q

WAF stands for

A

Web Application Firewall

32
Q

A type of firewall that is specialized for web app attacks (ex. SQL injection, XSS)

33
Q

A security solution that separates networks of different security levels from each other

A

Network segmentation

34
Q

An intermediary system used to access a secure network segment or device from an insecure network segment or device, safely. This way, the insecure does not directly access the secure.

35
Q

An attractive target to attackers due to vulnerability, services running, or sensitive info that actually secretly monitors the attacker after they have compromised the target. This may be used to feed network blacklists.

36
Q

An IP address that is configured to be sent to a compromised device that is trying to connect to its C2 server. This device attached to this IP address is configured to detect and remediate the botnet-infected system.

A

DNS sinkhole

37
Q

Software that centrally manages and monitors system patch levels throughout the enterprise

A

Patch management software

38
Q

True/False

You should IMMEDIATELY apply patches as soon as the vendor releases them

A

False; you should always test patches before deployment

39
Q

A security solution that allows an administrator to apply security settings to groups of devices based on their roles

A

Group policies

40
Q

GPO stands for

A

Microsoft Group Policy Object

41
Q

A type of control that is used when an organization is unable to implement all desired security controls due to technical, operational, or financial constraints.

A

Compensating

42
Q

MAC stands for (no, the other one)

A

Mandatory Access Control

43
Q

An access control method where administrators set all permissions, and individual users CANNOT change those permissions.

Used in highly secure areas, such as government or military networks.

44
Q

An access control method where owners of files may choose who can access those files; the administrators do not set permissions for every single thing.

45
Q

DAC stands for

A

Discretionary Access Control

46
Q

What Linux distribution is an example of MAC?

47
Q

NIST 4 stages of penetration testing

A

Planning > Discovery > Attack > Reporting

48
Q

3 things that must be discussed when Planning a penetration test

A

Timing, scope, authorization

49
Q

What happens during the Discovery phase of pen testing?

A

Reconnaissance

50
Q

NIST 4 phases of the attack phase of pen testing

A

Gain access
Discovery phase should have provided enough info to gain access

Escalate privileges
Reach admin-level privileges

System browsing
Gather more info on the mechanisms in order to gain more access

Install more tools
More pen testing tools gain more info/access

Then repeat the process

51
Q

What happens during the Reporting phase of pen testing?

A

Communicate access that was achieved, and vulnerabilities that were exploited

52
Q

What is the White team?

A

Referees, monitors of the wargame, the maintain the technical environment

53
Q

What is reverse engineering as it applies to CS?

A

Working backwards from a finished product to figure out how it works

54
Q

What method does reverse engineering use?

A

Decomposition - breaking down something into its smaller components

55
Q

For what reason would a CS professional use reverse engineering? (2)

A

Make sure proprietary software is secure
Verify whether suspicious software is malicious

56
Q

A method of detecting malware based on behavior, rather than based on signatures

Involves executing code in a controlled environment and watching how the code behaves

A

Sandboxing

57
Q

Another term for sandboxing is

A

Code detonation

58
Q

2 methods that computers use to process code

A

Interpreted language
Compiled language

59
Q

Difference between interpreted language and compiled language

A

With interpreted language, the computer works directly from the source code. This code is human-readable. (ex. Ruby, Python)

With compiled code, the source code is converted to binary. This is NOT human-readable. (ex. C/C++, Java)

60
Q

2 methods that can be used to reverse engineer compiled code

A

Use a decompiler to convert binary into the source code (this is not very reliable)

Use a specialized environment to monitor how the software responds to input, and attempt to discover its inner workings

61
Q

What 2 things are done to make sure a piece of hardware is safe, without having to reverse engineer it?

A

Verify there has been no tampering
Verify source authenticity

62
Q

Companies that were certified by the DoD and NSA to be secure manufacturers of systems. These systems are used for the US govt.

A

Trusted foundries

63
Q

OEM stands for

A

Original Equipment Manufacturer

64
Q

2 desired outcomes of creating standardized processes

A

Reduces time and effort required to react to a task

Ensures different team members respond consistently to similar situations

65
Q

SOAR stands for

A

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response

66
Q

A security solution that allows the automation of tasks throughout multiple different platforms, tools, and apps

67
Q

A method of writing code to automate work

68
Q

A method of using vendor-provided interfaces to tie different products together

A

Integration

69
Q

API stands for

A

Application Programming Interface

70
Q

An interface that allows you to interact with a service w/out using web-based interfaces. It also allows you to write code to automate actions.

71
Q

The primary means of integrating sec tools

72
Q

A method for one application to automatically send real-time data via web request to another application when a specific event occurs

ex. Configuring the threat intelligence platform to send a request to the vulnerability scanner’s API each time a new vulnerability is reported

73
Q

Small programs that run inside of browsers

74
Q

What use do plugins have in a CS context?

A

Data enrichment

ex. Each time you hover over a link, a plugin can pull up Whois and a reputation check for that website

75
Q

What technology will be increasingly used as CS develops? This will help identify patterns and extract knowledge from large volumes of data.

A

Machine learning