Cycle 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Q: What is a gene?

A

A: A DNA sequence that is transcribed into RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Q: Name the three major classes of genes and their proportions in the total RNA pool.

A

mRNA (5%): Carries instructions to make protein.
tRNA (10%): Functional as RNA molecules.
rRNA (85%): Functional as RNA, highly abundant due to ribosome production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q: What is the role of the promoter in a gene?

A

A: The promoter regulates whether a gene is turned on or off. It is a piece of DNA that is not transcribed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q: What is the transcription unit?

A

A: The part of the gene that gets transcribed into RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q: Why is RNA thought to have evolved before DNA and proteins?

A

A: RNA carries information like DNA and can acquire 3D shapes and catalytic properties like proteins (ribozymes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q: Describe the central dogma of molecular biology.

A

A: DNA → RNA → Protein. Information flows from DNA to RNA through transcription, and from RNA to protein through translation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q: What are the three types of gene expression?

A

Constitutive: Always active.
Induced: Activated under specific conditions.
Repressed: Activity is decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q: What is the role of tRNA and rRNA compared to mRNA?

A

tRNA and rRNA: Functional as RNA molecules, directly involved in protein synthesis.
mRNA: Carries genetic information to make proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q: Why does RNA degrade more easily than DNA?

A

A: RNA has an OH group in its sugar backbone, making it more unstable and prone to enzymatic degradation by ribonucleases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q: Why is it beneficial for mRNA to degrade quickly?

A

A: To prevent the accumulation of faulty or unnecessary transcripts, ensuring precise temporal regulation of gene expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Q: What is the function of heat shock proteins (HSPs)?

A

A: HSPs act as molecular chaperones, helping other proteins remain functional at high temperatures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q: How do you check if RNA is degraded in the lab?

A

A: Run the sample on a gel; degraded RNA will show no white bands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Q: What are “omics,” and what do they study?

A

Omics characterizes groups of molecules:

Genomics: DNA.
Transcriptomics: mRNA.
Proteomics: Proteins.
Metabolomics: Metabolic products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Q: Why are proteomics and metabolomics more informative than genomics and transcriptomics?

A

A: They reveal functional differences by analyzing protein profiles and metabolic activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Q: What was observed in the Chlamydomonas heat shock experiment?

A

Hsp1 Transcript: Increased during extreme heat (induced).
Actin Protein: Constant levels (constitutive expression).
HSP1 Protein: Increased with time, correlating with transcript levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Q: What is the difference between transcript abundance and protein abundance?

A

Transcript abundance: Depends on transcription rates and mRNA decay.
Protein abundance: Depends on translation rates and protein degradation.

11
Q

Q1: What is the TB12 phenotype in mice?

A

A: Complete blindness.

12
Q

Q2: Why is retinal not considered a gene product?

A

A: Retinal is a pigment produced via a biosynthetic pathway, not a protein coded by genes.

12
Q

Q3: What is the relationship between retinal and opsin?

A

A: Retinal (a cofactor) binds to opsin (apoprotein) post-translation to form a functional complex.

13
Q

Q4: Define apoprotein.

A

A: A protein without its cofactor.

13
Q

Q5: What are cofactors, and give an example?

A

A: Molecules that bind to proteins to enable their function; example: copper.

14
Q

Q6: What is forward genetics?

A

A: Linking phenotype to genotype to identify the gene(s) responsible for a phenotype.

14
Q

Q7: What is reverse genetics?

A

A: Using genotype to phenotype by knocking out a gene to determine its function.

14
Q

Q8: What are the steps of forward genetics?

A

Generate a mutagenized population of cells.
Screen the mutant population for a phenotype.
Identify the mutated gene.
Prove the mutated gene causes the phenotype (genetic complementation).

14
Q9: How is a mutagenized population created in forward genetics?
A: By introducing mutations randomly using methods like insertional mutagenesis, chemicals, or irradiation.
14
Q10: What is insertional mutagenesis?
A: Randomly inserting a mutagen (e.g., antibiotic resistance gene) into the genome, often using electroporation.
14
Q11: How are mutants screened for phenotypes in forward genetics?
A: By developing a screen that isolates mutants with a specific trait, such as a defective flagella phenotype.
14
Q12: What is inverse PCR used for in forward genetics?
A: To amplify and sequence the DNA flanking the inserted mutagen to identify the disrupted gene.
15
Q13: What is genetic complementation?
A: Proving that the mutation in the gene of interest is responsible for the observed phenotype by rescuing the mutant.
15
Q14: Why is retinal biosynthesis important for TB12 mice?
A: Genetic defects in the enzymes of the biosynthetic pathway can prevent retinal production, contributing to blindness.
15
Q15: What does post-translational regulation refer to?
A: The modification or interaction of proteins after translation, such as the binding of retinal to opsin.