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1
Q

Guided Release:

No IP
NAVs Drive on Blue Line
Successful release anywhere inside the Launch Acceptability Region (LAR)
LARs are DMPI fixed
Weapon Footprints move with the jet

A

JDAM targets have associated DMPIs
7000 # = Target
6000 # = DMPIs
2000 # = Created Targets and DMPIs

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2
Q

1 JDAM per DMPI

4 JDAMs per GATS Precision Pattern
A Master targeted DMPI with up to 3 Slaved DMPIs spaced evenly about the master to aid GATS tactics

Up to 16 DMPIs per target

A

DMPI are individually AFMSS planned with coordinates and elevation
DMPI are linked to the target by NEDs (North / East / Down)

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3
Q

SMP performs achievability checks & displays status

Achievable - a weapon can successfully hit the DMPI
Weapon Release

Unachievable – a weapon cannot successfully hit the DMPI
No Weapon Release attempted

Achievability status is displayed for each DMPI

A

SMP stops prosecuting on a target when:

all achievable weapons have been released

target is deselected (Target N-select)

skip-overfly is selected

NOTE: When the aircraft is outside the target’s PMT longer than 2 minutes and
distance is increasing from the target, the target will drop off the ATL.

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4
Q

SMP ranges on as many as 4 JDAM targets simultaneously (ATL)

When one target enters periodic management (PM), it is the next target to be prosecuted

A
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5
Q

Weapons that are fatal faulted are available for _______ .
jettison only
normal launch
launch in a degraded status
launch after a transfer alignment

A

jettison only

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6
Q

Using manual launch procedures (MAN) and pressing the manual release button will release all weapons assigned to the JDAM target currently in PM, provided the target is in SAIR and all associated DMPIs are achievable.
True
False

A

true

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7
Q

Using manual launch procedures (MAN) and pressing the manual release button will release all weapons assigned to the JDAM target currently in PM, provided the target is in SAIR and all associated DMPIs are achievable.
True
False

A

ture

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8
Q

. How many guided targets can the SMP range on at any one time?
2
3
4
8

A

4

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9
Q

JDAMs strike targets, not DMPIs.

a. True
b. False

A

false

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10
Q
  1. Selecting no strike (NSTK) on the TSD TG ZOOM page will _______ .
    delete the DMPI from the target record
    issue a DMPI strike command to the SMP
    issue a DMPI no-strike command to the SMP
    issue a reject command to the SMP
A

issue a DMPI no-strike command to the SMP

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11
Q

. What action is required to issue a strike command for DMPI 9?

A

press stk legend

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12
Q
  1. The ready weapon cue indicates?
    A weapon is ready for release.
    The number of weapons powered.
    The number of weapons to be powered.
    The number of weapons that are in a GO status.
A

The number of weapons to be powered.

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13
Q
  1. On the DEP, with the weapon priority set to GOOD FIRST, the SMP will
    Select good weapons only.
    Use only good weapons against the target.
    Select good weapons based on bay and launcher position.
    Select good weapons before degraded weapons
A

Select good weapons before degraded weapons

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14
Q
  1. With the weapon priority set to GOOD ONLY, the SMP will select good weapons first, and then use degraded weapons.

a. True
b. False

A

false

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15
Q
  1. On the TSD, the PMT indicates _______ .
    the point when the guided store becomes SAIR
    the point the SMP will start ranging on the target
    where periodic pattern management begins
    where aperiodic pattern management begins
A

where periodic pattern management begins

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16
Q

. The GBU-28 attempts to maximize impact velocity rather than flying a set impact angle.
True
False

A

ture

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17
Q
  1. The GBU-28, is different than the JDAM in that the GBU-28 uses the same 4 satellites as the B-2 .
    True
    False
A

true

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18
Q
  1. The GBU-28B/B uses the _______ bomb body .
    MK-84
    UK-1000
    BLU-97
    BLU-113
A

BLU-113

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19
Q
  1. Impact angles of up to 85 degrees may be achieved when delivering the GBU-28 by:
    increasing the impact angle setting on DMPI format 2
    increasing the LAR penetration percentage
    delivering the weapon at higher than planned airspeed
    deliver the weapon in a bank
A

increasing the LAR penetration percentage

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20
Q
  1. The B-2 is capable of carrying _____ GBU-28’s loaded on the ______ stations .
    6, odd
    6, even
    8, odd
    8, even
A

8, even

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21
Q
  1. The GBU-28 has only one GPS antenna.
    True
    False
A

false

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22
Q

. The minimum time between releases when GBU-28’s are released from the same bay is:
10 seconds
5 seconds
4 seconds
2.5 seconds

A

10 seconds

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23
Q
  1. In order to launch GBU-28’s from both RLAs with a minimum interval, the GBU-28’s must be powered-up individually _______ .
    on one RLA before power-up on the other
    near the launch zone
    as close to the target as possible
    No special procedures, normal weapons power-up
A

No special procedures, normal weapons power-up

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24
Q
  1. The GBU-28C/B uses the _______ bomb body .
    BLU-121
    BLU-122
    BLU-97
    BLU-113
A

blu-122

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25
Q
  1. The statistical summation or error associated with GPS-only targeting and the guided stores supports a CEP of
    a. less than 40 ft.
    b. less than 30 ft.
    c. less than 20 ft.
    d. less than 10 ft.
A

a. less than 40 ft.

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26
Q
  1. The ready-weapon cue indicates which of the following?
    a. A weapon is ready for release.
    b. The number of weapons powered.
    c. The number of weapons to be powered.
    d. The number of weapons that are in a green G status.
A

c. The number of weapons to be powered.

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27
Q
  1. On the DEP with the weapon priority set to good first, the SMP will
    a. select good weapons only.
    b. only use good weapons against the target.
    c. select good weapons based on bay and launcher position only.
    d. select good weapons before degraded weapons.
A

d. select good weapons before degraded weapons.

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28
Q
  1. The purpose of the N-select is to
    a. select the next weapon on the rotary launcher for release.
    b. deliver guided stores against the next selected target
    c. skip over the next target in the targeting sequence.
    d. deliver guided stores against the next target in the ATL.
A

b. deliver guided stores against the next selected target

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29
Q
  1. The PWR legend will be only be displayed
    a. only when on the ground when the JET legend is selected.
    b. when any weapons are designated, including different weapon types.
    c. when all designated weapons are in the same powered state.
    d. when the guided store to be powered gets within the prescribed mission plan time.
A

c. when all designated weapons are in the same powered state.

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30
Q
  1. On the weapons display, a TTG of 59:59 indicates that
    a. a selected weapon has entered a launch countdown hold condition.
    b. all powered weapons are in a degraded status.
    c. all DMPIs have been flagged as unachievable.
    d. guided stores have not been powered.
A

c. all DMPIs have been flagged as unachievable.

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31
Q
  1. On the TSD, the PMT indicates a point where the
    a. aircraft enters periodic pattern management.
    b. aircraft enters aperiodic pattern management.
    c. guided-stores target comes into range.
    d. guided stores are to be powered.
A

a. aircraft enters periodic pattern management.

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32
Q
  1. A maneuver advisory displayed on the weapons display means that
    a. the target is in range , but is not safe.
    b. the target is in SAIR, but is not safe.
    c. a DMPI is in range, but is not safe.
    d. the target is safe, but is not in range.
A

a. the target is in range , but is not safe.

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33
Q
  1. The JPF’s primary advantage over other conventional fuzes is its _______________________.
    a. large number of fuze settings.
    b. cockpit programmability
    c. safe separation time
    d. tail fuze mount
A

b. cockpit programmability

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34
Q

The most important factor in the penetrating capability of weapon is its

a. shape
b. heading plane
c. explosive charge
d. terminal velocity at impact

A

d. terminal velocity at impact

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35
Q
  1. Both the GBU-28 and the GBU-31 use one GPS antenna for GPS reception.
    a. True
    b. False
A

false

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36
Q

The GBU-28B/B power up sequence determines the order of launch off the RLAs.

a. True
b. False

A

false

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37
Q

To manually launch 4 GBU-28s against 1 target that is in SAIR,

a. no action is needed
b. the crew should set the manual auto switch to auto
c. the crew should press the manual release button once
d. the crew should press the manual release button 4 times

A

c. the crew should press the manual release button once

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38
Q

. The SMP keeps track of the number of weapons released on the target create display.

a. True
b. False

A

ture

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39
Q

The PWR legend is displayed

a. only when on the ground.
b. when the JET legend is selected.
c. when any weapons are designated, including different weapon types.
d. when all designated weapons are in the same powered state.

A

d. when all designated weapons are in the same powered state.

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40
Q
  1. The most important factor in the penetrating capability of weapon is its __________________.
    a. shape
    b. heading plane
    c. explosive charge
    d. terminal velocity at impact
A

d. terminal velocity at impact

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41
Q

What navigational system (NSS) mode must be selected to satisfy the display requirements for a GATS legend on the top-level radar page?
Stellar-GPS-Inertial (SGI) Operation
Stellar-Doppler-Inertial (SDI) Operation
Stellar-Inertial (SI) Operation
Inertial (I) Operation

A

Stellar-GPS-Inertial (SGI) Operation

42
Q
  1. What is the total number of DMPIs available on any GAT sequence?
    4
    10
    16
    20
43
Q
  1. Which GATS radar mode automatically occurs after a second look/subsequent look?
    Terminate
    Designate
    First Look
    Batch
44
Q
  1. To create a DMPI on the GAT radar display, the DMPI legend must:
    have a valid DMPI number
    have a valid target number
    be in the NULL position
    be in the scroll mode
A

be in the NULL position

45
Q
  1. GATS pattern recognition processing allows the RDP to ______ .
    select the master DMPI for radar processing.
    display designated DMPIs on the radar map.
    automatically designate all DMPIs on the radar map.

automatically designate all remaining DMPIs on the radar image after two designations

A

automatically designate all remaining DMPIs on the radar image after two designations

46
Q
  1. If more than one MDU is required for GATS radar images, the first image must be the _______ .
    offset aim point
    map center (8xxx)
    JDAM target (7xxx)
    precision pattern
A

JDAM target (7xxx)

47
Q
  1. To what does the CEP map matching window data xxxx/Cyyy/Mzzz refer?
    DMPI ID, CEP and map achievability level
    Aimpoint ID, CEP and map matching confidence
    DMPI ID, CEP and map matching confidence
    Target ID, CEP and map matching confidence
A

DMPI ID, CEP and map matching confidence

48
Q
  1. Force correlation (FCOR) commands the radar to perform _______ .

map correlation based on the operator selected pixel, rather than the radar selected pixel
map correlation based on the map matching confidence level
pixel correlation on all DMPIs within the map image

map correlation based on radar map matched selection, rather than the pilot-selected DMPI

A

map correlation based on the operator selected pixel, rather than the radar selected pixel

49
Q
  1. Selecting no strike (NSTK) on the GATS radar image will _______ .
    delete the DMPI from the target record
    issue a DMPI strike command to the SMP
    issue a DMPI no-strike command to the SMP
    issue a reject command to the SMP
A

issue a DMPI no-strike command to the SMP

50
Q
  1. On the GATS radar image, the achievability status indicates T12S12A12, and you decide to no-strike DMPI 6010. What will the achievability status indicate on the radar and TSD target display?
    T11S09A09
    T09S09A09
    T12S11A11
    T12S11A08
51
Q
  1. On the GATS radar image, the achievability status indicates T12S10A09 (DMPI 6011 is flagged as unachievable), and you decide to no-strike DMPI 6012P3. What will the achievability status indicate on the radar and TSD target display?
    T11S09A08
    T12S08A08
    T12S07A06
    T12S09A08
52
Q
  1. For an auto GATS sequence, the execute legend must be selected before
    a. the first-look destination point.
    b. sequencing the second-look point.
    c. the satellite select and freeze destination point.
    d. GATS batch.
A

a. the first-look destination point.

53
Q
  1. The DMPI status message TxxSyyAzz refers to the
    a. target number, total strike DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
    b. total number of strike targets, total strike DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
    c. total number of DMPIs, total strike DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
    d. total number of DMPIs, total selectable DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.
A

c. total number of DMPIs, total strike DMPIs, and total achievable DMPIs.

54
Q
  1. GATS pattern recognition processing allows the SMP to
    a. select the master DMPI for radar processing
    b. display designated DMPIs on the radar map.
    c. automatically designate all DMPIs on the radar map.
    d. automatically designate all remaining DMPIs on the radar image after two designations are complete.
A

d. automatically designate all remaining DMPIs on the radar image after two designations are complete.

55
Q
  1. The aircraft must have a _________ heading change between first-look SAR images and second-look SAR images to maintain proper geometry to support acceptable CEP requirements.
    a. 90°
    b. 45°
    c. 30°
    d. 25°
56
Q
  1. On the TSD target edit display, a parameter that can be changed is the:
    a. number of weapons.
    b. impact angle.
    c. PMT.
    d. weapon type.
57
Q
  1. The CEP map matching window data xxxx/Cyyy/Mzzz refers to the
    a. DMPI ID, CEP, and map achievability level.
    b. aim point ID, CEP, and map matching confidence.
    c. DMPI ID, CEP, and map matching confidence.
    d. target ID, CEP, and map matching confidence.
A

c. DMPI ID, CEP, and map matching confidence.

58
Q
  1. Force correlation (FCOR) commands the radar to perform a
    a. map correlation based on the crewmember-selected pixel, rather than the radar selected pixel.
    b. map correlation based on the map matching confidence level.
    c. pixel correlation on all DMPIs within the map image.
    d. map correlation based on DMPI selection, rather than radar selected DMPI.
A

a. map correlation based on the crewmember-selected pixel, rather than the radar selected pixel.

59
Q
  1. How many GATS radar modes are used in a GATS sequence?
    a. 7
    b. 5
    c. 3
    d. 2
60
Q
  1. All GATS mode-fail cues will be displayed/located in the background-status window position.
    a. True
    b. False
61
Q
  1. A GATS automatic sequence provides the crew with the capability to refresh either a first-look or subsequent-look radar image by selecting the
    a. PWR legend and the AUTO legend.
    b. page down and EXC legend.
    c. AUTO legend and the EXC legend.
    d. map orientation legend and the EXC legend.
A

c. AUTO legend and the EXC legend.

62
Q
  1. BFRINV is an advisory only, and does not prevent a subsequent radar image.
    a. True
    b. False
63
Q
  1. Which GATS radar mode automatically occurs after a second-look/subsequent mode?
    a. Terminate
    b. Designate
    c. First-look
    d. Batch
64
Q
  1. When SAR images are first displayed on the MDU, the OAP/TGT action point number/ID is removed from the display.
    a. True
    b. False
65
Q
  1. To which GATS display is the FCOR legend added?
    a. The subsequent radar display after batch radar mode
    b. The first-look display before AIMP designation
    c. The first-look display after the AIMP designation
    d. When the cursor is assigned to the MDU.
A

a. The subsequent radar display after batch radar mode

66
Q
  1. Which of the following actions may not terminate a GATS automatic sequence?
    a. Crew-commanded IBIT
    b. Crew-selected direct-to
    c. Crew-commanded manual sequence
    d. Crew-commanded side switch
A

c. Crew-commanded manual sequence

67
Q
  1. Which event does not cause termination of an automatic GAT sequence?
    a. Radar processor failure
    b. INS processor failure
    c. Radar side switch due to a failure
    d. MAGR failure due to loss of GPS
A

NS processor failure

68
Q
  1. In a manual GATS sequence, the crew initiates a second-look/subsequent radar map when they
    a. designate one or more DMPIs and select the EXC legend.
    b. select an AIMP, position the cursor, and select the EXC legend.
    c. press the EXC legend twice.
    d. no-strike a DMPI and selects the EXC legend.
A

a. designate one or more DMPIs and select the EXC legend.

69
Q

GBU-31v3 (BLU109)

GBU-31v1 (MK84)

A

Aircrew only indications of LAR are:
SAIR
Corridor

70
Q

Pattern Management

A

Refers to the targeting function of the SMOFP

Provides release of up to 16 JDAMs

Minimizes time weapons bay doors are open

Calculates DMPI Achievability

PM triggered when crossing

Pattern Management Threshold (PMT)

71
Q

Pattern Managment Algoerithim

INPUTS
Aircraft data (altitude, position, mach number, gnd track)
DMPI (mission) data
(elevation, lat/long, impact angle, heading plane)

A

OUTPUTS:

DAM achievability status:
(ACH, CMPLT)
Achievability advisories:
(DEGD, XRNG EXD, MAX DR EXD, CONFLT REL,
REL LATE, REL SOON, INSUF WPNS, TOO FAST, TOO SLOW, TOO HIGH, TOO LOW, IMPACT/HEAD, NO WPN DATA)
Launch corridor (white line)
Release sequence (green line)
SAIR
TTG

72
Q

Pattern Management

A JDAM Pattern target is a target complex composed of DMPIs

A

JDAM targets have associated DMPIs
7000 # = Target
6000 # = DMPIs
2000 # = Created Targets and DMPIs

1 JDAM per DMPI

4 JDAMs per GATS Precision Pattern
A Master targeted DMPI with up to 3 Slaved DMPIs spaced evenly about the master to aid GATS tactics

Up to 16 DMPIs per target

73
Q

DMPI are individually AFMSS planned with coordinates and elevation
DMPI are linked to the target by NEDs (North / East / Down)

74
Q

Aperiodic:

Outside Pattern Management Threshold (PMT)
SMOFP uses mission planned data
PM Zone Vector – present (for achievability calculations in aperiodic)
Runs through data once on expansion
Runs again if triggered by DMPI / Target Edit, etc
Computes DMPI achievability

A

Periodic

Inside PMT
Real-Time data
½ HZ processing
PM zone vector disappears
Only one target at a time
Computes DMPI achievability

75
Q

SMP ranges on as many as 4 JDAM targets simultaneously (ATL)

When one target enters periodic management (PM), it is the next target to be prosecuted

A

When inside the PMT a white P will appear and SAIR checks are made
If it passes SAIR for AT LEAST one DMPI in the target, the target ID will turn GREEN and say SAIR on top and countdown will start
ONLY ONE Target can be in SAIR at a time since only one target can be in Periodic Management at one time (regardless of how many targets are in PM Threshold rings)

76
Q

At the RLA, the SMPs Know:
Present or Away
1760 Connection ID

A

Auto-Door Operation
Open at 4 TTG (10 TTG for Unguided)
Close ½ second after release (2 sec after BRA)

Manual Weapon Release
Push manual release when in SAIR (TTG = 0 recommended)
Doors will auto open for guided weapons (Crew must manually open prior to 7TTG for all unguided weapons)
Strike weapons are released
Doors auto close

77
Q

Take COMD of the WPNS page

Select LWIU and RWIU
WIUs turn white and should box within 10 seconds

Power up for the WIUs takes 70 seconds

A

“A” (white) indicates the weapon is aligning
May take 6-7 minutes

Ready WPN cues (PWR) and NO WPN appear 30 minutes prior to first target

78
Q

A” appears indicating Alignment complete
Maybe only momentary if on the target branch

PWR (Ready Weapon) cue displayed in yellow
3JD4 = # of WPNs Required
Target ID (7000) will replace 3JD4 when cursor is placed over the cue
If no weapon is assigned to a target, L0 appears for weapon position

NO WPN & Ready Weapon cues remain until target assignment

A

Normally, weapons are “G” when alignment and assignment have completed

If weapons are aligned and assigned but lack Ionospheric data, they show “D”
The aircraft has not yet sequenced an Ionospheric Save (IOS) destination
Once aircraft sequences an IOS, weapons will show “G”

NO WPN & Ready Weapon power cues are replaced by target IDs when weapons are assigned

79
Q

G Aligned and Assigned

ION Save destination has been sequenced

Target IDs present

A

To get SAIR you must meet the following conditions:

B-2 must be inside PMT for that target

Target must be at the top of the ATL

First DMPI for that target is in LAR

Aircraft safe requirements are met
At least 200 KCAS (DMPI will still be ACH, but not SAIR)
Within weapon mach limits
RLA + 10° Bank
SBRA + 5° Bank

80
Q

target is in range, but not safe, SAIR is removed and one of following maneuvers is advised
FASTER / SLOWER
ROLLOUT
CLIMB/DIVE

A

If all DMPIs are unachievable: TTG = 59:59

81
Q

JDAM target expanded data

Must be in “True”

ZOOM option

EDT option

Action points

A

If in PM for a target (7001) and you expand on a subsequent target (7000)
Subsequent target (7000) turns red, indicating that 7000 is not currently the target at the top of the ATL

82
Q

n this case there are 16 DMPIs associated with the target:
DMPIs 1 - 8 are achievable (white)

DMPI 9 is not achievable (yellow)

DMPI 10 is no strike (blue)

DMPI 11 is a Precision Pattern (DMPI 12 is slaved to 11 & is hidden)

DMPI 15 is complete (green)

DMPI 16 is complete but degraded (orange)

83
Q

GBU-28B/B

5000lbs

BLU-113 Bomb Body

A

GBU-28C/B

5000lbs

BLU-122/B Bomb Body

84
Q

Weapon will seek an impact velocity - GBU 28

A

LAR % Tables allow Mission Planners to set a LAR % that yields the desired Impact Angle (IA)

85
Q

Precision Pattern: 1 - 4 DMPIs (Up to 3 slaved to one master)

Pattern Recognition: Designate on 2 DMPIs and RDPs auto designate remaining DMPIs on a map

A

All Impact Angle / Heading Plane changes must be accomplished prior to SSF or after all GAT2 designations are complete

86
Q

Legend is displayed only if
NSS Is In SGI, GDR, or GI (GPS-aided modes)
GMT source select equals GPS

A

BFRINV
Indicates no DMPI designated
Removed after designation
Reappears if
All designated DMPIs are set to No-Strike
DMPI migration (DMPI is located close to map edge and has shifted to another GATS MDU after 1st look)

87
Q

Displayed As T# S# A#

T# = total number of DMPIs in target, not just on this Map

S# = number of strike DMPIs

A# = number of achievable DMPIs (decreases if no-strike)

A

DMPI ID (13) color coded
Green if CEP 20 ft
White if CEP > 20 ft
Yellow if CEP > 60 ft

88
Q

Back Designate FCOR (green)

Back designate performs a reverse Batch

Procedures:
Toggle FCOR off (to green FCOR)
Reposition Cursor
Designate

After Designation – use label PRE to view back designated GAT1 image
Used to correct operator/pilot error from GAT1 during GAT2

A

Force Correlation FCOR (white)

Commands radar to perform map correlation based on operator-selected pixel, NOT the radar-selected pixel

Overrides pixel contrast

Required If map matching values are unacceptable (<30 or when batch solution is > 1 pixel off)

What drives a FCOR?
To correct a Batch (computer) or Map Matching error

Can use GATS RECALL (PRE) to review GAT designations before deciding to FCOR or Back Designate

Toggle On / Off (FCOR/FCOR)
On – white (by default) FCOR
Off – green (Back Designate) FCOR

TO Force Correlate, reposition cursor with FCOR on

Redesignate

In the Aircraft, Map matching will indicate zeros (000)
Indicates pilot has overridden map matching
WST does not simulate this

89
Q

Terminate GAT

A

Manually
GAT, GAT1 or GAT2 (lower right will show GATT (cyan) upon termination)
Cancel ALL (top-level radar display)
Radar side switch (SSW on top level radar display)
IBIT
Crew-selected Direct To, TSD re-plan, or DEP re-plan

Automatically
FMCP at end of 25-min
Longer than 15 b/w SSF and RDR FIRST
radar side switch
Failed radar processor
Failed GPS

90
Q

3 map centers

A

16 dmpis GAT

91
Q

optimum look is 45 degrees

A

refresh 1st look, hit auto and then EXEC, then it will switch back to Auto

92
Q

after SFF can’t edit until after 2nd look

A

unachievable measn can’t calculate LAR for one or more parameters

93
Q

GBU-28

A

looks for maximum velocity at impact

uses 4 sattelites, JDAMS use 12

94
Q

Precision Pattern

1 master and 3 slaved DMPis

A

Ranging in:

Unguided just 1

Guided 4

95
Q

Can you manually create autogat…no

Man target takes longer because it is doing ion save

A

Patern recognition…select 2 and it autopopulates

AFMSS or No-strick prior to SSf is only way to turn it off

96
Q

5/16 on MDU…looking at 5th one

5/16 on DEP means 5 total out of 16 spots

A

no strike: TG, ZOOM, NSTRK and radar…dep

97
Q

Red Target-expanded on wrong target

A

SAIR…safe and in range

only 1 dmpi activates sair

overlapping LARs gives corridor

can’t delete dmpi but you can no-strike

98
Q

can delete target… get it back from disk

A

list point

5001/c052/m86

dmpi…cmp…map matching

99
Q

GAT

A

3 map auto

1 map manual

IQT (6 decks)

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