D1 Ch 2 Flashcards

1
Q

FaaS stands for

A

Function as a Service

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2
Q

FaaS is AKA

A

Serverless

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3
Q

A cloud computing service where, instead of accessing an application, you instead access only the individual, autonomous functions of the application - the microservices.

This service is billed as an as-needed basis.

A

Serverless / FaaS

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4
Q

A process where multiple OSs are run on a single hardware system.

A

Virtualization

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5
Q

A process where multiple self-contained and isolated applications are run on the host OS.

A

Containerization

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6
Q

Containerization is AKA

A

Application-level virtualization

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6
Q

VDI stands for

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

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7
Q

Infrastructure that runs a desktop OS on central hardware, and streams those desktops across the network to multiple systems.

A

VDI

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8
Q

Pros of serverless architecture (2)

A

It is billed as an as-needed basis, so it can keep costs down

Overhead costs for server maintenance/management are not needed

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9
Q

Cons of serverless architecture (2)

A

The organization is not in control of the security

Cloud computing requires complex security controls

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10
Q

Pros of virtualization (2)

A

Maximizes the efficiency of each system

Provides more control of resource usage

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11
Q

Pros of containerization (2)

A

More efficient than virtualization, since all containers are run on the host’s single OS

Because containerization hosts provide a consistent interface, containers can be easily moved between systems and accessed by different OSs

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12
Q

Containerization security concerns (8)

A

Containers must be isolated from each other

Containers must be addressed differently from the host OS

Threats to the host OS will impact the containers

Container image signing tools

Container monitoring and patching tools

System hardening

App and service monitoring

Auditing tools

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13
Q

5 methods of system hardening

A

Updating and patching

Removing unnecessary software/services

Restricting and logging admin access

Controlling the creation of new accts

Using capabilities like disk encryption and secure boot

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14
Q

Considerations before adopting security benchmarks

A

Consider whether you can adopt a benchmark while ensuring your critical functionality is not affected

If you must change the benchmark, consider why you need to be different, and whether that impacts your security

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15
Q

The database that contains Windows OS settings

A

Windows registry

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16
Q

Registry 5 main root keys

A

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT (HKCR)

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE (HKLM)

HKEY_USERS (HKU)

HKEY_CURRENT_USER (HKCU)

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG (HKCC)

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17
Q

Which registry root key contains COM object registration info, and associates files type with programs?

A

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT (HKCU)

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18
Q

Which registry root key contains system info, including scheduled tasks and services?

A

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE (HKLM)

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19
Q

Which registry root key contains info about user accounts?

A

HKEY_USERS (HKU)

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20
Q

Which registry root key contains information about the currently logged in user?

A

HKEY_CURRENT_USER (HKCU)

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21
Q

Which registry root key contains current local hardware profile information storage?

A

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG (HKCC)

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22
Q

What is a hive and what is it made of, as it relates to the Windows registry?

A

A hive is a group of of keys and values that are connected with the root keys

The values can include strings, binary, numbers, links to other registry keys, and Windows-specific component data

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23
Q

What is the built-in Windows Registry editing tool?

A

regedit

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24
Q

Where is Windows config info stored, besides in the Registry? (3)

A

C:\ProgramData
C:\ProgramFiles
C:\Users\username\AppData

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25
Q

Where is Linux config info stored? (1)

A

/etc

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26
Q

The core processes for an OS are called…

These include the Windows Registry, memory compression, etc.

A

System processes

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27
Q

The Windows core system process is called…

This process has a PID of 1

A

NT kernel

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28
Q

Why synchronize time with all of your logging systems?

A

Without time synchronization, events won’t appear in the correct order, which can lead to misinterpretations of the data

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29
Q

NTP stands for

A

Network Time Protocol

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30
Q

Considerations when implementing log levels (2)

A

If you set a logging level that does not capture the data you need, you can miss important information

However, if you set an overly detailed log level, it can provide an overwhelming flood of detail that is not useful to most circumstances

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31
Q

General logging considerations (7)

No need to memorize these; just keep them in mind

A

Logs should contain enough info to be useful, and should be able to be interpreted in useful ways - so they must contain both meaning and context

Logs should be protected so they can’t be changed

Logs should be sent to a central location for storage, analysis, and reporting

Logs should be validated to ensure they contain necessary information

Logs should be checked regularly to ensure all systems that should send logs are doing so

Unnecessary log info should be avoided to conserve space and resources

Log retention policies and practices should be implemented as appropriate

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32
Q

This network architecture is comprised of routers, switches, security devices, cabling, and all other physical network components.

A

On-premises

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33
Q

This security solution controls traffic flow between networks and systems, providing perimeter security

A

Firewall

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34
Q

This security solution detects and alerts for suspicious or malicious activity

A

IDS

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35
Q

This security solution detects, alerts for, AND STOPS suspicious or malicious activity

A

IPS

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36
Q

This security solution controls what information passes through to protected devices

A

Content filtering and caching devices

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37
Q

This security solution controls which devices can connect to the network, and also assess the security state of devices requesting connection

A

NAC

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38
Q

This security solution identifies systems and gathers information about them, including the services they are running, patch level, and other details.

A

Network scanner

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39
Q

This security solution combines multiple other security services (IDS/IPS, firewall, content filtering, etc) into one device.

A

UTM

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40
Q

A type of network architecture where:

The underlying network environment is not accessible to the organization for configuration, testing, or control

Security is the burden of the provider, not the organization purchasing the service

A

Cloud

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41
Q

A type of cloud service where the client is allowed some access to the underlying network infrastructure.

A

IaaS

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42
Q

What steps can a client take when examining the level of security of a cloud provider? (3)

A

Request access to third-party security audit information

Conduct a security assessment themself

Ensure the contract covers any legal or regulatory issues that would impact their outsourced solution

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43
Q

VPC stands for

A

Virtual Private Cloud

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44
Q

A type of cloud service that provides an on-demand semi-isolated environment that exists on a private subnet, often with additional security

A

VPC

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45
Q

A type of network architecture that combines on-premises and cloud infrastructure.

A

Hybrid

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46
Q

Why would organizations have a hybrid infrastructure? Why not either one or the other?

A

A hybrid infrastructure allows an org to migrate from on-premises datacenters while also retaining some on-site services and systems.

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47
Q

A type of network architecture where different security zones are separated from each other

A

Network segmentation

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48
Q

A type of segmentation where different networks are run on separate physical infrastructure.

Often used to enforce air gaps.

A

Physical segmentation

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49
Q

A type of segmentation where virtualization and containerization are leveraged to separate functions.

A

Virtual segmentation

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50
Q

Pros of network segmentation (4)

A

The number of systems exposed to attackers is reduced

Limits the scope of regulatory compliance efforts by placing the systems that need to be regulated in a more easily maintained environment

Increases availability by limiting the scope of an attack

Increases network efficiency by reducing network congestion

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51
Q

What security solution is typically used between network segments with different levels of trust or functional requirements

A

Firewall

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52
Q

A system that resides in a segmented environment and is used to access and manage the devices in the segment where it resides.

A

Jump box

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53
Q

A type of networking that allows you to control networks centrally via APIs, which allows management of network resources and traffic with more intelligence than a traditional physical network infrastructure.

It makes networks programmable. This way, networks are flexible and manageable without making any physical changes.

A

SDN

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54
Q

SDN stands for

A

Software-Defined Networking

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55
Q

What technology does SDN use to make networks programmable?

A

API

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56
Q

Five technologies that enable network segmentation

A

Firewalls
Routers and switches
VLAN tagging
Jump boxes
VPN

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57
Q

How do firewalls enable network segmentation?

A

Used for security between different trust zones or zones with different functional requirements

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58
Q

How do routers and switches enable network segmentation?

A

They perform the actual separation between networks/zones

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59
Q

How does VLAN tagging enable network segmentation?

A

It is a service provided by routers and switches that tells computers from which VLAN a packet came from

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60
Q

How does a jump box enable network segmentation?

A

Used to access systems in high security zones

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61
Q

How do VPNs enable network segmentation?

A

Provides secure remote access to different segments

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62
Q

What is product diversity?

A

Using multiple brands of devices/services

63
Q

Pros (1) and cons (2) of product diversity

A

Pros:
Prevents a single point of failure

Cons:
Increases overhead, maintenance, training, and support costs

May cause security issues

64
Q

Security concerns of SDN (2)

A

Because SDN uses APIs, you must have:

Good API security
Secure code development practices

65
Q

An SDN-driven service model where providers use SDN to provide network services

66
Q

Pros of SD-WAN (2)

A

Allows blended infrastructures that combines a variety of technologies behind the scenes to deliver network connectivity

Provides encryption

67
Q

Types of risks that SD-WAN introduces (3)

A

Risks related to multivendor network paths and control

SDN orchestration platform vulnerabilities

Availability and integrity risks as traffic flows thru multiple paths

68
Q

The security concept that requires each action requested and allowed to be verified and validated before being allowed to occur.

This moves away from the strong perimeter as the primary security - instead, it involves a more deeply layered security model where every individual device, application, and account are part of the security design.

A

Zero trust

69
Q

SASE stands for (2, but they mean the same thing)

A

Secure Access Service Edge

or

Secure Access Secure Edge

70
Q

A network architecture design that leverages SD-WAN and security functionality (like CASBs, zero trust, firewalls as a service, antimalware, etc.)

71
Q

This concept focuses on ensuring security at the endpoint AND network layer, presuming that all organizations are decentralized and that datacenter-focused sec models are less useful in current organizations

72
Q

Rather than having every client pass thru a VPN concentrator/firewall, this software is installed on every client. Each client can connect securely and directly thru that VPN to any cloud service they need, no matter what network or geographic area they reside in.

This consequently helps address the move to SaaS

73
Q

The set of claims about an individual/account holder that are made about one party to another party

74
Q

A service that holds an account is called a…

75
Q

AAA stands for

A

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting

76
Q

The ongoing management of permissions given to users based on attributes is called…

A

Privilege management

77
Q

FWaaS stands for

A

Firewall as a Service

78
Q

A cloud-based firewall that offers NGFW features such as web and URL filtering, deep packet inspection, threat protection, and DNS security

79
Q

A method of authentication that uses two or more different types of authentication factors

80
Q

MFA stands for

A

Multifactor Authentication

81
Q

4 types of authentication factors

A

Knowledge factor
Possession factor
Biometric factor
Location factor

82
Q

How does passwordless authentication work?

A

Typically uses a username with a USB token, authenticator app, or other device.

It usually uses a SINGLE, more secure authentication process

83
Q

Difference between SSO and shared authentication

A

SSO - After authenticating once, you do not need to login to the other sites

Shared authentication
You still need to reauthenticate to each service

84
Q

Two methods of authentication that reduce password fatigue

A

SSO

Shared authentication

85
Q

Pros of SSO and shared authentication

A

Reduces password fatigue

Reduces occurrence of password reuse

Reduces likelihood of credential exposure via 3rd party sites due to password reuse

Cost savings due to fewer password resets and support calls

86
Q

Cons of SSO and shared authentication

A

Easier for attackers who obtain creds to access many services

Easier for attackers to exploit systems after controlling an authenticated user’s browser

87
Q

How do you partially counter an attacker controlling an SSO-authenticated user’s browser?

A

Require reauthentication and MFA for critical systems

88
Q

A type of authentication process that allows a user to use one domain’s identity and attributes to login to another domain. This relies on a trust relationship between the domains.

A

Federation

89
Q

IDP stands for

A

Identity Provider

90
Q

RP stands for

A

Relying Party

91
Q

SP stands for

A

Service provider

92
Q

What is the IDP’s security obligations in federated identity? (3)

A

Keep identities and related data secure

Validate identities and attributes to a level that fits the needs of the federation

Provide incident response coordination and communication between federation members

93
Q

What is the RP/SP’s security obligations in federated identity? (1)

A

Handle data from both the users and the IDP securely

94
Q

What is the consumer’s security obligations in federated identity? (2)

A

Must provide validation for information about identity claims

May be asked to make decisions about attribute release

95
Q

A group of domains with established trust is called

A

Federation

96
Q

4 steps to using federated identity (you don’t need to memorize it, just get the general idea)

A
  1. Consumer requests access from SP
  2. SP redirects consumer to IDP, where their ID is validated
  3. IDP provides token to consumer
  4. SP accepts the token and allows use of service
97
Q

Using an existing federated IDP (like Google) is most appropriate when

A

You are not concerned that the person is actually who they say they are; just that they own the account

98
Q

True/False

Immediate account provisioning after ID validation makes it more difficult to integrate with 3rd-party federated IDPs

A

False

It works best for integrating with 3rd party federated IDPs

99
Q

True/False

Manual account provisioning provides greater security in federated identity, but causes more delays

100
Q

4 major federated identity technologies

A

SMAL

OpenID

OAuth2

AD FS

101
Q

SAML

Authorization capabilities:
Authentication capabilities:
Common uses:

A

Authorization - yes
Authentication - yes

Enterprise authentication and authorization, particularly Linux-based environments

102
Q

OpenID

Authorization capabilities:
Authentication capabilities:
Common uses:

A

Authorization - no
Authentication - yes

Authentication

103
Q

OAuth2

Authorization capabilities:
Authentication capabilities:
Common uses:

A

Authorization - yes
Authentication - partial

API and service authorization

104
Q

AD FS

Authorization capabilities:
Authentication capabilities:
Common uses:

A

Authorization - yes
Authentication - yes

Enterprise authentication and authorization, particularly Windows-based environments

105
Q

SAML potential security risks (3)

A

Message confidentiality

Protocol usage and processing risks

DoS

106
Q

OpenID potential security risks (5)

A

Message confidentiality

Redirect manipulation

Replay attacks

CSRF/XSS

Phishing

107
Q

OAuth2 potential security risks (3)

A

Message confidentiality

Redirect manipulation

Authorization/resource server impersonation

108
Q

AD FS potential security risks (1)

A

Token attacks (replay, capture)

109
Q

An XML-based language used to send authentication and authorization data between IDPs and SPs

110
Q

Which federated identity technology is commonly used for SSO because it allows IDPs to make assertions about principals to SPs so they can make decisions about that user?

111
Q

What 3 statements does SAML allow to be exchanged?

A

Authentication decision statements
Authorization decision statements
Attribute decision statements

112
Q

Which federated identity technology is claims-based?

113
Q

AD FS stands for

A

Active Directory Federation Services

114
Q

Which federated identity technology is used for AA in primarily Linux-based environments?

115
Q

Which federated identity technology is used for AA in primarily Windows-based environments?

116
Q

AD FS authentication process

(you don’t need to memorize; just understand it)

A

User attempts to access an ADFS web app hosted by a remote resource partner web

ADFS agent on partner’s web server checks for ADFS cookie
If present, access is granted
If not, user is sent to ADFS server

Resource partner’s ADFS checks for a SAML token from the account partner
If not present, ADFS performs home realm discovery

Account partner provides a security token with ID info in the form of claims, then sends the user back to the resource partner’s ADFS server

Validation occurs normally; the ADFS server uses its trust policy to map account partner claims to claims that the web app supports

A new SAML token is created by ADFS server that contains the resource partner’s claims
This cookie is stored on the user’s computer

The user is redirected to the web app, where the web app reads the cookie and grants access based on the claims within

117
Q

A method of identifying the federation server associated with the user, and then authenticating the user via that home realm

A

Home realm discovery

118
Q

What is the ADFS snap-in called?

And what does it allow you to do? (5)

A

adfs.msc

It allows you to:
Add resource partners
Add acct partners
Map partner claims
Manage acct stores
Configure web apps that support federation

119
Q

A federated identity technology that allows 3rd party applications to access HTTP-based services

120
Q

Which federated identity technology is used for access delegation?

121
Q

A service that allows service providers to perform actions on other sites on the user’s behalf

A

Access delegation

122
Q

OAuth is usually paired with what authentication technology?

123
Q

What is the role of OpenID when paired with OAuth? How does it do that?

A

It provides authentication

It does this by allowing an authorization server to provide an ID token in addition to the authorization token provided by OAuth

124
Q

PAM stands for

A

Privileged Access Management

125
Q

The set of technology and practices that are used to manage and secure privileged accounts, access, and permissions for systems, users, and apps

126
Q

What 3 things does PAM address?

A

Over-provisioning of privileges
Life cycle management
Privilege creep

127
Q

CASB stands for

A

Cloud Access Security Broker

128
Q

The security policy enforcement point for cloud resources/services

129
Q

What 5 things does a CASB help with?

A

Data security
Antimalware functionality
Service usage
Access visibility
Risk management

130
Q

PKI stands for

A

Public Key Infrastructure

131
Q

Policies, procedures, hardware, software, and people that are responsible for creating, distributing, managing, storing, and revoking digital certificates

132
Q

RA stands for

A

Registration Authority

133
Q

CA stands for

A

Certificate Authority

134
Q

CSR stands for

A

Certificate Signing Request

135
Q

CMS stands for (about certificates)

A

Certificate management System

136
Q

PLI certification request process

A

User sends a CSR to request a certificate from a CA

RA validates the user’s identity

RA approves the request to issue a certificate

CA signs and issues the certificate to the user

137
Q

The 5 major components of the certificate request process

A

CA - Creates, stores, and signs certificates

RA - Verifies the identity of requesters

The directory that stores the keys

CMS - Supports access to and delivery of keys

The cert policy that states the practices and procedures that the PKI uses, and which is used to validate the PKI’s trustworthiness

138
Q

CRL stands for

A

Certificate Revocation List

139
Q

A list of invalid certificates due to expiration, compromise, or cancellation

140
Q

A software platform designed to manage the lifecycle of digital certificates, including their creation, storage, distribution, renewal, and revocation - essentially acting as a centralized repository for securely handling and tracking certificates across an organization or system.

A

CMS
Certificate Management System

141
Q

The process of intercepting and examining the content of SSL/TLS encrypted traffic.

A

SSL Inspection

142
Q

Pros of SSL inspection (2)

A

Allows DLP to recognize sensitive data

Allows IDS/IPS/antimalware to detect malicious data

143
Q

Cons of SSL inspection (4)

A

Requires time and effort to set up

Can cause network congestion

Exposes traffic that would otherwise have been encrypted

Uses more bandwidth

144
Q

2 methods of performing SSL inspection

A

Inserting a monitoring device into the network for offline inspection

Intercepting connections and terminating them at inspection devices, and then passing the connection along to the original target

145
Q

DLP stands for

A

Data Loss Prevention

146
Q

Systems and software that protects sensitive data from leaving the organization or systems that are designed to hold that sensitive data

147
Q

A complete DLP solution has 4 targets:

A

Data in motion
Data at rest
Data in use
Endpoints

148
Q

DLP solutions must combine 2 technologies:

A

Endpoint software

A means of examining encrypted traffic

149
Q

PII stands for

A

Personally Identifiable Information

150
Q

Information that could reasonable identify an individual, either by direct or indirect means

151
Q

Financial/medical records, addresses, phone numbers, SSNs, passport numbers, and driver’s license numbers are all examples of

152
Q

CHD stands for

A

Card Holder Data

153
Q

CHD data is AKA

154
Q

Credit card information, including PAN, card holder name, expiration date, CVV, data in the magnetic strip/chip, and PIN number