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COT > CWT 2 Content > Flashcards

CWT 2 Content Flashcards

1
Q

Differentiate between articles 2, 7, 15, and 31 of the UCMJ. What is covered under each article?

A

Article 2: Outlines people subject to UCMJ

Article 7: Apprehension

Article 15: Authorization given to commander to exercise non-judicial punishment

Article 31: Making a statment

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2
Q

State the Department of Defense (DOD) policy on substance abuse

A

It is DOD policy to prevent and eliminate drug and alcohol abuse and dependence from the DOD.

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3
Q

State the steps a supervisor should take when a subordinate’s duty performance reveals a possible substance abuse problem

A

Counseling -> referral -> reprimand -> discharge -> personal actions (line of duty [LOD] determination-> security clearance -.> personnel reliability program [PRP] -> review of duty assignment)

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4
Q

State the 5 methods for identifying substance abusers

A
  1. Arrest, Apprehension, or Investigation
  2. Incident to Medical Care
  3. Commander Referral
  4. Drug Testing (inspection under military rule, probable cause search and seizure, command-directed examination, medical purposes)
  5. Self-Identification
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5
Q

Identify how the results of the 4 methods of urinalysis testing may or may not be used

A
  1. Almost perfect: screen for people not meeting standards
  2. Deterence program: preventative
  3. Random, unpredictable, and all-inclusive
  4. It takes all of us: Nobody is exempt, required participation
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6
Q

Describe the Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) program

A

Treatment team meeting (non-clinical/clinical services), program encouragement, transitional counseling, completing the program, failing the program, personal consideration for the member.

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7
Q

Define UPR

A

Any personal relationship, whether pursued on or off-duty, that detracts from the authority of superiors or result in, or reasonably create the appearance of, favoritism, misuse of office or position, or the abandonment of organizational goals for personal interests.

In short: Relationship that detracts from mission

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8
Q

Define fraternization

A

Personal relationship b/t officer and enlisted member which violates the customary bounds of acceptable behavior in the AF and prejudices good order and discipline, discredits the armed services, or operates to the personal disgrace or dishonor of the officer involved.

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9
Q

State the Air Force policy on professional relationships, UPRs and fraternization (# and description)

A

AFI 36-2909: Personal Relationships between Air Force members become matters of official concern when they adversely affect morale, discipline, respect for authority, unit cohesion, or mission accomplishment.

In short: Relationships that negatively affect the mission

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10
Q

List the elements of fraternization (5)

A
  1. Accused was a commissioned or warrant officer.
  2. Accused fraternized w/ enlisted members on terms of military equality.
  3. Accused knew the person to be an enlisted member.
  4. Accused violated the customs of the service that officers shall not fraternize with enlisted members on terms of military equality.
  5. The conduct was prejudicial to good order and discipline of the armed forces or of a nature to bring discredit upon the armed forces.
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11
Q

Explain the effects of UPRs on the unit

A

UPRs can have a negative effect on the mission by decreasing morale, discipline, respect for authority, unit cohesion.

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12
Q

State your responsibilities as a professional military officer for reporting a violation of the Law of Armed Conflict.

A

responsible for complying as well as ensuring your subordinates comply. Report all violations to your i_mmediate commander_- lowest ranking individual with command responsibilities. May be different from your supervisor. If the commander is apparently involved in the incident, then the report should be made to the next higher person with command authority. The commander will then consult the Staff Judge Advocate and the proper investigative agency to deal with the violation.

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13
Q

Name the 2 series of treaties that have the greatest influence on the Law of Armed Conflict

A

The Hague Conventions: to stay in force five years, and to forbid the use of poison gas, expanding (or dumdum) bullets, and bombardment from the air by balloons or by other means

The Geneva Conventions: Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field, Treatment of Prisoners of War, Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War

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14
Q

List the people who are entitled to Prisoner of War status under the Law of Armed Conflict

A

Members of a nation’s military force are entitled to POW status

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15
Q

State when aircraft can attack targets located in an area densely populated with civilians

A

So long as the overall military gains from the attack outweigh the risks posed to the civilian population

Military gains > civilian pop

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16
Q

Identify the types of economic sanctions available to enforce the laws of war

A

Embargoes, boycotts, blockades, and seizure of property belonging to the offending state

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17
Q

Explain Kelley’s Two-Dimensional Model of Follower Behavior

A
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18
Q

Identify the characteristics of the effective follower

A

Exemplify AF Core Values
Decision Making
Communication Skills
Commitment
Problem Solving
Organizational Understanding
Flexibility
Competence
Courage
Enthusiasm

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19
Q

What are the 5 types of followers according to Kelley’s 2-D model?

A

Sheep, Yes People, Survivors, Alienating Followers, Effective followers

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20
Q

State the purpose of the ACA (Airman Comprehensive Assessment)

A

Formal comm b/t a rater and ratee to communicate:

  • Responsibility, Accountability, Air Force culture, An Airman’s critical role in support of the mission

Individual readiness

Performance feedback on expectations

Create and sustains a culture of belonging.

Also intended to provide Airmen an opportunity to discuss their goals with schedule and documented meeting (vs. day-to-day informal feedback)

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21
Q

Identify which Airmen are required to receive an ACA and State when ACA sessions are held for each rank (4)

A
  • Initial: Within 60 days of being assigned a rater (enlisted)
  • Midterm: Midway b/t time supervision began and proj performance report (Airmen Basic - SMSgt and 2d Lt - Lt Col)
  • End-of-reporting: close out of performance report (AB - TSgt and 2d Lt - Capt)
  • Ratee Requested/Rater Directed
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22
Q

Describe the sources of rater errors

A
  • Pitfalls include personal bias, stereotyping, loss of emotional control, inflexible methods, reluctance to provide feedback, and inadequate planning.
  • Ex. rating someone outstanding when they aren’t or drawing conclusions based on limited observations. Mid range is where several should be.
    • Usually the strongest impression
      • Well-liked people get favorable ratings
      • Disliked people get unfavorable ratings
    • General impression of ratee as a person (not his/her performance)
      • Stereotypes
      • Overlook improvement on past performance
      • Judged on most recent experiences rather than performance during the entire period​​
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23
Q

Identify the ways to avoid rater errors (5)

A

Right attitude; remember goal is to develop individual

Learn and practice good observation skills

Gather and report supporting info

Discriminate b/t relevant and irrelevant info

Do selective work sampling when direct observation is infrequent

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24
Q

State the purpose of Enlisted Performance Reports (EPR)

A

Provides a reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance

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25
Q

who is required to receive an EPR?

A

All enlisted members SrA - CMSgt

A1C and below if they have 20 months or more of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS)

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26
Q

When is an EPR required?

A

Annually (close out date varies depends on rank)

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27
Q

Describe the promotion methods for enlisted personnel

A

E2-4: Fully qualified (time & grade)

E5-6: STEP “Stripes for Exceptional Performers”/ WAPS “Weighted Airmen Promotion System”

E7-9: Whole person concept

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28
Q

State an officer’s responsibilities to subordinates in the career progression system

A

Career Development Counseling

Seek out additional duties

Provide time for self-development

Correct deficiencies

Recognize outstanding contributions and achievements

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29
Q

Describe the three steps of the evaluation process (officers)

A

Airman Comprehensive Assessment (ACA)

Officer Performance Report (OPR)

Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF)

30
Q

Describe the different types of performance reports and uses for each

A

Education/Training Report: When the education/training lasts 8 weeks or more (there are exceptions in AFI 36-2406), an AF Form 475, Education/Training Report, is used to document the time you attended the course, and how well you performed in that course.

Officer Performance Report: The purpose of the OPR is to record an officer’s performance over a specific period. The OPR provides a brief description of the unit mission, your job description, and a short narrative to document your most significant achievements and the impact of these accomplishments on the unit mission. In addition, several performance factors will be rated on a two-block scale: “Meets Standards” or “Does Not Meet Standards.”

Letter of Recommendation: The LOE (AF Form 77, Letter of Evaluation) cover periods of your performance too short to require an OPR (Change in Reporting Official (CRO) with less than 120 days supervision), or periods of time when you’re under the supervision of someone other than your designated rater.

31
Q

Identify inappropriate comments for officer performance reports

A
  • Promotion board uses these reports to determine an individual’s potential based on his/her past performance.
  • Performance reports assist assignment personnel at the AFPC in choosing the right person for the right job. Performance reports provide information on your breadth of experience, training, level of responsibilities, and prior assignments.
  • Investigations. When investigators review your record, they usually look at your performance reports. Investigators may use performance reports fordetermining an individual’s security level and for criminal investigations.
  • Helping commanders make decisions when determining disciplinary action. For example, if a person commits a minor offense and has an outstanding personnel record, as substantiated by his/her performance reports,the deciding official may take outstanding past performance into consideration when determining a method of corrective action.
32
Q

Identify the five rules of supervision

A
  1. Get involved (know ur ppl/sense of mission)
  2. Open channels of communication
  3. Give Your People a Chance to Develop
  4. Establish Standards and Stick to Them
  5. Provide Feedback
33
Q

Identify tasks that shouldn’t be delegated

A

Conceptual planning, Morale probs, Staff probs, Reviewing performance reports, Reviewing performance reports, Reviewing performance reports, Pet projects

34
Q

Identify common mistakes made by supervisors while delegating (4)

A

Unclear delegation

Supervise too closely

Rushed delegation

Improper selection of subordinates

35
Q

Explain the four steps in delegation

A
  1. Define task
  2. Assign task
  3. Grant Authority
  4. Follow-up
36
Q

Explain the steps of the Intervention Process Model (4)

A

Make decision to intervene.

Use supportive and assertive interaction skills.

Involve person w/ prob in developing solution-focus on performance NOT personality.

Put issue in perspective-create a collaborative environment and separate discipline from punishment

37
Q

Identify ways to involve the counselee in developing solutions to problems

A

Describe the situation.

Describe rather than prescribe.

Seek solution–not justification.

  • Facilitate participation.
  • Use open questioning techniques.
  • Allow time for resistance.
  • Interact on problem identification.
  • Eliminate irrelevant issues.
  • Interact on possible solutions.
  • Encourage follower identification of alternatives.
  • Agree on solution and follow-up action.
  • Include leader as well as follower action if relevant.
  • Put follow-up dates on calendar.
38
Q

Differentiate b/t aggressive, assertive, and passive communication

A

Assertive: Focus on behavior that needs change

Aggressive: Question of focus, ego-threatening tactics

Passive: Lack of criticism

39
Q

What are the 3 components of an effective corrective statement?

A

Action

Importance

Resolution

40
Q

Describe the traits of a good counselor

A

Sincerity, Integrity, and Good listener

41
Q

Identify the three counseling approaches (describe)

A
  1. •Directive
    • Counselor-centered, Dx/tx w/ counselor, Trad approach, Not effective w/ emotions/strong attitudes
  2. Nondirective
    • Free counselee from hindrances to norm growth, feelings about situation paramount, counselor’s participation is minimal
  3. Eclectic
    • Combination of directive & nondirective, Cooperation/responsibility w/ both parties, Flexible
42
Q

Explain the aspects of the three counseling skills: watching and listening, responding, and guiding

A

Watch and listen: Eye contact, Posture, Head nods, Facial expressions

Responding: ?ing, Summarizing, Interpreting, Informing, Confronting

Guiding: Adds structure & organization, Helps subordinate to reach own solution

43
Q

Identify the “ultimate” and “direct” sources of an officer’s authority

A

Direct: President of US

Ultimate: Constitution (Article 2: Pres is Comm in Chief)

44
Q

Identify the types of officer authority (2)

A

Legal and Moral

45
Q

Explain the guidelines that must be met for an order to be enforceable (4)

A
  1. w/in the authority of the issuing officer
  2. related to military duty, morale, or discipline
  3. clear/unequivocal
  4. received/understood
46
Q

Identify an officer’s responsiblity (most to least) (8)

A
  1. Mission
  2. Higher HQ
  3. Collateral Units
  4. Unit Welfare
  5. Individuals
  6. Youself
  7. Act Decisively
  8. Community
47
Q

Define Risk Management

A

Decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action (COA) for any given situation

48
Q

State the goals of Risk Management

A

Enhance mission effectiveness - preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

Create an AF cultural mindset of trained and motivated to manage risk

Integrate RM into mission and activity planning processes

ID opportunities to increase AF warfighting effectiveness in all environments, and ensure success at minimal cost of resources.

49
Q

Name the four Risk Management principles

A
  1. Accept no unnecessary risk
  2. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
  3. Integrate RM into ops, activities and planning at all levels
  4. Apply process cyclically and continuously
50
Q

Identify the steps of the Risk Management Process (5)

A
  1. Identify the Hazards
  2. Assess the Hazards
  3. Develop Controls & Make Decisions
  4. Implement Controls
  5. Supervise & Evaluate
51
Q

State the different groups that make up the Total Force

A
  • Regular Air Force
  • Air National Guard
  • Air Force Reserves
  • Air Force Civilians
  • Contractor Staff / Host-nation Support
  • Civil Air Patrol
52
Q

Define each Reserve category

A

Ready Reserve – Made up of 3 sub-groups

  • Selected Reserve
    • Units and individuals designated as essential to wartime missions and prepared for active duty with 72hr notice
    • Have priority for training, equipment, and personnel
    • Individual Mobilization Augmentees (IMAs)
    • Air Force Reserve category only
    • Not attached to an organized Reserve unit
    • Assigned to active duty components
  • Individual Ready Reserve
    • Pool of pre-trained individuals who:
      • Served in Active units or Selected Reserve
      • Eligible for involuntary service
      • Have military service obligation (MSO) remaining
  • Inactive National Guard
    • Do not train
    • Are not attached to active units

Standby Reserve

  • Reservist who maintain their military affiliation in one of two statuses and have key federal or state jobs that are crucial to national security (also defense industry)
  • Active status: Voluntarily participate in training for retirement but receive no pay. Eligible for promotion.
  • Inactive status: Not authorized to participate in for retirement points and cannot be promoted. Often hardship or health issues but maintain military status because of skills the military may need in the future.
  • They are subject recall only under full mobilization.

Retired Reserve

  • Personnel who receive retired pay (AD/Reserve) or are placed in retirement status but have not yet reached age 60
  • All may be recalled to active duty by the appropriate service Secretary
53
Q

Identify the categories that make up the Ready Reserves

A

Selected reserve, Individual ready reserve, Inactive national guard

54
Q

State how the Air National Guard differs constitutionally from the USAF

A

Dual Mission (State and Federal)

55
Q

State the chains of command for the Air Force Reserve Command and the Air National Guard

A
56
Q

Identify the four categories of Reserve accessibility

A

Full mobilization, Partial mobilization, Presidental selected reserve call-up, Volunteers

57
Q

Describe joint operations

A

Described in Joint Publication 1 and 3-0 as the integrated and synchronized application of all appropriate capabilities to achieve a unified effort.

58
Q

Describe the joint functions

A

Command and Control (C2), Intelligence, Fires, Movement and Manuever, Protection, Sustainment

59
Q

State the range of military operations

A
60
Q

Outline the operational joint chain of command from the President to the individual components

A
61
Q

Identify the joint warfare values

A

Integrity, competence, physical courage, moral courage, teamwork

62
Q

State the definition of terrorism according to Joint Publication 3-07.2

A

The unlawful use of violence or threat of violence to instill fear and coerce governments or societies. Terrorism is often motivated by religious, political, or other ideological beliefs and committed in the pursuit of goals that are usually political

63
Q

Describe the three typologies of terrorists and terror groups

A

Political, religious, social

64
Q

List the six possible terrorist objectives as described in the lesson

A

Attract attention, demonstrate power, govt’s lack of power, revenge, obtain logistical support, cause gov’t overreaction

65
Q

The most common terrorist tactic

A

Bombing

66
Q

State the 4 enduring policy principles that guide US counterterrorism strategy

A
  1. Make no concessions to terrorists
  2. Bring terrorists to justice
  3. Isolate & apply pressure on states that sponsor terrorism to force change of behavior
  4. Bolster counterterrorist capabilities of countries that work w/ US & require assistance
67
Q

Outline the seven-step terrorist planning cycle

A
  1. Broad target selection
  2. Intelligence and surveillance
  3. Specific target selection
  4. Pre-attack surveillance and planning
  5. Attack rehearsal
  6. Action
  7. Escape and exploitation
68
Q

Identify the terrorist activity that poses the most likely threat to the US homeland

A

US-based HVEs (homegrown violent extremists) will probably continue to pose the most significant Sunni terrorist threat to the US homeland in 2016

69
Q

State the contributing factors towards violent extremist activities

A

The acute and enduring nature of demographic, economic, political, social, and technological factors contributes to the motivation of individuals and groups and their participation in violent extremist activities

70
Q

Identify potential vulnerabilities to US Cyber defenses

A

Devices, designed and fielded with minimal security requirements and testing, and an ever-increasing complexity of networks could lead to widespread vulnerabilities in civilian infrastructures and US Government systems

71
Q

Identify the most preeminent global terror group

A

The Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant (ISIL)

72
Q
A

COT (2 decks)

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